DENTAL
Second Edition
STEPHEN T. SONI S, D.M.D., D.M.Sc.
Professor and Chairman
Department of Oral Medicine and
Diagnostic Sciences
Harvard School of Dental Medicine
Chief, Division of Oral Medicine, Oral and Maxillofacial
Surgery and Dentistry
Brigham and Women's Hospital
Boston, Massachusetts
HANLEY & BELFUS, INC./ Philadelphia
Publisher : hanley & belfus, i nc.
Medical Publishers
210 South 13th Street
Philadelphia, PA 19107
(215) 546-7293; 800-962-1892
FAX (215) 790-9330
Web site: http:/ / www.hanlevandbelf usxom
Disclaimer : Although the information in this book has been carefully reviewed for
correctness of dosage and indications, neither the authors nor the editors nor the
publisher can accept any legal responsibility for any errors or omissions that may be
made. Neither the publisher nor the editors make any warranty, expressed or implied,
with respect to the material contained herein Before prescribing any drug, the reader
must review the manufacturer's current product information (package inserts) for
accepted indications, absolute dosage recommendations, and other information pertinent
to the safe and effective use of the product described.
Library of Congress Cataloging-in-Publication Data
Dental Secrets : questions you will be asked on rounds, in the clinic, on oral exams, on board
examinations / edited by Stephen T. Sonis.— 2nd ed.
p. cm. — (The Secrets Series®)
Includes bibliographical references and index.
ISBN 1-56053-300-5 (alk. paper)
I. Dentistry— Examinations, questions, etc. 1. Sonis, Stephen T.II. Series.
DNLM: 1. Dental Care examination questions. WU 18.2D414 1999|
RK57.D48 1999
617.6'0076-dc2l
DNLM/DLC
for Library of Congress 98-34612
CIP
DENTAL SECRETS, 2nd edition ISBN 1-56053-300-5
© 1999 by Hanley & Belfus, Inc. All rights reserved. No part of this book may be
reproduced, reused, republished, or transmitted in any form, or stored in a data base or
retrieval system, without written permission of the publisher.
Last digit is the print number: 987654321
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DEDI CATI ON
To my father, H. Richard Sonis, D.D.S.,
with admiration and gratitude.
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CONTENTS
1. Patient Management: The Dentist- Patient Relationship 8
Elliot V. Feldbau
2. Treatment Planning and Oral Diagnosis 24
Stephen T. Son is
3. Oral Medicine 37
Joseph W. Costa, Jr., and Dale Potter
4. Oral Pathology 62
Soal<-Bin Woo
5. Oral Radiology 99
Bernard Fried land
6. Periodontology 125
Marks. Obernesser
7. Endodontics 155
Steven P. Levine
8. Restorative Dentistry 180
Elliot V. Feldbau and Steven A. Migliorini
9. Prosthodontics 216
Ralph B. Sozio
10. Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery 251
Stephen T. Sonis and Willie L. Stephens
11. Pediatric Dentistry and Orthodontics 284
Andrew L. Sonis
12. I nfection and Hazard Control 301
HeleneS. Bednarsh, KathyJ. Ekiund, John A. Molinari, and Walters. Bond
13. Computers and Dentistry 343
Elliot V. Feldbau and Harvey N. Waxman
14. Dental Public Health 371
Edward S. Peters
15. Legal Issues and Ethics in Dental Practice 388
Elliot V. Feldbau and Bernard Friedland
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CONTRIBUTORS
Helene S. Bednarsh, R.D.H., B.S., M.P.H.
Director, HIV Dental Ombudsperson Program, Boston Public Health Commission,
Boston, Massachusetts
Walter S. Bond, M.S.
Consultant, Healthcare Environmental Microbiology, RCSA, Inc., Lawrenceville,
Georgia
J oseph W. Costa, J r., D.M.D.
Instructor, Department of Oral Medicine and Diagnostic Sciences, Harvard School
of Dental Medicine; Director, General Practice Residency Program and Associate
Surgeon, Brigham and Women's Hospital, Boston, Massachusetts
KathyJ. Ekiund, B.S., R.D.H., M.H.P.
Clinical Associate Professor of Dental Hygiene, Forsyth School for Dental
Hygienists, Boston, Massachusetts
ElliotV.Feldbau, D.M.D.
Surgeon, Division of Oral Medicine and Dentistry, Brigham and Women's Hospital;
Instructor in Restorative Dentistry, Harvard School of Dental Medicine, Boston,
Massachusetts
Bernatxl Friedland, B.Ch.D., M.Sc, J .D.
Assistant Professor of Oral Medicine and Diagnostic Sciences, Division of Oral and
Maxillo facial Radiology, Harvard School of Dental Medicine, Boston,
Massachusetts
Steven P. Levine, D.M.D.
Clinical Instructor, Department of Endodontics, Harvard School of Dental Medicine,
Boston, Massachusetts
Steven A. Migliorini, D.M.D.
Private Practice, Stoneham, Massachusetts
John A. Molinari, Ph.D.
Professor, Department of Biomedical Sciences, University of Detroit Mercy School
of Dentistry, Detroit, Michigan
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Mark S. Obernesser, D.D.S., M.M.Sc.
Instructor, Periodontology, Harvard School of Dental Medicine; Associate Surgeon,
Division of Oral Medicine and Dentistry, Brigham and Women's Hospital, Boston,
Massachusetts
Edward S. Peters, D.M.D., M.S.
Instructor in Oral Medicine and Diagnostic Sciences, Harvard School of Dental
Medicine; Associate Surgeon, Division of Oral Medicine and Dentistry, Brigham and
Women's Hospital, Boston, Massachusetts
Dale Potter, D.D.S., M.P.H.
Instructor in Oral Medicine and Diagnostic Sciences, Harvard School of Dental
Medicine; Surgeon, Division of Oral Medicine and Dentistry, Brigham and Women's
Hospital, Boston, Massachusetts
Andrew L. Sonis, D.M.D.
Associate Clinical Professor of Pediatric Dentistry, Harvard School of Dental
Medicine; Associate in Dentistry, Boston Children's Hospital: Surgeon, Division of
Oral Medicine and Dentistry, Brigham and Women's Hospital. Boston,
Massachusetts
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PREFACE TO THE FIRST EDITION
This book was written by people who lil<e to teach for people who like to learn. Its
format of questions and short answers lends itself to the dissemination of
information as the kinds of "pearls" that teachers are always trying to provide and
for which students yearn. The format also permits a lack of formality not available
in a standard text. Consequently, the reader will note smatterings of humor
throughout the book. Our goal has been to provide a work that readers will enjoy
and find useful and stimulating.
This book is not a substitute for the many excellent textbooks available in
dentistry. It is our hope that readers will pursue additional readings in areas which
they find stimulating. While short answers provide the passage of succinct
information, they do not allow for much discussion in the way of background or
rationale. We have tried to provide sufficient breadth in the sophistication of
questions in each chapter to meet the needs of dental students, residents, and
practitioners.
It has been a pleasure working with my colleagues who have contributed to this
book. I would like to thank Mike Bokulich for initiating this project. Finally, I am
grateful to Linda Belfus, our publisher and editor, for her assistance, attention to
detail, and patience.
PREFACE TO THE SECOND EDITION
The practice of dentistry has undergone a number of changes since the first
edition of Dental Secrets was published only a few years ago. New materials,
techniques, instrumentation, regulatory issues, and advances in understanding the
biologic basis for treatment are all reflected in the new edition. The successful
question-and-answer format of the first edition is the same, although every
chapter has undergone some revision. Where appropriate, the authors have added
figures or tables. New questions were added and obsolete questions were deleted.
A new chapter on the use of computers in dentistry reflects the impact of this
technology on the profession. One thing has not changed: the authors still love to
teach those who love to learn.
Stephen T. Sonis, D.M.D., D.M.Sc.
Boston, Massachusetts
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1. PATI ENT MANAGEMENT:
THE DENTI ST- PATI ENT RELATI ONSHI P
Elliot V. Feldbau, D.MD.
AFter you seat the patient, a 42-year-old woman, she turns to you and
says glibly, "Doctor, I don't like dentists." How should you respond?
Tip: The patient presents with a gross generalization. Distortions and
deletions of information need to be explored. Not liking you, the dentist, whom
she has never met before, is not a clear representation of what she is trying to
say. Start the interview with questioning surprise in your voice as you cause her to
reflect by repeating her phrasing, "You don't like dentists?," with the expectation
that she will elaborate. Probably she has had a bad experience, and by proceeding
from the generalization to the specific, communication will advance. It is important
to do active listening and to allow the patient who is somewhat belligerent to
ventilate her thoughts and feelings. You thereby show that you are different
perhaps from a previous dentist who may not have developed listening skills and
left the patient with a negative view of all dentists. The goals are to enhance
communication, to develop trust and rap port, and to start a new chapter in the
patient's dental experience.
As you prepare to do a root canal on tooth number 9, a 58-year-old man
responds, 'The last time I had that dam on, I couldn't catch my breath.
1 1 was horrible." How should you respond? What may be the significance
of his statement?
Tip: The comment, "I couldn't catch my breath," requires clarification. Did
the patient have an impaired airway with past rubber dam experience, or has
some long ago experience been generalized to the present? Does the patient have
a gagging problem? A therapeutic interview clarifies, reassures, and allows the
patient to be more compliant.
A 36-year-old woman who has not been to the dentist for almost 10
years tells you, "My last dentist said I was allergic to a local anesthetic. I
passed out in the dental chair after the injection." A 55-year-old man is
referred for periodontal surgery. During the medical history, he states
that he had his tonsils out at age 10 years and since then any work on
his mouth frightens him. He feels like gagging. How do you respond?
Tip: In both cases, a remembered traumatic event is generalized to the
present situation. Although the feelings of helplessness and fear of the unknown
are still experienced, a reassured patient, who knows what is going to happen.
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can be taught a new set of appropriate coping sl<ills to enable the required dental
treatments. The interview fully explores all phases of the events surrounding the
past trauma when the fears were first imprinted.
AFter performing a thorough examination for the chief complaint of
recurrent swelling and pain of a lower right first molar, you conclude
that, given the 80% bone loss and advanced subosseous furcation
decay, the tooth is hopeless. You recommend extraction to prevent
further infection and potential involvement of adjacent teeth. Your
patient replies, '1 don't want to lose any teeth. Save it!" How do you
respond?
Tip: The command to save a hopeless tooth at all costs requires an
understanding of the denial process, or the clinician may be doomed to perform
treatments with no hope of success and face the likely consequences of a
disgruntled patient. The interview should clarify the patient's feelings, fears, or
interpretations regarding tooth loss. It may be a fear of not knowing that a tooth
may be replaced, a fear of pain associated with extractions, a fear of confronting
disease and its consequences, or even a fear of guilt due to neglect of dental care.
The interview should clarify and inform while creating a sense of concern and
compassion.
With each of the above patients, the dentist should be alerted that
something is not routine. Each expresses a degree of concern and anxiety. This is
clearly the time for the dentist to remove the gloves, lower the mask, and begin a
comprehensive interview. Although responses to such situations may vary
according to individual style, each clinician should proceed methodically and
carefully to gather specific information based on the cues that the patient
presents. By understanding each patient's comments and the feelings related to
earlier experiences, the dentist can help the patient to see that change is possible
and that coping with dental treatment is easily learned. The following questions
and answers provide a framework for conducting a therapeutic interview that
increases patient compliance and reduces levels of anxiety.
1. What is the basic goal of the initial patient interview?
To establish a therapeutic dentist-patient relationship in which accurate data
are collected, presenting problems are assessed, and effective treatment is
suggested.
2. What are the major sources of clinical data derived during the
interview?
The clinician should be attentive to what the patient verbalizes (i.e., the
chief complaint), the manner of speaking (how things are expressed) and the
nonverbal cues that may be related through body language (e.g., posture, gait,
facial expression, or movements). While listening carefully to the patient, the
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dentist observes associated gestures, fidgeting movements, excessive
perspiration, or patterns of irregular breathing that ma hint of underlying anxiety
or emotional problems.
3. What are the common determinants of a patient's presenting
behavior?
1. The patient's perception and interpretation of the present situation (the
reality or view of the present illness)
2. The patient's past experiences or personal history
3. The patient's personality and overall view of life
Patients generally present to the dentist for help and are relieved to share
personal information with a knowledgeable professional who can assist them.
However, some patients also may feel insecure or emotionally vulnerable because
of such disclosures.
4. Discuss the insecurities that patients may encounter while relating
their personal histories.
Patients may feel the fear of rejection, criticism, or even humiliation from
the dentist because of their neglect of dental care. Confidential disclosures may
threaten the patient's self-esteem. Thus patients may react to the dentist with
both rational and irratl comments, their behavior may be inappropriate and even
puzzling to the dentist. In a severely psychologically limited patient (e.g.,
psychosis, personality disorders), behaviors may approach extremes. Furthermore,
patients who perceive the dentist as judgmental or too evaluative are likely to
become defensive, uncommunicative, or even hostile. Anxious patients are more
observant of any signs of displeasure or negative reactions by the dentist. The role
of effective communication is extremely important with such patients.
5. How can one effectively deal with the patient's insecurities?
Probably acknowledgment of the basic concepts of empathy and respect
gives the most support to patients. Understanding their point of view (empathy)
and recognition of their right to their own opinions and feelings (respect), even if
different from the dentist's personal views, help to deal with potential conflicts.
6. Why is it important for dentists to be aware of their own feelings
when dealing with patients?
While the dentist tries to maintain an attitude that is attentive, friendly, and
even sympathetic toward a patient, he or she needs an appropriate degree of
objectivity in relation to patients and their problems. Dentists who find that they
are not listening with some degree of emotional neutrality to the patient's
information should be aware of personal feelings of anxiety, sadness, indifference,
resentment, or even hostility that may be aroused by the patient. Recognition of
any aspects of the patient's behavior that arouse such emotions helps dentists to
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understand their own behavior and to prevent possible conflicts in clinical
judgment and treatment plan suggestions.
7. List two strategies for the initial patient interview.
1. During the verbal exchange with the patient all of the elements of the
medical and dental history relevant to treating the patient's dental needs are
elicited.
2. In the nonverbal exchange between the patient and the dentist, the
dentist gathers cues from the patient's mannerisms while conveying an empathic
attitude.
8. What are the major elements of the empathic attitude that a dentist
tries to relate to the patient during the interview?
• Attentiveness and concern for the patient
• Acceptance of the patient and his or her problems
• Support for the patient
• Involvement with the intent to help
9. How are empathic feelings conveyed to the patient?
Giving full attention while listening demonstrates to the a patient that you
are physically present and comprehend what the patient relates. Appropriate
physical attending skills enhance this process. Careful analysis of what a patient
tells you allows you to respond to each statement with clarification and
interpretation of the issues presented. The patient hopefully gains some insight
into his or her problem, and rapport is further enhanced.
10. What useful physical attending skills comprise the nonverbal
component of communication?
The adept use of face, voice, and body facilitates the classic bedside
manner, including the following:
Eye contact. Looking at the patient without overt staring establishes
rapport.
Facial expression. A smile or nod of the head to affirm shows warmth,
concern, and interest.
Vocal characteristics. The voice is modulated to express meaning and to
help the patient to understand important issues.
Body orientation. Facing patients as you stand or sit signals attentiveness. Turning
away may seem like rejection.
Forward lean and proximity. Leaning forward tells a patient that you are
interested and want to hear more, thus facilitating the patient's comments.
Proximity infers intimacy, whereas distance signals less attentiveness. In general,
4—6 feet is considered a social, consultative zone.
A verbal message of low empathic value may be altered favorably by
maintaining eye contact, forward trunk lean, and appropriate distance and body
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orientation. However, even a verbal message of high empathic content may be
reduced to a lower value when the speaker does not have eye contact, turns away
with backward lean, or maintains too far a distance. For example, do not tell the
patient that you are concerned while washing your hands with your back to the
dental chair.
11. During the interview, what cues alert the dentist to search for more
information about a statement made by the patient?
Most people express information that they do not fully understand by using
generalizations, deletions, and distortions in their phrasing. For example, the
comment, "I am a horrible patient," does not give much insight into the patient's
intent. By probing further the dentist may discover specific fears or behaviors that
the patient has deleted in the opening generalization. As a matter of routine, the
dentist should be alert to such cues and use the interview to clarify and work
through the patient's comments. As the interview proceeds, trust and rapport are
built as a mutual understanding develops and levels of fear decrease.
12. Why is open-ended questioning useful as an interviewing format?
Questions that do not have specific yes or no answers give patients more
latitude to express themselves. More information allows a better understanding of
patients and their problems. The dentist is basically saying , " Tell me more about
it . " Throughout the interview the clinician listens to any cues that indicate the
need to pursue further questioning for more information about expressed fears or
concerns. Typical questions of the open-ended format include the following: "What
brings you here today?," "Are you having any problems?," or "Please tell me more
about it."
13. How can the dentist help the patient to relate more information or
to talk about a certain issue in greater depth?
A communication technique called facilitation by reflection is helpful. One
simply repeats the last word or phrase that was spoken in a questioning tone of
voice. Thus when a patient says, "I am petrified of dentists," the dentist responds,
"Petrified of dentists?" The patient usually elaborates. The goal is to go from
generalization to the specific fear to the origin of the fear. The process is
therapeutic and allows fears to be reduced or diminished as patients gain insight
into their feelings.
14. How should one construct suggestions that help patients to alter
their behavior or that influence the outcome of a command?
Negatives should be avoided in commands. Positive commands are more
easily experienced, and compliance is usually greater. To experience a negation,
the patient first creates the positive image and then somehow negates it. In
experience only positive situations can be realized; language forms negation. For
example, to experience the command "Do not run!," one may visualize oneself
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sitting, standing, or wall<ing slowly. A more direct command is "Stop!" or "Walk!"
Moreover, a negative command may create more resistance to compliance,
whether voluntary or not. If you ask someone not to see elephants, he or she
tends to see elephants first. Therefore, it may be best to ask patients to keep their
mouth open widely rather than to say, "Don't close," or perhaps to suggest, "Rest
open widely, please."
A permissive approach and indirect commands also create less resistance
and enhance compliance. One may say, "If you stay open widely, I can do my
procedure faster and better," or "By flossing daily, you will experience a fresher
breath and a healthier smile." This style of suggestion is usually better received
than a direct command.
Linking phrases— for example, "as," "while," or "when"— to join a suggestion
with something that is happening in the patient's immediate experience provides
an easier pathway for a patient to follow and further enhances compliance.
Examples include the following: 'As you lie in the chair, allow your mouth to rest
open. While you take another deep breath, allow your body to relax further." In
each example the patient easily identifies with the first experience and thus
experiences the additional suggestion more readily.
Providing pathways to achieve a desired end may help patients to
accomplish something that they do not know how to do on their own. Patients
may not know how to relax on command; it may be more helpful to suggest that
while they take in each breath slowly and see a drop of rain rolling off a leaf, they
can let their whole body become loose and at ease. Indirect suggestions, positive
images, linking pathways, and guided visualizations play a powerful role in helping
patients to achieve desired goals.
15. How do the senses influence communication style?
Most people record experience in the auditory, visual, or kinesthetic modes.
They hear, they see, or they feel. Some people use a dominant mode to process
information. Language can be chosen to match the modality that best fits the
patient. If patients relate their problem in terms of feelings, responses related to
how they feel may enhance communication. Similarly, a patient may say, "Doctor,
that sounds like a good treatment plan' or "I see that this disorder is relatively
common. Things look less frightening now." These comments suggest an auditory
mode and a visual mode, respectively Responding in similar terms enhances
communication.
16. When is reassurance most valuable in the clinical session?
Positive supportive statements to the patient that he or she is going to do
well or be all right are an important part of treatment. Everyone at some point
may have doubts or fears about the outcome. Reassurance given too early, such
as before a thorough examination of the presenting symptoms, may be
interpreted by some patients as insincerity or as trivializing their problem.
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The best time for reassurance is after the examination, when a tentative
diagnosis is reached. The support is best received by the patient at this point.
17. What type of language or phrasing is best avoided in patient
communications?
Certain words or descriptions that are routine in the technical terminology of
dentistry may be offensive or frightening to patients. Cutting, drilling, bleeding,
injecting, or clamping may be anxiety-provoking terms to some patients.
Furthermore, being too technical in conversations with patients may result in poor
communication and provoke rather than reduce anxiety. It is beneficial to choose
terms that are neutral yet informative. One may prepare a tooth rather than cut it
or dry the area rather than suction all of the blood. This approach may be
especially important during a teaching session when procedural and technical
instructions are given as the patient lies helpless, listening to conversation that
seems to exclude his or her presence as a person.
18. What common dental-related fears do patients experience?
• Pain
• Drills (e.g., slipping, noise, smell)
• Needles (deep penetration, tissue injury, numbness)
• Loss of teeth
• Surgery
19. List four elements common to all fears.
• Fear of the unknown • Fear of loss of control
• Fear of physical harm or bodily injury • Fear of helplessness and
dependency
Understanding the above elements of fear allows effective planning for
treatment of fearful and anxious patients.
20. During the clinical interview, how may one address such fears?
According to the maxim that fear dissolves in a trusting relationship,
establishing good rapport with patients is especially important. Secondly,
preparatory explanations may deal effectively with fear f the unknown and thus
give a sense of control. Allowing patients to signal when they wish to pause or
speak further alleviates fears of loss of control. Finally, well-executed dental
technique and clinical practices minimize unpleasantness.
21. How are dental fears learned?
Most commonly dental-related fears are learned directly from a traumatic
experience in a dental or medical setting. The experience may be real or perceived
by the patient as a threat, but a single event may lead to a lifetime of fear when
any element of the traumatic situation is reexperienced. The situation may have
occurred many years before, but the intensity of the recalled fear may persist.
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Associated with the incident is the behavior of the past doctor. Thus, in diffusing
learned fear, the behavior of the present doctor is paramount.
Fears also may be learned indirectly as a vicarious experience from family
members, friends, or even the media. Cartoons and movies often portray the pain
and fear of the dental setting. How many times have dentists seen the negative
reaction of patients to the term "root canal," even though they may not have had
one?
Past fearful experiences often occur during childhood when perceptions are
out of proportion to events, but memories and feelings persist into adulthood with
the same distortions. Feelings of helplessness, dependency, and fear of the
unknown are coupled with pain and a possible uncaring attitude on the part of the
dentist to condition a response of fear when any element of the past event is
reexperienced. Indeed, such events may not even be available to conscious
awareness.
22. How are the terms generalization and modeling related to the
conditioning aspect of dental fears?
Dental fears may be seen as similar to classic Pavlovian conditioning. Such
conditioning may result in generalization , by which the effects of the original
episode spread to situation with similar elements. For example, the trauma of an
injury or the details of an emergency setting, such as sutures or injections may be
generalized to the dental setting. Many adults who had tonsillectomies under ether
anesthesia may generalize the childhood experience to the dental setting,
complaining of difficulty with breathing or airway maintenance, difficulty with
gagging, or inability to tolerate oral injections. Modeling is vicarious learning
through indirect exposure to traumatic events through parents, siblings, or any
other source that affects the patient.
23. Why is understanding the patient's perception of trol of fear and
stress?
According to studies, patients perceive the dentist as both the controller of
what the patient perceives as dangerous and as the protector from that danger.
Thus the dentist's behavior and communications assume increased significance.
The patient's ability to tolerate stress and to cope with fears depends on the
ability to develop and maintain a high level of trust and confidence in the dentist.
To achieve this goal, patients must express all the issues that they perceive as
threatening, and the dentist must explain what he or she can do to address
patient concerns and protect them from the perceived dangers. This is the
purpose of the clinical interview. The result of this exchange should be increased
trust and rapport and a subsequent decline in fear and anxiety.
24. How are emotions evolved? What constructs are important to
understanding dental fears?
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Psychological theories suggest that events and situations are evaluated by
using interpretations that are personality-dependent (i.e., based on individual
history and experience). Emotions evolve from this history. Positive or negative
coping abilities mediate the interpretative process (people who believe that they
are capable of dealing with a situation experience a different emotion during the
initial event than people with less coping ability). The resulting emotional
experience may be influenced by vicarious learning experiences (watching others
react to an event), direct learning experiences (having one's own experience with
the event), or social persuasion (expressions by others of what the event means).
A person's coping ability, or self-efficacy, in dealing with an appraisal of an
event for its threatening content is highly variable, based on the multiplicity of
personal life experiences. Belief that one has the ability to cope with a difficult
situation reduces the interpretations that an event will be appraised as
threatening, and a lower level of anxiety will result. A history of failure to cope
with difficult events or the perception that coping is not a personal
accomplishment (e.g., reliance in external aids, drugs) often reduces self-efficacy
expectations and interpretations of the event result in higher anxiety.
25. How can learned fears be eliminated or unlearned?
Because fears of dental treatment are learned, relearning or unlearning is
possible. A comfortable experience without the associated fearful and painful
elements may eliminate the conditioned fear response and replace it with an
adaptive and more comfortable coping response. The secret is to uncover through
the interview process which elements resulted in the maladaptation and
subsequent response of fear, to eliminate them from the present dental
experience by reinterpreting them for the adult patient, and to create a more
caring and protected experience. During the interview the exchange of information
and the insight gained by the patient decrease levels of fear, increase rapport, and
establish trust in the doctor-patient relationship. The clinician needs only to apply
expert operative technique to treat the vast majority of fearful patients.
26. What remarks may be given to a patient before beginning a
procedure that the patient perceives as threatening?
Opening comments by the dentist to inform the patient about what to
expect during a procedure— e.g., pressure, noise, pain— may reduce the fear of
the unknown and the sense of helplessness. Control through knowing is increased
with such preparatory communications.
27. How may the dentist further address the issue of loss of control?
A simple instruction that allows patients to signal by raising a hand if they
wish to stop or speak returns a sense of control.
28. What is denial? How may it affect a patient's behavior and dental
treatment-planning decisions?
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Denial is a psychologic term for the defense mechanism that people use to
block out the experience of information with which they cannot emotionally cope.
They may not be able to accept the reality or consequences of the information or
experience with which they will have to cope; therefore, they distort that
information or completely avoid the issue. Often the underlying experience of the
information is a threat to self-esteem or liable to provoke anxiety. These feelings
are often unconsciously expressed by unreasonable requests of treatment.
For the dentist, patients who refuse to accept the reality of their dental
disease, such as the hopeless condition of a tooth, may lead to a path of
treatment that is doomed to fail. The subsequent disappointment of the patient
may involve litigation issues.
29. Define dental phobia.
A phobia is an irrational fear of a situation or object. The reaction to the
stimulus is often greatly exaggerated in relation to the reality of the threat. The
fears are beyond voluntary control, and avoidance is the primary coping
mechanism. Phobias may be so intense that severe physiologic reactions interfere
with daily functioning. In the dental setting acute syncopal episodes may result.
Almost all phobias are learned. The process of dealing with true dental
phobia may require a long period of individual psychotherapy and adjunctive
pharmacologic sedation. However, relearning is possible, and establishing a good
doctor-patient relationship is paramount.
30. What strategies may be used with the patient who gags on the
slightest provocation?
The gag reflex is a basic physiologic protective mechanism that occurs when
the posterior oropharynx is stimulated by a foreign object; normal swallowing does
not trigger the reflex. When overlying anxiety is present, especially if anxiety is
related to the fear of being unable to breathe, the gag reflex may be exaggerated.
A conceptual model is the analogy to being "tickled." Most people can stroke
themselves on the sole of the foot or under the arm without a reaction, but when
the same stimulus is done by someone else, the usual results are laughter and
withdrawal. Hence, if patients can eat properly, put a spoon in their mouth, or
suck on their own finger, usually they are considered physiologically normal and
may be taught to accept dental treatment and even dentures with appropriate
behavioral therapy.
In dealing with such patients, desensitization becomes the process of
relearning. A review of the history to discover episodes of impaired or threatened
breathing is important. Childhood general anesthesia, near drowning, choking, or
asphyxiation may have been the initiating event that created increased anxiety
about being touched in the oral cavity. Patients may fear the inability to breathe,
and the gag becomes part of their protective coping. Thus, reduction of anxiety is
the first step; an initial strategy is to give information that allows patients to
understand better their own response.
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Instruction in nasal breathing may offer confidence in the ability to maintain
a constant and uninterrupted air flow, even with oral manipulation. Eye fixation on
a singular object may dissociate and distract the patient's attention away from the
oral cavity. This technique may be especially helpful for taking radiographs and for
brief oral examinations. For severe gaggers, hypnosis and nitrous oxide may be
helpful; others may find use of a rubber dam reassuring. For some patients
longer-term behavioral therapy may be necessary.
31. What is meant by the term anxiety? How is it related to fear?
Anxiety is a subjective state commonly defined as an unpleasant feeling of
apprehension or impending danger in the presence of a real or perceived stimulus
that the person has learned to the response may be grossly exaggerated. Such
feelings may be present before the encounter with the feared situation and may
linger long after the event. Associated somatic feelings include sweating, tremors,
palpations, nausea, difficulty with swallowing, and hyperventilation.
Fear is usually considered an appropriate defensive response to a real or
active threat. Unlike anxiety, the response is brief, the danger is external and
readily definable, and the unpleasant somatic feelings pass as the danger passes.
Fear is the classic "fight-or-flight" response and may serve as an overall protective
mechanism by sharpening the senses and the ability to respond to the danger.
Whereas the response of fear does not usually rely on unhealthy actions for
resolution, the state of anxiety often relies on noncoping and avoidance behaviors
to deal with the threat.
32. How is stress related to pain and anxiety? What are the major
parameters of the stress response?
When a person is stimulated by pain or anxiety, the result is a series of
physiologic responses dominated by the autOOOmic nervous system, skeletal
muscles, and endocrine system. These physiologic responses define stress. In
what is termed adaptive responses, the sympathetic responses dominate
(increases in pulse rate, blood pressure, respiratory rate, peripheral
vasoconstriction, skeletal muscle tone, and blood sugar; decreases in sweating,
gut motility, and salivation). In an acute maladaptive response the
parasympathetic responses dominate, and a syncopal episode may result
(decreases in pulse rate, blood pressure, respiratory rate, muscle tone; increases
in salivation, sweating, gut motility, and peripheral vasodilation, with overall
confusion and agitation). In chronic maladaptive situations, psychosomatic
disorders may evolve. The accompanying figure illustrates the relationships of
fear, pain, and stress. It is important to control anxiety and stress during dental
treatment. The medically compromised patient necessitates appropriate control to
avoid potentially life-threatening situations.
33. What is the relationship between pain and anxiety?
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Many studies have shown the close relationship between pain and anxiety.
The greater the person's anxiety, the more likely it is that he or she will interpret
the response to a stimulus as painful. In addition, the pain threshold is lowered
with increasing anxiety. People who are debilitated, fatigued, or depressed
respond to threats with a higher degree of undifferentiated anxiety and thus are
more reactive to pain.
34. List four guidelines for the proper management of pain, anxiety,
and stress.
1. Make a careful assessment of the patient's anxiety and stress levels by a
thoughtful inter view. Uncontrolled anxiety and stress may lead to maladaptive
situations that become life-threatening in medically compromised patients.
Prevention is the most important strategy.
2. From all information gathered, medical and personal, determine the
correct methods for control of pain and anxiety. This assessment is critical to
appropriate management. Monitoring the patient's responses to the chosen
method is essential.
3. Use medications as adjuncts for positive reinforcement, not as methods
of control. Drugs circumvent fear; they do not resolve conflicts. The need for good
rapport and communication is always essential.
4. Adapt control techniques to fit the patient's needs. The use of a single
modality for all patients may lead to failure; for example, the use of nitrous oxide
sedation to moderate severe emotional problems.
35. Construct a model for the therapeutic interview of a self- identified
fearful patient.
1. Recognize a patient's anxiety by acknowledgment of what the patient
says or observation of the patient's demeanor. Recognition, which is both verbal
and nonverbal, may be as simple as saying, "Are you nervous about being here?"
This recognition indicates the dentist's concern, acceptance, supportiveness, and
intent to help.
2. Facilitate patients' cues as they tell their story. Help them to go from
generalizations to specifics, especially to past origins, if possible. Listen for
generalizations, distortions, and deletions of information or misinterpretations of
events as the patient talks.
3. Allow patients to speak freely. Their anxiety decreases as they tell their
story, describing the nature of their fear and the attitude of previous doctors.
Trust and rapport between doctor and patient also increase as the patient is
allowed to speak to someone who cares and listens.
4. Give feedback to the patient. Interpretations of the information helps
patients to learn new strategies for coping with their feelings and to adopt new
behaviors by confronting past fears. Thus a new set of feelings and behaviors may
replace maladaptive coping mechanisms.
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5. Finally the dentist makes a commitment to protect the patient— a
commitment that the patient may have perceived as absent in past dental
experiences. Strategies include allowing the patient to stop a procedure by raising
a hand or simply assuring a patient that you are ready to listen at any time.
36. Discuss behavioral methods that may help patients to cope with
dental fears and related anxiety.
1. The first step for the dentist is to become knowledgeable of the patient
and his or her presenting needs. Interviewing skills cannot be overemphasized. A
trusting relationship is essential. As the clinical interview proceeds, fears are
usually reduced to coping levels.
2. Because a patient cannot be anxious and relaxed at the same moment,
teaching methods of relaxation may be helpful. Systematic relaxation allows the
patient to cope with the dental situation. Guided visualizations may be helpful to
achieve relaxation. Paced breathing also may be an aid to keeping patients
relaxed. Guiding the rate of inspiration and expiration allows a hyperventilating
patient to resume normal breathing, thus decreasing the anxiety level. A sample
relaxation script is included below.
Relaxation Script
The following example should be read in a slow, rhythmic, and paced
manner while carefully observing the patients responses. Bacl<ing up and
repeating parts are beneficial if you find that the patient is not responding at any
time. Feel free to change and incorporate your own stylistic suggestions.
Allow yourself to become comfortable. . . and as you listen to the sound of
my voice, I shall guide you along a pathway of deepening relaxation. Often we
start Out at some high level of excitement, and as we slide, down lower, we can
become aware of our descent and enjoy the ride. Let us begin with some attention
to your breathing. ..taking some regular, slow.. .easy.. .breaths. Let the air flow
in. ..and out... air in... air out... until you become very aware of each inspiration...
and... expiration [ Very good. Now as you feel your chest rise with each intake
and fall with each outflow,
notice how different you now feel from a few moments ago, as you
comfortably resettle yourself in the chair, adjusting your arms and legs just
enough to make you feel more comfortable.
Now with regularly paced, slow, and easy breathing, I would like to ask that
you become aware of your arms and hands as they rest [ where you see them,
e.g., "on your lap"] Move them slightly. [ Next become aware of your legs and feel
the chair's support under them. . . they may also move slightly. We shall begin our
total body relaxation in just this way .. . becoming aware of a part and then
allowing it to become at ease.. . resting, floating, lying peacefully. Start at your
eyelids, and, if they are not already closed, allow them to become free and rest
them downward. . . your eyes may gaze and float upward. Now focusing on your
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forehead . . . letting the subtle folds become smoother and smoother with each
breath. Now let this peacefulness of eyelids and forehead start a gentle warm flow
of relaxing energy down over your cheeks and face, around and under your chin,
and slowly down your neck. You may find that you have to swallow . . . allow this
to happen, naturally. Now continue this flow as a stream ambling over your
shoulders and upper chest and over and across to each arm [ and when you feel
this warmth in your fingertips you may feel them move ever so slightly. [ for any
movement] Very good.
Next allow the same continuous flow to start down to your lower body and
over you waist and hips reaching each leg. You may notice that they are heavy, or
light, and that they move ever so slightly as
you feel the chair supporting them with each breath and each swallow that
you take. You are resting easily, breathing comfortably and effortlessly. You may
become aware of just how much at ease you are now, in such a short time, from a
moment ago, when you entered the room. Very good, be at ease.
3. Hypnosis, a useful tool with myriad benefits, induces an altered state of
awareness with heightened suggestibility for changes in behavior and physiologic
responses. It is easily taught, and the benefits can be highly beneficial in the
dental setting.
4. Informing patients of what they may experience during procedures
addresses the specific fears of the unknown and loss of control. Sensory
information— that is, what physical sensations may be expected— as well as
procedural information is appropriate. Knowledge enhances a patient's coping
skills.
5. Modeling, or observing a peer undergo successful dental treatment, may
be beneficial. Videotapes are available for a variety of dental scenarios.
6. Methods of distraction may also improve coping responses. Audio or
video programs have been reported to be useful for some patients.
37. What are common avoidance behaviors associated with anxious
patients?
Commonly, putting off making appointments followed by cancellations and
failing to appear are routine events for anxious patients. Indeed, the avoidance of
care can be of such magnitude that personal suffering is endured from tooth
ailments with emergency consequences. Mutilated dentition often results.
38. Whom do dentists often consider their most "difficult" patient?
Surveys repeatedly show that dentists often view the anxious patient as
their most difficult challenge. Almost 80% of dentists report that they themselves
become anxious with an anxious patient. The ability to assess carefully a patient's
emotional needs helps the clinician to improve his or her ability to deal effectively
with anxious patients. Furthermore, because anxious patients require more chair
time for procedures, are more reactive to stimuli, and associate more sensations
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with pain, effective anxiety management yields more effective practice
management.
39. What are the major practical considerations in scheduling identified
anxious dental patients?
Autonomic arousal increases in proportion to the length of time before a
stressful event. A patient left to anticipate the event with negative self-statements
and perhaps frightening images for a whole day or at length in the waiting area is
less likely to have an easy experience. Thus, it is considered prudent to schedule
patients earlier in the day and keep the waiting period after the patient's arrival to
a minimum. In addition, the dentist's energy is usually optimal earlier in the day to
deal with more demanding situations.
40. What behaviors on the dentist's part do patients specify as
reducing their anxiety?
• Explain procedures before starting.
• Give specific information during procedures.
• Instruct the patient to be calm.
• Verbally support the patient: give reassurance.
• Help the patient to redefine the experience to minimize threat.
• Give the patient some control over procedures and pain.
• Attempt to teach the patient to cope with distress.
• Provide distraction and tension relief.
• Attempt to build trust in the dentist.
• Show personal warmth to the patient.
Corah N: Dental anxiety: Assessment, reduction and increasing patient
satisfaction. Dent Clin North Am 32:779—790, 1988.
41. What perceived behaviors on the dentist's part are associated with
patient satisfaction?
• Assured me that he would prevent pain
• Was friendly
• Worked quickly, but did not rush
• Had a calm manner
• Gave me moral support
• Reassured me that he would alleviate pain
• Asked if I was concerned or nervous
• Made sure that I was numb before starting
to work
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BIBLIOGRAPHY
1. Corah N: Dental anxiety: Assessment, reduction and increasing patient
satisfaction. Dent Clin North Am 32:779—790, 1988.
2. Crasilneck HB, Hall JA: Clinical Hypnosis: Principles and Applications, 2nd ed.
Orlando, FL, Grune & Stratton, 1985.
3. Dworkin SF, Ference TP, Giddon DB: Behavioral Science in Dental Practice. St.
Louis, Mosby, 1978.
4. Friedman N, Cecchini ii, Wexler M, et al: A dentist-oriented fear reduction
technique: The iatrosedative process. Compend ContEduc Dent 10:113—
118, 1989.
5. Friedman N: Psychosedation. Part 2: latrosedation. In McCarthy FM (ed):
Emergencies in Dental Practice, 3rd ed. Philadelphia, W.B. Saunders, 1979,
pp 236—265.
6. Gelboy Mi: Communication and Behavior Management in Dentistry. London,
Williams &Watkins,1990.
7. Gregg JM: Psychosedation. Part 1: The nature and control of pain, anxiety,
and stress. In McCarthy FM (ed): Emergencies in Dental Practice, 3rd ed.
Philadelphia, W.B. Saunders, 1979, pp 220—235.
8. Jepsen CH: Behavioral foundations of dental practice. In Williams A (ed):
Clark's Clinical Dentistry, vol.
5. Philadelphia, J.B. Lippincott, 1993, pp 1—18.
9. Krochak M, Rubin JG: An overview of the treatment of anxious and phobic
dental patients. Compend Cont Educ Dent 14:604—615, 1993.
10. Rubin JG, Kaplan A (eds): Dental Phobia and Anxiety. Dent Clin North Am
32(4), 1988.
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2. TREATMENT PLANNI NG
AND ORAL Dl AGNOSI S
Stephen T. Sonis, D.M.D., D.MSc.
1. What are the objectives of pretreatment evaluation of a patient?
1. Establishment of a diagnosis
2. Determination of underlying medical conditions that may modify the oral
condition or the patient's ability to tolerate treatment
3. Discovery of concomitant illnesses
4. Prevention of medical emergencies associated with dental treatment
5. Establishment of rapport with the patient
2. What are the essential elements of a patient history?
1. Chief complaint 5. Family history
2. History of the present illness (HPI) 6. Review of systems
3. Past medical history 7. Dental history
4. Social history
3. Define the chief complaint.
The chief complaint is the reason that the patient seeks care, as described
in the patient's own words.
4. What is the history of the present illness?
The HPI is a chronologic description of the patient's symptoms and should
include information about duration, location, character, and previous treatment.
5. What elements need to be included in the medical history?
• Current status of the patient's general health • Medications
• Hospitalizations • Allergies
6. What areas are routinely investigated in the social history?
• Present and past occupations • Smoking, alcohol or drug use
• Occupational hazards • Marital status
7. Why is the family history of interest to the dentist?
The family history often provides information about diseases of genetic
origin or diseases that have a familial tendency. Examples include clotting
disorders, atherosclerotic heart disease, psychiatric diseases, and diabetes
mellitus.
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8. How is the medical history most often obtained?
The medical history is obtained with a written questionnaire supplemented
by a verbal history. The verbal history is imperative, because patients may leave
out or misinterpret questions on the written form. For example, some patients
may take daily aspirin and yet not consider it a "true" medication. The verbal
history also allows the clinician to pursue positive answers on the written form
and, in doing so, to establish rapport with the patient.
9. What techniques are used for physical examination of the patient?
How are they used in dentistry?
Inspection, the most commonly used technique, is based on visual
evaluation of the patient. Palpation, which involves touching and feeling the
patient, is used to determine the consistency and shape of masses in the mouth or
neck. Percussion, which involves differences in sound transmission of structures,
has little application to the head and neck. Auscultation, the technique of listening
to differences in the transmission of sound, is usually accomplished with a
stethoscope. In dentistry it is most typically used to listen to changes in sounds
emanating from the temporomandibular joint and in taking a patient's blood
pressure.
10. What are the patient's vital signs?
• Blood pressure • Respiratory rate
• Pulse • Temperature
11. What are the normal values for the vital signs?
• Blood pressure: 120mmHg/8O • Respiratory rate: 16—20
mmHg respirations per minute
• Pulse: 72 beats per minute • Temperature: 98.6°F or 37°C
12. What is a complete blood count (CBC)?
A CBC consists of a determination of the patient's hemoglobin, hematocrit,
white blood cell count, and differential white blood cell count.
13. What are the normal ranges of a CBC?
Hemoglobin: men, 14—18 g/dl Differential white blood count
women, 12—16 g/dl Neutrophils, 50—70%
Hematocrit: men, 40—54% Lymphocytes, 30—40%
women, 37—47% Monocytes, 3—7%
White blood count: 4,000—10,000 Eosinophils, 0—5%
cells/mm^ Basophils, 0—1%
14. What is the most effective blood test to screen for diabetes
mellitus?
The most effective screen for diabetes mellitus is fasting blood sugar.
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15. What is the technique of choice for diagnosis of a soft-tissue lesion
in the mouth?
With few exceptions, biopsy is the diagnostic technique of choice for
virtually all soft-tissue lesions of the mouth.
16. Is there any alternative diagnostic technique to biopsy for the
evaluation of suspected malignancies of the mouth?
Exfoliative cytology may be used as a screening technique for oral lesions.
This technique is analogous to the Papanicolaou smear used to screen for cervical
cancer. Unfortunately, a high rate of false negatives makes exfoliative cytology a
dangerous practice in the screening of suspected oral cancers. It has value mainly
in the diagnosis of certain viral, fungal, and vesiculobullous diseases.
17. When is immunofluorescence of value in oral diagnosis?
Immunofluorescent techniques are of value in the diagnosis of a number of
autoimmune diseases that affect the mouth, including pemphigus vulgaris and
mucous membrane pemphigoid.
18. What elements should be included in the dental history?
1. Past dental visits, including frequency, reasons, previous treatment, and
complications
2. Oral hygiene practices
3. Oral symptoms other than those associated with the chief complaint,
including tooth pain or sensitivity, gingival bleeding or pain, tooth mobility,
halitosis, and abscess formation
4. Past dental or maxillofacial trauma
5. Habits related to oral disease, such as bruxing, clenching, and nail biting
6. Dietary history
19. When is it appropriate to use microbiologic culturing in oral
diagnosis?
1. Bacterial infection. Because the overwhelming majority of oral
infections are sensitive to treatment with penicillin, routine bacteriologic culture of
primary dental infections is not generally indicated. However, cultures are
indicated in patients who are immunocompromised or myelosuppressed for two
reasons: (1) they are at significant risk for sepsis, and (2) the oral flora often
change in such patients. Cultures should be obtained for infections that are
refractory to the initial course of antibiotics before changing antibiotics.
2. Viral infection. Immunocompromised patients who present with
mucosal lesions may well be manifesting herpes simplex infection. A viral culture is
warranted. Similarly, other viruses in the herpes family, such as cytomegalovirus,
may cause oral lesions in the immunocompromised patient and should be isolated,
if possible. Routine culturing for primary or secondary herpes infections is not
warranted in healthy patients.
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3. Fungal infection. Candidiasis is the most common fungal infection
affecting the oral mucosa. Because its appearance is often varied, especially in
immunocompromised patients, fungal cultures are often of value. In addition,
because candidal infection is a frequent cause of burning mouth, culture is often
indicated in immunocompromised patients, even in the absence of visible lesions.
20. IHow do you obtain access to a clinical laboratory?
It is easy to obtain laboratory tests for your patients, even if you do not
practice in a hospital. Community hospitals provide virtually all laboratory services
that your patients may require. Usually the laboratory provides order slips and
culture tubes. Simply indicate the test needed, and send the patient to the
laboratory. Patients who need a test at night or on a weekend can generally be
accommodated through the hospital's emergency department. Commercial
laboratories also may be used. They, too, supply order forms. If you practice in a
medical building with physicians, find out which laboratory they use. If they use a
commercial laboratory, a pick-up service for specimens may well be provided. The
most important issue is to ensure the quality of the laboratory. Adherence to the
standards of the American College of Clinical Pathologists is a good indicator of
laboratory quality.
21. What is the approximate cost of the following laboratory tests:
complete blood count, platelet count, FT, fasting glucose, bacterial
culture, and fungal culture?
CBC $18 Fasting glucose $13
Platelet count $18 Bacterial culture $32
PT $29 Fungal culture $42
22. What are the causes of halitosis?
Halitosis may be caused by local factors in the mouth and by extraoral or
systemic factors. Among the local factors are food retention, periodontal infection,
caries, acute necrotizing gingivitis, and mucosal infection. Extraoral and systemic
causes of halitosis include smoking, alcohol ingestion, pulmonary or bronchial
disease, metabolic defects, diabetes mellitus, sinusitis, and tonsillitis.
23. What are the most commonly abused drugs in the United States?
Alcohol Prescription medications
Marijuana Tricyclic antidepressants
Cocaine Sedative-hypnotics
Phencyclidine (PCP) Narcotic analgesics
Heroin Anxiolytic agents
Diet aids
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24. What are the common causes of lymphadenopathy?
1. Infectious and inflammatory diseases of all types. Common oral
conditions causing lymphadenopathy are herpes infections, pericoronitis, aphthous
or traumatic ulceration, and acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis.
2. Immunologic diseases, such as rheumatoid arthritis, systemic lupus
erythematosus, and drug reactions 3. Malignant disease, such as Hodgkin's
disease, lymphoma, leukemia, and metastatic disease from solid tumors
4. Hyperthyroidism
5. Lipid storage diseases, such as Gaucher's disease and Niemann-Pick
disease
6. Other conditions, including sarcoidosis, amyloidosis, and granulomatosis
25. How can one differentiate between lymphadenopathy associated
with an inflammatory process and lymphadenopathy associated with
tumor?
1. Onset and duration. Inflammatory nodes tend to have a more acute
onset and course than nodes associated with tumor.
2. Identification of an associated infected site. An identifiable site of
infection associated with an enlarged lymph node is probably the source of the
lymphadenopathy. Effective treatment of the site should result in resolution of the
lymphadenopathy.
3. Symptoms. Enlarged lymph nodes associated with an inflammatory
process are usually tender to palpation. Nodes associated with tumor are not.
4. Progression. Continuous enlargement over time is associated with tumor.
5. Fixation. Inflammatory nodes are usually freely movable, whereas nodes
associated with tumor are hard and fixed.
6. Lack of response to antibiotic therapy. Continued nodal enlargement in
the face of appropriate antibiotic therapy should be viewed as suspicious.
7. Distribution. Unilateral nodal enlargement is a common presentation for
malignant disease. In contrast, bilateral enlargement often is associated with
systemic processes.
26. What is the most appropriate technique for lymph node diagnosis?
The most appropriate technique for lymph node diagnosis is biopsy or
needle aspiration. Needle aspiration is preferred, but is technique-sensitive (see
question 63).
27. What are the most frequent causes of intraoral swelling?
The most frequent causes of intraoral swelling are infection and tumor.
28. Why does Polly get parrotitis?
Too many crackers.
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29. Why do humans get parotitis?
Infection of viral or bacterial origin is the most common cause of parotitis in
humans. Viruses causing parotitis are mumps, Coxsackie, and influenza.
Staphylococcus aureus, the most common bacterial cause of parotitis, results in
the production of pus within the gland. Other bac teria, such as actinomyces,
streptococci, and gram-negative bacilli, also may cause suppurative parotitis.
30. What are common causes of xerostomia?
• Advanced age
• Certain medications
• Radiation therapy
• Sjogren's syndrome
31. What is the presentation of a patient with a tumor of the parotid
gland? How is the diagnosis made?
The typical patient with a parotid gland tumor presents with a firm, fixed
mass in the region of the gland. Involvement of the facial nerve is common and
results in facial palsy. Fine-needle biopsy is a commonly used technique for
diagnosis. However, the small sample obtained by such technique may be limiting.
CT and MRI are also often helpful in evaluating suspected tumors.
32. What are the major risic factors for oral cancer?
Tobacco and alcohol use are the major risk factors for the development of
oral cancer.
33. What is the possible role of toluidine blue stain in oral diagnosis?
Because tolujdjne blue is a metachromatic nuclear stain, it has been
reported to be preferentially absorbed by dysplastic and cancerous epithelium.
Consequently, it has been used as a technique to screen oral lesions. The
technique has a reported false-positive rate of 9% and a false-negative rate of
5%.
34. What are the common clinical presentations of oral cancers?
The two most common clinical presentations for oral cancer are a
nonhealing ulcer or an area of leukoplakia, often accompanied by erythema.
35. What percent of keratotic white lesions in the mouth are dysplastic
or cancerous?
Approximately 10% of such oral lesions are dysplastic or cancerous.
36. What is a simple way to differentiate clinically between necrotic
and keratotic white lesions of the oral mucosa?
Necrotic lesions of the mucosa, such as those caused by bums or candidal
infections, scrape off when gently rubbed with a moist tongue blade. On the other
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hand, because keratotic lesions result from epithelial changes, scraping fails to
dislodge them.
37. How long should one wait before obtaining a biopsy of an oral
ulcer?
Virtually all ulcers caused by trauma or aphthous stomatitis heal within 14
days of presentation. Consequently, any ulcer that is present for 2 weeks or more
should be biopsied.
38. What is the differential diagnosis of ulcers of the oral mucosa?
• Traumatic ulcer • Chancre of syphilis
• Aphthous stomatitis • Noma
• Cancer • Necrotizing sialometaplasia
• Tuberculosis • Deep fungal infection
39. Why is it a good idea to aspirate a pigmented lesion before
obtaining a biopsy?
Because pigmented lesions may be vascular in nature, prebiopsy aspiration
is prudent to pre vent hemorrhage.
40. What are the major causes of pigmented oral and perioral lesions?
Pigmented lesions are due to either endogenous or exogenous sources.
Among endogenous sources are melanoma, endocrine-related pigmentation (such
as occurs in Addison's disease), and perioral pigmentation associated with
intestinal polyposis or Peutz-Jegher's syndrome. Exogenous sources of
pigmentation include heavy metal poisoning (e.g., lead), amalgam tattoos, and
changes caused by chemicals or medications. A common example of
medication-related changes is black hairy tongue associated with antibiotics,
particularly or bismuth-containing compounds, such as Pepto-Bismol.
41. Do any diseases of the oral cavity also present with lesions of the
skin?
Numerous diseases can cause simultaneous lesions of the mouth and skin.
Among the most common are lichen planus, erythema multiforme, lupus
erythematosus, bullous pemphigoid, and pemphigus vulgaris.
42. What is the appearance of the skin lesion associated with erythema
multiforme?
The skin lesion of erythema multiforme looks like an archery target with a
central erythema tous bullseye and a circular peripheral area. Hence, the lesions
are called bullseye or target lesions.
43. A 25-year-old woman presents with the chief complaint of
spontaneously bleeding gingiva. She also notes malaise. On oral
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examination you find tliat her liygiene is excellent. Would you suspect a
local or systemic basis for her symptoms? What tests might you order to
make a diagnosis?
Spontaneous bleeding, especially in the face of good oral hygiene, is most
likely of systemic origin. Gingival bleeding is among the most common presenting
signs of acute leukemia, which should be high on the differential diagnosis.
A complete blood count and platelet count should provide data to help to establish
a preliminary diagnosis. Definitive diagnosis most likely requires a bone marrow
biopsy.
44. A 45-year-oh, overweight man presents with suppurative
periodontitis. As you review his history, he tells you that he is always
hungry, drinks water almost every hour, and awakens four times each
night to urinate. What systemic disease is most likely a cofactor in his
periodontal disease? What test(s) might you order to help you with a
diagnosis?
The combination of polyuria, polyphagia, polydipsia, and suppurative
periodontal disease should raise a strong suspicion of diabetes mellitus. A fasting
blood glucose test is the most efficacious screen.
45. A 60-year-old woman presents with the complaint of numbness of
the left side of her mandible. Four years ago she had a mastectomy for
treatment of breast cancer. What is the likely diagnosis? What is the
first step you take to confirm it?
The mandible is not an infrequent site for metastatic breast cancer. As the
metastatic lesion grows, it puts pressure on the inferior alveolar nerve and causes
paresthesia. Radiographic evaluation of the jaw is a reasonable first step to make
a diagnosis.
46. What endocrine disease may present with pigmented lesions of the
oral mucosa?
Pigmented lesions of the oral mucosa may suggest Addison's disease.
47. What drugs cause gingival hyperplasia?
• Phenytoin • Cyclosporine • Nifedipine
48. What is the most typical presentation of the oral lesions of
tuberculosis? How do you make a diagnosis?
The oral lesions of tuberculosis are thought to result from the presence of
organisms brought into contact with the oral mucosa by sputum. A nonhealing
ulcer, which is impossible to differentiate clinically from carcinoma, is the most
common presentation in the mouth. Ulcers are most consistently present on the
lateral borders of the tongue and may have a purulent center. Lymphadenopathy
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also may be present. Diagnosis is made by histologic examination and
demonstration of organisms in the tissue.
49. What are the typical oral manifestations of a patient with
pernicious anemia?
The most common target site in the mouth is the tongue, which presents
with a smooth, dorsal surface denuded of papillae. Angular cheilitis is a frequent
accompanying finding.
50. What is angular cheilitis? What is its cause?
Angular cheilitis or cheilosis is fissuring or cracking at the corners of the
mouth. The condition typically occurs because of a localized mixed infection of
bacteria and fungi. Cheilitis most commonly results from a change in the local
environment caused by excessive saliva due to loss of the vertical dimension
between the maxilla and mandible. In addition, a number of systemic conditions,
such as deficiency anemias and long-term immunosuppression, predispose to the
condition.
51. What is the classic oral manifestation of Crohn's disease?
Mucosal lesions with a cobblestone appearance are associated with Crohn's
disease.
52. List the oral changes that may occur in a patient who is receiving
radiation therapy for treatment of a tumor on the base of the tongue.
• Xerostomia • Osteoradionecrosis
• Cervical and incisal edge caries • Mucositis
53. A patient presents for extraction of a carious tooth. I n taking the
history, you learn that the patient is receiving chemotherapy for
treatment of a breast carcinoma. What information is critical before
proceeding with the extraction?
Because cancer chemotherapy nonspecifically affects the bone marrow, the
patient is likely to be myelosuppressed after treatment. Therefore, you need to
know both the patient's white blood cell count nd platelet count before initiating
treatment.
54. What oral findings have been associated with the diuretic
hydrochlorothiazide?
Lichen planus has been associated with hydrochlorothiazide.
55. Some patients believe that topical application of an aspirin to the
mucosa next to a tooth will help odontogenic pain. How may you detect
this form of therapy by looking in the patient's mouth?
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Because of its acidity, topical application of aspirin to the mucosa frequently
causes a chemical burn, which appears as a white, necrotic lesion in the area
corresponding to aspirin placement.
56. What are the possible causes of burning mouth syndrome?
1.
Dry mouth
8. Allergy
2.
Nutritional deficiencies
9. Chronic infections (especially
3.
Diabetes mellitus
fungal)
4.
Psychogenic factors
10. Blood dyscrasias
5.
Medications
11. Anemia
6.
Acid reflux from the stomach
12. Iatrogenic factors
7.
Hormonal imbalances
13. Inflammatory conditions
such as lichen planus
57. What is the most important goal in the evaluation of a taste
disorder?
The most important goal in evaluating a taste disorder is the elimination of
an underlying neurologic, olfactory, or systemic disorder as a cause for the
condition.
58. What drugs often prescribed by dentists may affect taste or smell?
1. Metronidazole 4. Tetracycline
2. Benzocaine 5. Sodium lauryl sulfate toothpaste
3. Ampicillin 6. Codeine
59. What systemic conditions may affect smell and/ or taste?
1.
Bell's palsy
9.
Cushing's syndrome
2.
Multiple sclerosis
10.
Diabetes mellitus
3.
Head trauma
11.
Sjogren's syndrome
4.
Cancer
12.
Radiation therapy to the head
5.
Chronic renal failure
and neck
6.
Cirrhosis
13.
Viral infections
7.
Niacin deficiency
14.
Hypertension
8.
Adrenal insufficiency
60. What is glossodynia?
Glossodynia, or burning tongue, is relatively common. Although the problem
is frequently related to local irritation, it may be a manifestation of an underlying
systemic condition.
61. What questions should a clinician consider before ordering a
diagnostic test to supple ment clinical examination?
1. What is the likelihood that the disease is present, given the history,
clinical findings, and known risk factors?
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33-
2. How serious is the condition? What are the consequences of a delay in
diagnosis?
3. Is an appropriate diagnostic test available? How sensitive and accurate
is it?
4. Are the costs, risks, and ease of administering the test worth the effort?
Matthews, et al: The use of diagnostic tests to aid clinical diagnosis. J Can Dent
Assoc 61:785, 1995.
62. Distinguish among the accuracy, sensitivity, and specificity of a
particular diagnostic test.
The accuracy is a measure of the overall agreement between the test and
a gold standard. The more accurate the test, the fewer false-negative or false-
positive results. In contrast, the sensitivity of the test measures its ability to
show a positive result when the disease is present. The more sensitive the test,
the fewer false negatives. For example, one problem with cytologic evaluation of
cancerous keratotic oral lesions is that of 100 patients with cancer, 15 will test as
negative (unacceptable false-negative rate). Consequently, cytology for this
diagnosis is not highly sensitive. The specificity of the test measures the ability
to show a negative finding in people who do not have the condition (false
positives).
Matthews, et al: The use of diagnostic tests to aid clinical diagnosis. J Can Dent Assoc 61:785, 1995.
63. What is FNA? When is it used?
No, FNA is not an abbreviation for the Finnish Naval Association. It refers to
a diagnostic technique called fine-needle aspiration, in which a needle (22-gauge)
on a syringe is used to aspirate cells from a suspicious lesion for pathologic
analysis. Many otolaryngologists use the technique to aid in the diagnosis of
cancers of the head and neck. It seems to be particularly valuable in the diagnosis
of submucosal tumors, such as lymphoma, and parapharyngeal masses that are
not accessible to routine surgical biopsy. Like many techniques, the efficacy of
FNA depends on the skill of the operator and experience of the pathologist reading
the slide.
Cramer H, et al: Intraoral and transoral fine needle aspiration. Acta Cytologica 39:683, 1995.
64. Which systemic diseases have been associated with alterations in
salivary gland function?
1,
2,
3.
4,
5.
6.
7,
Cystic fibrosis
HIV infection
Diabetes mellitus
Affective disorder
Metabolic disturbances
(malnutrition, dehydration,
vitamin deficiency)
Renal disease
Cirrhosis
8. Thyroid disease
9. Autoimmune disease
(Sjogren's
syndrome,myasthenla gravis,
graft-vs.-host disease)
10. Sarcoidosis
11. Autonomic dysfunction
12. Alzheimer's disease
13. Cancer
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34-
65. What is PCR? Why may it become an important technique in oral
diagnosis?
Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is a technique developed by researchers in
molecular biology for enzymatic amplification of selected DNA sequences. Because
of its exquisite sensitivity PCR appears to have marked clinical potential in the
diagnosis of viral diseases of the head and neck.
66. What conditions and diseases may cause blistering (vesiculobullous
lesions) in the mouth?
1. Viral disease 4. Pemphigus vulgaris
2. Lichen planus 5. Erythema multiforme
3. Pemphigoid
67. What are the most common sites of intraoral cancer?
The posterior lateral and ventral surfaces of the tongue are the most
common sites of intraoral cancer.
68. What is staging for cancer? What are the criteria for staging
cancers of the mouth?
Staging is a method of defining the clinical status of a lesion and is closely
related to its future clinical behavior. Thus, it is related to prognosis and is of help
in providing a basis for treatment planning. The staging system used for oral
cancers is called the TNM system and is based on three parameters: T = size of
the tumor on a scale from (no evidence of primary tumor) to 3 (tumor> 4 cm in
greatest diameter); N = involvement of regional lymph nodes on a scale from
(no clinically palpable cervical nodes) to 3 (clinically palpable lymph nodes that are
fixed; metastases suspected; and M = presence of distant metastases on a scale
from (no distant metastases) to 1 (clinical or radiographic evidence of
metastases to nodes other than those in the cervical chain).
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BIBLIOGRAPHY
1. Atkinson JC, Fox PC: Sjogren's syndrome: Oral and dental considerations. JAm
Dent Assoc 124:74,1993.
2. Fenlon I^R, l^cCartan BE: Validity of a patient self-completed health
questionnaire in a primary dental care practice. Commun Dent Oral
Epidemiol 20:130-132, 1992.
3. Harahap M: How to biopsy oral lesions. J Dermatol Surg Oncol 15:1077—1080,
1989.
4. Jones JH, Mason DK: Oral Manifestations of Systemic Disease, 2nd ed.
Philadelphia, Bailliere TindalU W.B. Saunders, 1990.
5. Laurin D, Brodeur JM, Leduc N, et al: Nutritional deficiencies and
gastrointestinal disorders in the eden tulous elderly: A literature review. J
Can Dent Assoc 58:738—740, 1992.
6. McCarthy FM: Recognition, assessment and safe management of the medically
compromised patient in dentistry. Anesth Prog 37:217—222, 1990.
7. O'Brien Ci, Seng-Jaw 5, Herrera GA, et al: Malignant salivary tumors: Analysis
of prognostic factors and survival. Head Neck Surg 9:82—92, 1986.
8. Redding SW, Olive JA: Relative value of screening tests of hemostasis prior to
dental treatment. Oral Surg Oral Med Oral Pathol 59:34—36, 1985.
9. Replogle WH, Beebe DK: Halitosis. Am Fam Physician 53:1215—1223, 1996.
10. Rose LF, Steinberg BJ: Patient evaluation. Dent Clin North Am 3 1:53—73,
1987.
11. Shah JP, Lydiatt W: Treatment of cancer of the head and neck. Cancer J Clin
45:352-368, 1995.
12. Sonis ST, Fazio RC, Fang L: Principles and Practice of Oral Medicine, 2nd ed.
Philadelphia, W.B. Saunders, 1995.
13. Sonis ST, Woods PD, White BA: Oral complications of cancer therapies. NCI
Monogr 9:29-32, 1990.
14. Williams AJ, Wray D, Ferguson A: The clinical entity of orofacial Crohn's
disease. Q J Med 79:451—458,1991.
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3. ORAL MEDI CI NE
Joseph W. Costa, Jr., D.M.D., and Dale Potter, D.D.S.
Now keep this straight:
You take the white penicillin tablet every 6 hours and 1 red
pill every 2 hours
and 1/2 a yellow pill before every meal
and 2 speckled orange pills between lunch
and dinner followed by 3 green pills before bedtime, unless
you have taken the oblong white tablet for pain, then...
Any questions? Good luck.
Modified from unknown source
DISORDERS OF HEMOSTASIS
1. How do you screen a patient for potential bleeding problems?
The best screening procedure for a bleeding disorder is a good medical
history. If the review of the medical history indicates a bleeding problem, a more
detailed history is needed. The following questions are basic:
1. Is there a family history of bleeding problems?
2. Has bleeding been noted since early childhood, or is the onset relatively
recent?
3. How many previous episodes have there been?
4. What are the circumstances of the bleeding?
5. When did the bleeding occur? After minor surgery, such as tonsillectomy
or tooth extraction? After falls or participation in contact sports?
6. What medications was the patient taking when the bleeding occurred?
7. What was the duration of the bleeding episode(s)? Did the episode
involve prolonged oozing or a massive hemorrhage?
8. Was the bleeding immediate or delayed?
Kupp MA, Chatton MJ: Current Medical Diagnosis and Treatment. East
Norwalk CT, Appleton &Lange, 1983, p 324.
2. What laboratory tests should be ordered if a bleeding problem is
suspected?
• Platelet count: normal values = 150,000—450,000
• Prothrombin time (PT): normal value = 10—13.5 seconds
• Partial thromboplastin time (PTT): normal value = 25—36 seconds
• Bleeding time: normal value = < 9 minutes (bleeding time is a nonspecific
predictor of platelet function)
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Normal values may vary from one laboratory to another. It is important to
check the normal values for the laboratory that you use. If any of the tests are
abnormal, the patient should be referred to a hematologist for evaluation before
treatment is performed.
3. What are the clinical indications for use of l-deamino-8 vasopressin
(DDAVP) in dental patients?
DDAVP (desmopressin) is a synthetic antidiuretic hormone that controls
bleeding in patients with type I von Willebrand's disease, platelet defects
secondary to uremia related to renal dialysis, and immunogenic thrombocytopenic
purpura (ITP). The dosage is 0.3 mg/kg. DDAVP should not be used in patients
under the age of 2 years; caution is necessary in elderly patients and patients
receiving intravenous fluids.
4. When do you use epsilon aminocaproic acid or tranexamic acid?
Epsilon aminocaproic acid (Amicar) and tranexamic acid are antifibrinolytic
agents that inhibit activation of plasminogen. They are used to prevent clot lysis in
patients with hereditary clotting disorders. For epsilon aminocaproic acid, the dose
is 75—100 mg/kg every 6 hours; for tranexamic acid, it is 25 mg/kg every 8 hours.
5. What is the minimal acceptable platelet count for an oral surgical
procedure?
Normal platelet count is 150,000—450,000. In general, the minimal count
for an oral surgical procedure is 50,000 platelets. However, emergency procedures
may be done with as few as 30,000 platelets if the dentist is working closely with
the patient's hematologist and uses excellent techniques of tissue management.
6. For a patient taking warfarin (Coumadin), a dental surgical
procedure can be done without undue risk of bleeding if the PT is below
what value?
Warfarin affects clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X by impairing the
conversion of vitamin K to its active form. The normal PT for a healthy patient is
10.0—13.5 seconds with a control of 12 seconds. Oral procedures with a risk of
bleeding should not be attempted if the PT is greater than V/2 times the control or
above 18 seconds with a control of 12 seconds.
7. is the bleeding time a good indicator of pen, and postsurgical
bleeding?
The bleeding time is used to test for platelet function. However, studies
have shown no cor relation between blood loss during cardiac or general surgery
and prolonged bleeding time. The best indicator of a bleeding problem in the
dental patient is a thorough medical history. The bleeding time should be used in
patients with no known platelet disorder to help predict the potential for bleeding.
Lind SE: The bleeding time does not predict surgical bleeding. Blood 77:2547—2552, 1991.
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8. Should oral surgical procedures be postponed in patients taking
aspirin?
Nonelective oral surgical procedures in the absence of a positive medical
history for bleeding should not be postponed because of aspirin therapy, but the
surgeon should be aware that bleeding may be exacerbated in a patient with mild
platelet defect. However, elective procedures, if at all possible, should be
postponed in the patient taking aspirin. Aspirin irreversibly acetylates
cyclooxygenase, an enzyme that assists platelet aggregation. The effect is not
dose-dependent and lasts for the 7— 10-day life span of the platelet.
Tierney LM, McPhee SJ, Papadakis MA, Schroeder SA: Current Medical Diagnosis and Treatment.
Norwalk, CT, Appleton & Lange, 1993, p 440.
9. Are patients taking nonsteroidal medications likely to bleed from
oral surgical procedures?
Nonsteroidal antiinflammatory medications produce a transient inhibition of
platelet aggregation that is reversed when the drug is cleared from the body.
Patients with a preexisting platelet defect may have increased bleeding.
10. if a patient presents with spontaneous gingival bleeding, what
diagnostic tests should be ordered?
A patient who presents with spontaneous gingival bleeding without a history
of trauma, tooth brushing, flossing, or eating should be assessed for a systemic
cause. Etiologies for gingival bleeding include inflammation secondary to localized
periodontitis, platelet defect, factor deficiency, hematologic malignancy, and
metabolic disorder. A thorough medical history should be obtained, and the
following laboratory tests should be ordered: (1) PT, (2) PIT, and (3) complete
blood count (CBC).
INDICATIONS FOR PROPHYLACTIC ANTIBIOTICS
11. For what cardiac conditions is prophylaxis for endocarditis
recommended in patients receiving dental care?
High-risk category
• Prosthetic cardiac valves, including both bioprosthetic and homograft
valves
• Previous bacterial endocarditis
• Complex cyanotic congenital heart disease (e.g., single ventricle states,
transposition of the great arteries, tetralogy of Fallot)
• Surgically constructed systemic pulmonary shunts or conduits
Moderate- risk category
• Most congenital cardiac malformations other than above and below (see
next question)
• Acquired valvular dysfunction (e.g., rheumatic heart disease)
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• Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
• IMitral valve prolapse with valvular regurgitation and/or thickened leaflets
Dajani AS, et al: Prevention of bacterial endocarditis: Recommendations by the American Heart
Association. JAMA 277:1794—1801, 1997.
12. What cardiac conditions do not require endocarditis prophylaxis?
Negligible-risic category (no higher than the general population)
• Isolated secundum atrial septal defect
• Surgical repair of atrial septal defect, ventricular septal defect, or patent
ductus arteriosus (without residua beyond 6 months)
• Previous coronary artery bypass graft surgery
• Mitral valve prolapse without valvular regurgitation
• Physiologic, functional, or innocent heart murmurs
• Previous Kawasaki disease without valvular regurgitation
• Previous rheumatic fever without valvular regurgitation
• Cardiac pacemakers (intravascular and epicardial) and implanted
defibrillators
Dajani AS, et a!: Prevention of bacterial endocarditis: Recommendations by the American Heart
Association. JAMA 277:1794—1801, 1990.
13. What are the antibiotics and dosages recommended by the
American Heart Association (AHA) for prevention of endocarditis from
dental procedures?
The AHA updates its recommendations every few years to reflect new
findings. The dentist has an obligation to be aware of the latest recommendations.
The patient's well-being is the dentist's responsibility. Even if a physician
recommends an alternative prophylactic regimen, the dentist is liable if the patient
develops endocarditis and the latest AHA recommendations were not followed.
Standard regimen
Amoxicillin, 2.0 gm orally 1 hr before procedure
For patients allergic to amoxicillin and penicillin
Clindamycin, 600 mg orally 1 hr before procedure or
Cephalexin* or cefadroxil,* 2.0 gm orally 1 hr before procedure or
Azithromycin or clarithromycin, 500 mg orally 1 hr before procedure
Patients unable to take oral medications
Ampicillin, intravenous or intramuscular administration of 2 gm 30 mm
before procedure
For patients allergic to ampicillin, amoxicillin, and penicillin
Clindamycin, intravenous administration of 600 mg 30 mm before procedure
or Cefazolin,* intravenous or intramuscular administration of 1.0 gm within
30 mm before procedure
• Cephalosporins should not be used in patients with immediate-type
hypersensitivity reaction (urticaria, angioedema. or anaphylaxis) to penicillins.
Dajani AS, et al: Prevention of bacterial endocarditis: Recommendations by the American Heart
Association. JAMA 277:1794-1801, 1997.
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14. For what dental procedures is antibiotic premedication
recommended in patients identified as being at risic for endocarditis?
• Dental extractions
•Periodontal procedures including surgery, scaling and root planing,
probing, and recall maintenance
• Dental implant placement and reimplantation of avulsed teeth
• Endodontic (root canal) instrumentation or surgery only beyond the apex
• Subgingival placement of antibiotic fibers or strips
• Initial placement of orthodontic bands but not brackets
• Intraligamentary local anesthetic injections
• Prophylactic cleaning of teeth or implants if bleeding is anticipated
Dajani AS, et a!: Prevention of bacterial endocarditis: Recommendations by the American Heart
Association. JAMA 277:1794-1801, 1997.
15. For what dental procedures is antibiotic premedication not
recommended in patients identified as being at risk for endocarditis?
•Restorative dentistry (including restoration of carious teeth and
prosthodontic replacement of teeth) with or without retraction cord
(clinical judgment may indicate antibiotic use in selected circumstances
that may create significant bleeding)
• Local anesthetic injections (nonintraligamentary)
• Intracanal endodontic treatment (after placement and build-up)
• Placement of rubber dams
• Postoperative suture removal
• Placement of removable prosthodontic or orthodontic appliances
• Making of impressions
• Fluoride treatments
• Intraoral radiographs
• Orthodontic appliance adjustment
• Shedding of primary teeth
Dajani AS, et a!: Prevention of bacteria! endocarditis: Recommendations by the American Heart
Association. JAMA 277:1794-1801, 1997.
16. Should a patient who has had a coronary bypass operation be
placed on prophylactic antibiotics before dental treatment?
No evidence indicates that coronary artery bypass graft surgery introduces a
risk for endocarditis. Therefore, antibiotic prophylaxis is not needed.
Dajani AS, et a!: Prevention of bacterial endocarditis: Recommendations by the American Heart
Association. JAMA 277:1794—1801, 1997.
17. What precautions should you take when treating a patient with a
central line such as a Hickman or Portacath?
Patients with central venous access are usually receiving intensive antibiotic
therapy, chemotherapy, or nutritional support. It is imperative to consult with the
patient's physician before performing any dental procedures. If it is determined
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that the dental procedure is necessary, the patient should receive antibiotic
prophylaxis to protect the central venous access line from infection secondary to
transient bacteremias. The same antibiotic regimen recommended for the
prevention of endocarditis should be prescribed.
18. Should a patient with a prosthetic joint be placed on prophylactic
antibiotics before dental treatment?
Case studies support the hematogenous seeding of prosthetic joints.
However, it is questionable whether organisms from the oral cavity are a source
for late deep infections of prosthetic joints. The decision whether to premedicate
should be determined by the dentist's clinical judgment in consultation with the
patient's physician or orthopedic surgeon. Patients considered at high risk for
developing a late infection of a prosthetic joint should be premedicated. Such
patients can be grouped based on predisposing systemic conditions, issues
associated with joint prostheses, or presence of acute infection at sites distant to
the joint prosthesis.
High-risk Patients with Total J oint Replacements
Predisposing systemic conditions
Rheumatoid arthritis Insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus
Systemic lupus erythematosus Hemophilia
Disease-, drug-, or radiation-induced immunosuppression Malnourishment
I ssues associated with joint prostheses
First 2 years after joint replacement Loose prosthesis
History of replacement of prosthesis History of previous infection of prosthesis
Acute infection located at distant sites: skin, oral cavity, other
From Fitzgerald RH, et al: Advisory statement: Antibiotic propliylaxis for dental patients with total
joint re placements. American Dental Association; American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons. J
Am Dent Assoc 128: 1004—1007, 1997; and Little JW: r^lanaging dental patients with joint
prostheses. JAm Dent Assoc 125:1374—1379, 1994.
19. What are the antibiotics and dosages recommended by the
American Dental Association and the American Academy of Orthopaedic
Surgeons to prevent late joint infections in patients considered to be at
high risk?
Standard regimen
Cephalexin* or cephradine* or amoxicillin, 2 gm orally 1 hr before
procedure
¥ov patients allergic to amoxicillin and penicillin
Clindamycin, 600 mg orally 1 hr before procedure
Patients unable to take oral medications
Cefazolin,* intravenous or intramuscular administration of 1.0 gm 1 hr
before procedure or
Ampicillin, intravenous or intramuscular administration of 2.0 gm 1 hr before
procedure
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For patients allergic to ampicillin, amoxicillin, and penicillin
Clindamycin, intravenous or intramuscular administration of 600 mg 1 hr
before procedure
* Cephalosporins should not be used in patients with immediate-type hypersensitivity
reaction (urticaria, angioedema, or anaphylaxis) to penicillins.
Fitzgerald RH, eta!: Advisory statement: Antibiotic propiiyiaxis for dental patients witii total joint
replace ments. American Dental Association; American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons. JAm Dent Assoc
128:1004—1007, 1997.
20. Is it necessary to prescribe prophylactic antibiotics for a patient on
renal dialysis?
Patients on dialysis with arteriovenous (AV) shunts should be premedicated
before any dental treatment that has the potential of producing a transient
bacteremia. The dosages for antibiotic coverage are as follows:
Standard regimen
Amoxicillin, 2.0 gm orally 1 hr before procedure
For patients allergic to amoxicillin and penicillin
Clindamycin, 600 mg orally 1 hr before procedure or
Cephalexin* or cefadroxil,* 2.0 gm orally 1 hr before procedure
Azithromycin or clarithromycin, 500 mg orally 1 hr before procedure
Patients unable to take oral medications
Ampicillin, intravenous or intramuscular administration 2.0 gm within 30 mm
before procedure
For patients allergic to ampicillin, amoxicillin, and penicillin
Clindamycin, intravenous administration of 600 mg within 30 mm before
procedure or
Cefazolin,* intravenous or intramuscular administration of 1.0 gm within 30
mm before procedure
* Cephalosporins should not be used in patients with immediate-type hypersensitivity
reaction (urticaria, angioedema, or anaphylaxis) to penicillins.
TREATMENT OF HIV-POSITIVE PATIENTS
21. What are the considerations in treating patients infected with the
HI V virus and treated with azidothymidine (AZT)?
AZT is an antiviral widely used in patients infected with the human
immunodeficiency virus (HIV). The drug is toxic to the hematopoietic system and
may result in anemia, granulocytopenia, or thrombocytopenia. Patients taking AZT
should have a CBC every 2 weeks. Before oral surgical procedures, a CBC should
be done to determine whether the patient is neutropenic or thrombocytopenic.
Deglin JH, et al: Davis's Drug Guide for Nurses, 2nd ed. Philadelphia, F.A. Davis, 1991.
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22. What is the mechanism of action of the Hi V-1 protease inhibitors?
What precautions must be talcen in treating patients that receive
protease inhibitors?
The protease inhibitors represent a major advance in the management of
HIV disease. Once HIV- 1 enters a cell, viral RNA undergoes reverse transcription
to produce double-stranded DNA. The viral DNA is integrated into the host
genome. It is then transcribed and translated by cellular enzymes to produce
large, nonfunctional polypeptide chains, known as polyproteins. Polyproteins are
assembled and packaged at the cell surface, and then immature virions are
produced and released into the plasma. HIV- 1 protease then cleaves the
polyproteins into smaller, functional proteins, thereby allowing the virion to
mature. In the presence of HIV- 1 protease inhibitors, the virion cannot mature
and is rapidly cleared from the system. The major protease inhibitors are reviewed
below:
HI V'l Protease Inhibitors and Precautions for the Dental Practitioner
MEDICATION
ADVERSE REACTION
INTERACTIONS
Saquinavir
(Invirase)
Nausea, diarrhea, abdominal
discomfort, and rash
Avoid drugs that alter the cytochrome
P450 activity in the liver because
they affect the bioavailability of
saquinavir. Ketoconazole inhibits
cytochrome P450 and may result in
increased plasma levels of
saquinavir.
Ritonavir
(Norvir)
Nausea, vomiting, diarrhea,
fatigue, abdominal pain,
circumoral paresthesias, taste
disturbances, anorexia,
elevated triglycerides,
creatinine kinase, and
transaminases
Use of sedative/hypnotics is
contraindicated (e.g., diazepam,
midazolam) because of the potential
for oversedation. Ritonavir is a
powerful inhibitor of cytochrome
P450; thus, plasma concentrations
of these drugs remain high. Narcotic
analgesics, erythromycin, antifungal
agents, and corticosteroids must be
prescribed with caution for the same
reason. NSAIDs may be subject to
decreased bioavailability. Ritonavir is
formulated in alcohol. Therefore,
metronidazole in also
contraindicated.
Indinavir
(Crixivan)
Nephrolithiasis, abdominal
discomfort, asymptomatic
hyperbilirubinemia
Generally, indinavir is well-tolerated.
No significant contraindications.
Nelfinavir
(Viracept)
Diarrhea, loose stools
No significant contraindications,
more testing is necessary.
but
From Deeks SG, et al: HIV-I protease inhibitors: A review for clinicians. JAi^A 277:145—153,
1997, with permission.
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23. A patient with IHIV infection requires an oral surgical procedure to
remove teeth after severe bone loss due to HIV- related localized
periodontitis. What precautions should be taken?
It is estimated that 10—15% of patients with HIV develop immunogenic
thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP). The antiplatelet antibodies appear to be found
more frequently in advanced stages of the disease. Affected patients should have
a CBC before any oral surgical procedure. If the platelets are low (below 150,000),
the procedure should be done only after consultation with the patient's physician
and with the knowledge that bleeding may be increased. The patient may require
platelet transfusions to control postoperative bleeding.
Magnac C, et al: Platelet antibodies in serum of patients with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
infection. AIDS Res Hum Retroviruses 6:1443—1449,1990.
24. Are there any contraindications to restorative dentistry procedures
in patients with Hi V infection?
If the patient is not neutropenic or thrombocytopenic, there are no
contraindications to pre ventive and restorative dental care. In fact, patients
should receive aggressive dental care to reduce t oral cavity as a source of
infection. They should be placed on a 3— 6-month recall to maintain optimal oral
health and followed closely for opportunistic infections and HIV-related oral
conditions.
CARDIOVASCULAR DISEASE
25. What is the appropriate response if a patient with a history of
cardiac disease develops chest pain during a dental procedure?
1. Discontinue treatment immediately.
2. Take and record vital signs (blood pressure, pulse, respiration), and
question the patient about the pain. Chest pain from ischemia may be either
substernal or more diffused. Patients often describe the pain as crushing,
pressure, or heavy; it may radiate to the shoulders, arms, neck, or back.
3. If the patient has a history of angina and takes nitroglycerin, give the
patient either his or her own nitroglycerin or a tablet from your emergency cart.
Continue to monitor the patient's vital signs. If the pain does not stop after 3
minutes, give the patient a second dose. If after 3 doses in a 10-minute period the
pain does not subside, contact the medical emergency service and have the
patient transported to an emergency department to rule out a myocardial
infarction.
4. If the patient does not have a history of heart disease and persistent
chest pain for greater than 2 minutes, the medical emergency service should be
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contacted and the patient transported to a hospital emergency department for
evaluation.
5. If the patient is not allergic to aspirin, administer one tablet of aspirin
(325 mg) orally. The aspirin acts as an antithrombotic agent.
26. At what blood pressure should elective dental care be postponed?
Elective dental care should be postponed if the systolic blood pressure is>
160 mmHg or the diastolic pressure is> 100 mmHg.
27. At what blood pressure should emergency dental care be postponed
and the patient treated palliatively until the blood pressure is
controlled?
Emergency dental treatment should be postponed if the systolic pressure
is> 180 or the diastolic pressure is > 110. Patients must be referred for care
immediately to prevent morbidity if they have either (1) asymptomatic severe
hypertension with a systolic pressure > mmHg or diastolic pressure> 130 mmHg
or (2) symptomatic hypertension, headache, heart failure, angina, or elevated
perioperative blood pressure, with a systolic pressure of> 200 mmHg or diastolic
pressure of > 120.
Tierney LM, McPhee SJ, Papadakis MA, Schroeder SA: Current Medical Diagnosis and Treatment. Norwak,
Cr, Appleton & Lange, 1993, p 366.
28. How long should dental care be postponed after a heart attack?
Dental treatment in a patient who has had a myocardial infarction should be
done only after consultation with the patient's physician. Cintron et al. showed
that patients treated within 3 weeks of an uncomplicated myocardial infarction
experienced no significant hemodynamic changes or complications related to local
anesthesia, vigorous dental prophylaxis, or dental extraction. The general
guidelines for a patient without angina or heart failure is to wait 6 months for
elective dental care.
Cintron 0, et al: Cardiovascular effects and safety of dental anesthesia and dental interventions in
patients with recent uncomplicated myocardial infarction. Arch Intern Med 146:2203—2204, 1986.
29. How do you differentiate between stable and unstable angina?
Unstable angina is characterized by a change in the pattern of pain. The
pain occurs with less exertion or at rest, lasts longer, and is less responsive to
medication. Dental care for such patients must be postponed and the patient
referred to his or her physician immediately for care. Patients are at increased risk
for myocardial infarction. If emergency dental care is necessary before the patient
is stable, it should be attempted only with cardiac monitoring and sedation.
Tierney LM, McPhee SJ, Papadakis MA, Schroeder SA: Current Medical Diagnosis and Treatment.
Norwalk, CT, Appleton & Lange, 1993, p 298.
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30. What precautions should be taken in treating a patient with recent
onset of angina?
Patients with recent onset of angina less than 30 days' duration are at
increased risk for myocardial infarction and sudden death. The angina may not be
severe and may occur only with exercise. However, even though symptoms are
mild, dental treatment should be postponed until the patient has had a medical
evaluation.
Kilmartin C, Munroe CO: Cardiovascular diseases and the dental patient. J Can Dent Assoc 6:513—
518, 1986.
31. Is the use of a vasoconstrictor in local anesthetics contraindicated
in patients with cardiac disease?
The use of vasoconstnictors is not contraindicated in patients with
cardiovascular disease. According to conservative recommendations, epinephrine
should not exceed 0.04 mg, which equates to 4 carpules of 1/200,000 or 2
carpules of 1/100,000.
Holnoyd SV, Wynn RL, Requa-Clark B (eds): Clinical Pharmacology in Dental Practice, 4th ed. St.
Louis, Mosby, 1988.
32. Should retraction cord that contains epinephrine be used in a
patient with cardiovascular disease?
The concentration of epinephrine in impregnated cord is high, and systemic
absorption occurs. Impregnated cord should not be used in patients with cardiac
disease, hypertension, or hyperthyroidism. Malamed argues that epinephnine-
containing retraction cord should not be used in dental practice.
Kilmartin C, Munroe CO: Cardiovascular diseases and the dental patient. J Can Dent Assoc 6:513—
518, 1986.
33. When should vasoconstrictors not be used in either local anesthetic
or retraction cord?
Vasoconstrictors should not be used in patients with uncontrolled
hypertension or hyperthyroidism. Epinephrine should not be used in dental
patients under general anesthesia when either halogenated hydrocarbons or
cyclopropane are used for anesthesia.
Hoiroyd SV, Wynn RL, Requa-Clark B (eds): Clinical Pharmacology in Dental Practice, 4th ed. St.
Louis, l^osby, 1988, p 58.
34. I s it safe to treat a patient who has had a heart transplant in an
outpatient dental office?
Dental treatment should be done only after consultation with the patient's
cardiologist. If the patient is stable without rejection, there are no
contraindications to dental treatment. Such patients do not require prophylactic
antibiotics for dental procedures unless the transplanted heart has valvular
pathology or the patient is severely immunosuppressed. The patient most likely
will be taking prednisone and cyclosporine. For restorative and preventive dental
procedures and simple extractions, it is not necessary to increase the
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corticosteroids. Erythromycin and ketoconazole should not be prescribed for a
patient on cyclosponine. Erythromycin and l<etoconazole inhibit the metabolism of
cyclosponine.
METABOLIC DISORDERS
35. What precautions do you need to take in treating a patient with
insulin-dependent dia betes mellitus (I DDIV|)?
The major concern for the dental practitioner treating the patient with IDDM
is hypoglycemia. It is important to question the patient for changes in insulin
dosage, diet, and exercise routine before undertaking any outpatient dental
treatment. A decrease in dietary intake or an increase in either the normal insulin
dosage or exercise may place the patient at risk for hypoglycemia.
Tierney LM, McPhee SJ, Papadakis MA, Schroeder SA: Current Medical Diagnosis and Treatment.
Norwalk, CT, Appleton & Lange, 1993, p 928.
36. What are the symptoms of hypoglycemia?
1. Tachycardia 4. Tremulousness
2. Palpitations 5. Nausea
3. Sweating 6. Hunger
The symptoms may progress to coma and convulsions without intervention.
37. What should the dentist be prepared to do for the patient who has
a hypoglycemic reaction?
The dental practitioner should have some form of sugar readily available-
packets of table sugar, candy, or orange juice. Also available are 3-mg tablets of
glucose (Dextrosol). If a patient develops symptoms of hypoglycemia, the dental
procedure should be discontinued immediately; if conscious, the patient should be
given some form of oral glucose.
If the patient is unconscious, the emergency medical service should be
contacted. Then 1 mg of glucagon can be injected intramuscularly, or 50 ml of
50% glucose solution can be given by rapid intravenous infusion. The glucagon
injection should restore the patient to a conscious state within 15 minutes; then
some form of oral sugar can be given.
Tierney LM, McPhee SJ, Papadakis MA, Schroeder SA: Current Medical Diagnosis and Treatment.
Norwalk, CT, Appleton & Lange, 1993, p 932.
38. Is the diabetic patient at greater risk for infection after an oral
surgical procedure?
It is important to minimize the risk of infection in diabetic patients. They
should have aggressive treatment of dental caries and periodontal disease and
then be placed on frequent recall examinations and oral prophylaxis.
After oral surgical procedures, endodontic procedures, and treatment of
suppurative periodontitis, diabetic patients should be placed on antibiotics to
prevent infection secondary to delayed healing. Antibiotics of choice are potassium
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phenoxymethyl penicillin, 500 mg, or clindamycin, 150 mg, 4 times/day for 7—10
days.
39. When is it necessary to increase the dose of prednisone in patients
talcing corticosteroids?
Patients with heart transplants who are on long-term prednisone therapy
undergo cardiac biopsy without either intravenous sedation or stress doses of
corticosteroids. For restorative dentistry, dental hygiene, mucogingival surgery,
and simple extractions, it is not necessary to increase the patient's corticosteroids.
However, it is important that the patient has taken the usual dose.
For multiple extractions or extensive mucogingival surgery, the dose of
corticosteroids should be doubled on the day of surgery. If the patient is treated in
the operating room under general anesthesia, stress level doses of cortisone, 100
mg intravenously or intramuscularly, should be given preoperatively.
40. Should antibiotics be prescribed for oral surgical procedures in
patients receiving corticosteroids?
As with the diabetic patient, it is important to minimize the risk of infection
in patients taking corticosteroids. Patients on long-term therapy, such as organ
transplant recipients, should receive aggressive treatment to eliminate the oral
cavity as a source of infection and then be placed on frequent recall examinations
and oral prophylaxis.
Patients on corticosteroid therapy should be placed on antibiotic therapy
after oral surgical procedures. Antibiotics should be started on the day of the
procedure and continued for 5—7 days postoperatively. The antibiotic of choice is
potassium phenoxymethyl penicillin, 500 mg 4 times/day. If the patient is allergic
to penicillin and not taking cyclosporine, erythromycin, 250 mg 4 times/day for 5—
7 days, should be prescribed. If the patient is allergic to penicillin and taking
cyclosporine, clindamycin, 300 mg 3 times/day for 5—7 days, is the antibiotic of
choice.
41. What are the clinical symptoms of hypothyroidism? What dental
care can be safely provided?
The clinical sym of hypothyroidism are weakness, fatigue, intolerance to
cold, changes in weight, constipation, headache, menorrhagia, and dryness of the
skin. Dental care should be deferred until after a medical consultation in a patient
with or without a history of thyroid disease who experiences a combination of the
above signs and symptoms. If the patient is myxedematous, he or she should be
treated as a medical emergency and referred immediately for medical care. It is
important not to prescribe opiates for palliative treatment of the myxedematous
patient. The myxedematous patient may be unusually sensitive and die from
normal doses of opiates.
Tierney LM, McPhee SJ, Papadakis MA, Schroeder SA: Current Medical Diagnosis and Treatment.
Norwalk, CT, Appleton & Lange, 1993, pp 863, 865.
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ALLERGIC REACTIONS
42. What would you prescribe for the patient who develops a mild soft-
tissue swelling of the lips under the rubber dam?
The patient probably has a contact allergic reaction from the Latex. If the
reaction is mild (slight swelling with no extension into the oral cavity) and self-
limiting, the patient should be given 50 mg of oral diphenhydramine and observed
for at least 2 hours for possible delayed reaction. If the reaction is moderate to
severe, the patient should be given 50 mg of diphenhydramine, either
intramuscularly or intravenously, and closely monitored. Emergency services
should be contacted to transport the patient to the emergency department for
treatment and observation. With the advent of the epidemic of HIV infection.
Latex gloves and condoms are now widely used. Allergic patients should be
instructed to inform health care providers of their Latex allergy and referred to an
allergist.
43. What should you do if a patient for whom you prescribed the
prophylactic antibiotic amoxicillin approximately 1 hour previously
reports urticaria, erythema, and pruritus (itching)?
If the reaction is delayed (longer than 1 hour) and limited to the skin, the
patient should be given 50 mg of diphenhydramine, intramuscularly or
intravenously, then observed for 1—2 hours before being released. If no further
reaction occurs, the patient should be given a prescription for 25—50 mg of
diphenhydramine to be taken every 6 hours until symptoms are gone.
If the reaction is immediate (less than 1 hour) and limited to the skin, 50
mg of diphenhydramine should be given immediately either intravenously or
intramuscularly. The patient should be monitored and emergency services
contacted to transport the patient to the emergency department. If other
symptoms of allergic reaction occur, such as conjunctivitis, rhinitis, bronchial
constriction, or angioedema, 0.3 cc of aqueous 1/1000 epinephrine should be
given by subcutaneous or intramuscular injection. The patient should be
monitored until emergency services arrive. If the patient becomes hypotensive, an
intravenous line should be started with either Ringer's lactate or 5%
dextrose/water.
Malamed SF, Sheppard GA: Medical Emergencies in the Dental Office, 4th ed. St. Louis. Mosby,
1992.
44. What are the signs and symptoms of anaphylaxis? How should it be
managed in the dental office?
Anaphylaxis is characterized by bronchospasm, hypotension or shock, and
urticaria or angioedema. It is a medical emergency in which death may result from
respiratory obstruction,
circulatory failure, or both. With the first indication of anaphylaxis, 0.2—0.5
cc of 1/1000 aqueous epinephrine should be injected subcutaneously or
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intramuscularly, and emergency services should be contacted. The injection of
epinephrine may be repeated every 20—30 minutes, if necessary, for as many as
3 doses. Oxygen at a rate of 4 LImin must be delivered with a face mask. The
patient must be continuously monitored, and an intravenous line containing either
Ringer's lactate or normal saline should be infused at 100 cc/hour. If the patient
becomes hypotensive, the intravenous infusion should be increased. If airway
obstruction occurs from edema of the larynx or hypopharynx, a cricothyrotomy
must be done. If the airway obstruction is due to bronchospasm, an albuterol or
terbutaline nebulizer should be administered or intravenous aminophylline, 6
mg/kg, infused over 20—30 minutes.
Tierney LM, McPhee SJ, Papadakis MA, Schroeder SA: Current Medical Diagnosis and Treatment.
Norwalk, CT, Appleton & Lange, 1993, p 634.
HEMATOLOGY/ONCOLOGY
45. What are the normal values for a CBC?
White blood cell count
Hemoglobin (Hgb)
18 years and older
4,000-10,000/ml
18 years and older
12—17 years
4,500-13,000/ml
Male
13.5-18.0 gm/ldl
6 months to 11 years
4,500-13,500/ml
Female
11.5-16.4 gm/ldl
Red blood cell count
12—17 years
18 years and older
Male and female
12.0-16.0 gm/dl
Male
4.5-6.4 M/ml
6 months to 11 years
Female
3.9—6.0 M/ml
Male and female
10.5—14.0 gm/dl
12—17 years
Platelet count (PLT)
Male and female
4.1—5.3 M/ml
8 days and older
150,000-
6 months to 11 years
450,000/ml
Male and female
3.7-5.3 M/ml
Up to 7 days
150,000-
Hematocrit (Hct)
350,000/ml
18 years and older
Male
40-54%
Female
36-48%
12—17 years
Male and female
36-39%
6 months to 11 years
Male and female
34-45%
46. What precautions should be taken in providing dental care to a
patient with sickle-cell anemia?
1. Patients with sickle-cell disease should not receive dental treatment
during a crisis, except for the relief of dental pain and treatment of acute dental
infections. Dental infections should be treated aggressively; if facial cellulitis
develops, the patient should be admitted to the hospital for
treatment. .' -
2. The patient's physician should be consulted about the patient's
cardiovascular status. Myocardial damage secondary to infarctions and iron
deposits is common.
3. Patients with sickle-cell anemia are at increased risk for bacterial
infections and should receive prophylactic antibiotics before any dental procedure
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51-
that may cause a transient bacteremia. The prophylactic antibiotic regimen used
for the prevention of endocarditis should be followed. After a surgical procedure,
antibiotics (500 mg penicillin VK 4 times/day or erythromycin, 250 mg 4
times/day, for penicillin-allergic patients) should be continued for 7—10 days
postoperatively.
Sams DR, et al: Managing the dental patient with sickle cell anemia: A review of the literature.
Pediatr Dent 12(5): 317— 320, 1990.
Smith HB, eta!: Dental management of patients with sickle cell disorders. JAm Dent Assoc 114:85,
1987.
47. Can local anesthetic with a vasoconstrictor be used in a patient
with sickle-cell disease?
Because of the possibility of impairing local circulation, the use of
vasoconstrictors in patients with sickle-cell disease is controversial. It is
recommended that the planned dental procedure dictate the choice of local
anesthetic. If the planned procedure is a routine, short procedure that can be
performed without discomfort by using an anesthetic without a vasoconstrictor,
the vasoconstrictor should not be used. However, if the procedure requires long,
profound anesthesia, 2% lidocaine with 1/100,000 epinephrine is the anesthetic of
choice.
Smith HB, et al: Dental management of patients with sickle cell disorders. JAm Dent Assoc 114:85,
1987.
48. Can nitrous oxide be used to help manage anxiety in patients with
sickle-cell anemia?
Nitrous oxide can be safely used in patients with sickle-cell anemia as long
as the concentration of oxygen is greater than 50%, the flow rate is high, and the
patient is able to ventilate adequately.
Smith HB, et al: Dental management of patients with sickle cell disorders. JAm Dent Assoc 114:85,
1987.
49. Can a dental infection cause a crisis in a patient with sickle-cell
anemia?
Preventive dental care— routine scaling and root planing, topical fluorides,
sealants and treatment of dental caries— is important in patients with sickle-cell
anemia. The literature reports two cases of a sickle-cell crisis precipitated by
periodontal infections.
Sams DR, et al: Managing the dental patient with sickle cell anemia: A review of the literature.
Pediatr Dent 12(5): 317— 320, 1990.
50. What are the oral symptoms of acute leukemia?
Over 65% of patients with acute leukemia have oral symptoms. The
symptoms result from myelosuppression due to the overwhelming numbers of
malignant cells in the bone marrow and/or large numbers of circulating immature
cells (blasts).
1. Symptoms from thrombocytopenia: gingival oozing, petechiae,
hematoma, and ecchymosis
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2. Symptoms from neutropenia: recurrent or unrelenting bacterial infections,
lymphadenopathy, oral ulcerations, pharyngitis, and gingival infection
3. Symptoms from circulating immature cells (blasts): gingival hyperplasia
from blast infiltration
Patients with the above signs or symptoms should be evaluated to rule out
a hematologic malignancy. The dentist should consider carefully whether the
symptoms can be explained by local factors or are disproportionate to the local
factors. If a hematologic malignancy is suspected, a CBC with a differential white
cell count should be ordered.
Bonis SI, et al: Principles and Practice of Oral Medicine, 2nd ed. Philadelphia, W.B. Saunders, 1995,
pp262— 275.
51. Is it safe to extract a tooth in a patient wlio is receiving
chemotherapy?
The major organ system affected by cytotoxic chemotherapy is the
hematopoietic system. When a patient receives chemotherapy, the white cell
count and platelets may be expected to decrease in about 7—10 days. If the
patient's absolute neutrophil count (calculated by multiplying the white cell count
by the number of neutrophils in the differential count and dividing by 100) drops
below 500 neutrophils, the patient is considered neutropenic and at risk for
infection. If the platelet count drops below 50,000, the patient is at risk for
bleeding.
Dental procedures should be scheduled, if possible, 2 weeks before planned
chemotherapy or after the counts begin to recover, usually 14 days for white cells
and 21 days for platelets. Dental treatment should be attempted only after
consultation and in coordination with the patient's physician and after the patient
has had a CBC.
52. What precautions should be taken in treating a patient who has
received bone marrow transplantation for a hematologic malignancy?
Dental care should be done only in consultation with the patient's physician.
As a rule, elective dental treatment should be postponed for 6 months after
transplant. However, emergency dental treatment can be done. If dental care
must be done before the recommended postponement, a CBC should be checked
and if the results are acceptable (platelets > 50,000 and neutrophils > 500), the
patient should be premedicated with the same regimen used for the prevention of
endocarditis.
53. What should be done if a patient has enlarged lymph nodes?
Lymphadenopathy may be secondary to a sore throat or upper respiratory
infection or the initial presentation of a malignancy. A thorough history and clinical
examination help to determine the etiology of the lymphadenopathy.
Patients with lymphadenopathy and an identifiable inflammatory process
should be reexamined in 2 weeks to determine whether the lymphadenopathy has
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responded to treatment. If no inflammatory process can be identified or if the
lymphadenopathy does not resolve after treatment, the patient should be referred
to a physician for further evaluation and possible biopsy.
Inflammator]/ Process Granulomatous Disease/Neoplasia
Onset Acute Progressive enlargement
Pain on palpation Tender Neoplasia: asymptomatic
Granulomatous: painful
Symmetry Bilateral for systemic infections Usually unilateral
Unilateral for localized infections
Consistency Firm, movable Firm, nonmovable
From Sonis ST, et a!: Principles and Practice of Oral Medicine, 2nd ed. Philadelphia, W.B. Saunders,
1995, pp 269—271, with permission.
KIDNEY DISEASE
54. What precautions should be taken before beginning treatment of a
patient on dialysis?
Patients typically receive dialysis 3 times/week, usually on a Monday,
Wednesday, Friday schedule or a Tuesday, Thursday, Saturday schedule. Dental
treatment for a patient on dialysis should be done on the day between dialysis
appointments to avoid bleeding difficulties (patients receive the anticoagulant,
heparin, on dialysis days). Patients with an arteriovenous shunt should be
premedicated to prevent infection of the shunt whenever the risk of transient
bacteremia is present.
55. What adjustments in the dosage of oral antibiotics should you
make for a patient on renal dialysis who has a dental infection?
Penicillin 500 mg orally every 6 hr; dose after hemodialysis
Amoxicillin 500 mg orally every 24 hr; dose after hemodialysis
Ampicillin 250 mg to I g orally every 12—24 hr; dose after hemodialysis
Erythromycin 250 mg orally every 6 hr; not necessary to dose after
hemodialysis
Clindamycin 300 mg every 6 hr; not necessary to dose after hemodialysis
Bennett WM, et al: Drug Prescribing in Renal Failure, 2ncl ed. Philadelphia, American College of
Physicians, 1991.
56. What pain medications can be safely prescribed for patients on
dialysis?
• Codeine is safe to use in dialysis but may produce more profound
sedation. The dose should be titrated beginning with one-half the normal dose for
patients on dialysis and one-half to three-fourths the normal dose for patients with
severely decreased renal function.
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• Acetaminophen is nephrotoxic in overdoses. However, it may be
prescribed in patients on dialysis at a dose of 650 mg every 8 hours. For patients
with decreased renal function, the regimen should be 650 mg every 6 hours.
• Aspirin should be avoided in patients with severe renal failure and in
patients on renal dialysis because of the possibility of potentiating hemorrhagic
diathesis.
• Propoxyphene (Darvon) should not be prescribed for a patient on renal
dialysis. The active metabolite norpropoxyphene accumulates in patients with end-
stage renal disease.
• INIeperidine (Demerol) should not be prescribed in patients on renal
dialysis. The active metabolite, normeperidine, accumulates and may cause
seizures.
Bennett WM, el al: Drug Prescribing in Renal Failure, 2nd ed Philadelphia, American College of
Physicians, 1991.
57. What changes do you expect to see in the dental radiographs of a
patient on renal dialysis?
The most common changes are decreased bone density with a ground-glass
appearance, increased bone density in the mandibular molar area compatible with
osteosclerosis, loss of lamina aura, subperiosteal cortical bone resorption in the
maxillary sinus and the mandibular canal, and brown tumor.
Spolnik KJ: Dental radiographic manifestations of end-stage renal disease. Dent Radiogr Photogr
54(2):21— 31, 1981.
58. What precautions should be taken in treating a patient after renal
transplantation?
After renal transplant patients receive immunosuppressive drugs and have
an increased susceptibility to infection. Dental infections should be treated
aggressively. Prophylactic antibiotics should be considered whenever the risk of
bacteremia is present. Erythromycin should not be prescribed for any patient
taking cyclosporine.
59. What antibiotic, used often in dentistry, should be avoided in a
patient taking cycio sporine?
Cyclosporine is used to prevent organ rejection in renal, cardiac, and hepatic
transplantation and to prevent graft-vs.-host disease in patients with bone marrow
transplants. Erythromycin should not be prescribed for patients taking
cyclosporine. Erythromycin increases the levels of cyclosporine by decreasing its
metabolism.
PULMONARY DISEASE
60. What precautions should be taken in treating a patient with chronic
obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)?
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Patients with COPD and a history of hemoptysis should be prescribed drugs
with antiplatelet activity (aspirin and nonsteroidals) with caution. Hemoptysis has
been reported after the use of aspirin in patients with COPD.
Tierney LM, McPhee SJ, Papadakis MA, Schroeder SA: Current Medical Diagnosis and Treatment.
Norwalk, CT, Appleton & Lange, 1993, p 197.
61. What antibiotic should not be prescribed for patients with COPD
who talce theophylline?
Erythromycin should not be prescribed for patients taking theophylline.
Erythromycin decreases the metabolism of theophylline and may cause toxicity.
Degiln JH, at al: Davis's Drug Guide for Nurses, 2nd ed. Philadeipiiia, F.A. Davis, 1991.
62. What intervention is appropriate for a dental patient who has an
asthma attack in the office?
The medical history should provide an indication of the severity of the
asthma and the medications that the patient takes for an asthma attack. The
symptoms of an acute asthma attack are shortness of breath, wheezing, dyspnea,
anxiety, and, with severe attacks, cyanosis. As with all medical emergencies, the
first two steps are (1) to discontinue treatment and (2) to remain calm and not
increase the patient's anxiety. Patients should be allowed to position themselves
for optimal comfort and then placed on oxygen, 2—4 L/min. If patients have their
own nebulizer, they should be allowed to use it. If the patient does not have a
nebulizer, he or she should be given either a metaproterenol or albuterol nebulizer
from the emergency cart or case and take 2 inhalations.
If the symptoms do not subside or increase in severity, emergency services
should be contacted; the patient must be closely monitored and given either 0.3—
0.5 ml of a 1:1000 solution of epinephrine subcutaneously or intravenous
aminophylline, 5.6 mg/kg in 150 ml of either D-5 Vi normal saline or normal saline
infused over 30 minutes. (To calculate kg weight, divide the patient's weight in
pounds by 2.2.) The dose of epinephrine may be repeated every 30 minutes for as
many as 3 doses. Epinephnne should not be used in patients with severe
hypertension, severe tachycardia, or cardiac arrhythmias. Aminophylline should
not be used in patients who have had theophylline in the past 24 hours.
63. Can nitrous oxide be used safely to sedate a patie with COPD?
Sedation with nitrous oxide should be avoided in patients with COPD. The
high flow of oxygen may depress the respiratory drive. Low-flow oxygen via a
nasal cannula may be safely used without risk of respiratory depression.
Little JW, Falace DA: Dental Management of the Medically Compromised Patient, 5th ed. St. Louis,
Mosby, 1996.
LIVER DISEASE
64. What laboratory blood tests should be ordered for a patient with
alcoholic hepatitis?
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Alcoholic hepatitis is the most common cause of cirrhosis, which is one of
the most common causes of death in the United States. There are a number of
concerns in treating the patient with alcoholic hepatitis:
1. Increased risk of pen- and postoperative bleeding, secondary to a
decrease in vitamin K- dependent coagulation factors
2. Qualitative and quantitative effects of alcohol on platelets
3. Anemia secondary to dietary deficiencies and/or hemorrhage
Before attempting a surgical procedure, the minimal laboratory tests are PT,
PTF, CBC, and bleeding time.
65. What precautions should be taken with patients on anticonvulsant
medications?
It is important to obtain a detailed history of the seizure disorder to
determine whether the patient is at risk for seizures during dental treatment.
Important information includes the type and frequency of seizures, the date of the
last seizure, prescribed medications, the last blood test to determine therapeutic
ranges, and activities that tend to provoke seizures. For patients taking valproic
acid or carbamazepine, periodic tests for liver function should be performed. Blood
counts for patients taking carbamazepine and ethosuximide should be done by the
patient's physician. Both liver function and blood counts should be checked before
any oral surgical procedure is planned.
Deglin JH, et al: Davis's Drug Guide for Nurses, 2nd ed. Philadelphia, F.A. Davis, 1991.
Little JW, Falace DA: Dental Management of the Medically Compromised Patient, 5th ed. St. Louis,
Mosby, 1996.
Tierney LM, McPhee SJ, Papadakis MA, Schroeder SA: Current Medical Diagnosis and Treatment.
Norwalk, CT, Appleton & Lange, 1993.
Seizure Medications and Precautions for the Dental Practitioner
MEDICATION
ADVERSE REACTIONS
INTERACTIONS
Valproic acid
(Depakote)
Heparin
Prolonged bleeding time,
leucopenia, thrombocytopenia
Carbamazepine Aplastic anemia, agranulocytosis.
(Tegretol)
Phenytoin
(Dilantin)
Phenobarbital
thrombocytopenia, leukopenia,
leukocytosis
Aplastic anemia, agranulocytosis,
leukopenia, thrombocytopenia
Increased risk of bleeding with
aspirin and NSAIDs or warfarin.
Additive depression of CNS with
other depressants, including
narcotic analgesics and
sedative/hypnotics.
Erythromycin increases levels of
carbamazepine and may cause
toxicity.
Additive depression of CNS with
other depressants, including
narcotics and sedative/hypnotics.
Additive depression of CNS with
other depressants, including
narcotics and sedative/hypnotics.
May increase risk of hepatic
toxicity of acetaminophen.
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Seizure Medications and Precautions for the Dental Practitioner ( Continued )
MEDICATION ADVERSE REACTIONS INTERACTIONS
Primidone Blood dyscrasias, orthostatic Additive depression of CNS with
hypotension other depressants, including
narcotics and sedative/hypnotics.
Ethosuximide Aplastic anemia, granulocytosis. Additive depression of CNS with
leukopenia other depressants.
Clonazepam Anemia, thrombocytosis, Additive depression of CNS with
leukopenia other depressants.
66. What emergency procedures should be taken for a patient having a
seizure?
It is important to determine whether the patient has a history of seizure
disorder. Any patient who has a seizure in the dental office without a history of
seizures must be treated as a medical emergency. The emergency medical service
should be contacted as the dentist proceeds with management. There are two
stages of a seizure: the ictal phase and the postictal phase. The management of
each is described below.
I ctal phase
1. Place the patient in a supine position away from hard or sharp objects to
prevent injury; a carpeted floor is ideal. If the patient is in the dental chair, it is
important to protect the patient by moving equipment as far as possible out of the
way.
2. Airway must be maintained and vital signs monitored during the tonic
stage. If suctioning equipment is available, it should be ready with a plastic tip for
suctioning secretions to maintain the airway. The patient may experience periods
of apnea and develop cyanosis. The head should be extended to establish a patent
airway, and oxygen should be administered. Vital signs, pulse, respiration and
blood pressure must be monitored throughout the seizure.
3. If the ictal phase of the seizure lasts more than 5 minutes, emergency
services should be called. Tonic-clonic status epilepticus is a medical emergency.
If the dentist is trained to do so, an intravenous line should be initiated, and a
dose of 25—50 ml of 50% dextrose should be given immediately in case the cause
of the seizure is hypoglycemia. If there is no response, the patient should be given
10 mg of diazepam intravenously over a 2-minute period. The patient's vital signs
must be monitored, because the diazepam may cause respiratory depression. The
dose of diazepam may be repeated after 10 minutes, if necessary.
Postictal phase
1. Once the seizure activity has stopped and the patient enters the postictal
phase, it is important to continue to monitor the vital signs and, if necessary, to
provide basic life support. If respiratory depression is significant, emergency
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services should be called, the airway maintained, and respiration supported. Blood
pressure may be initially depressed but should recover gradually.
2. If the patient recovers from the postictal phase without basic life support
or other complications, the patient's physician should be contacted, and the
patient, if stable, should be discharged from the dental office, accompanied by a
responsible adult.
Malamed SF, Sheppard GA: Medical Emergencies in tiie Dental Office, 4th ed. St. Louis, Mosby,
1992, pp 23 3-236.
67. What dental considerations must be considered in treating patients
with seizure disorders?
Patients taking phenytoin are at risk for gingival hyperplasia. Tissue
irritation from orthodontic bands, defective restorations, fractured teeth, plaque,
and calculus accelerate the hyperplasia.
The dental practitioner should consider the patient's seizure status. A rubber
dam with dental floss tied to the clamp should be used for all restorative dental
procedures to enable the rapid removal of materials and instruments from the
patient's oral cavity. Fixed prosthetics, when indicated, should be fabricated rather
than removable prosthetics. If removable prosthetics are indicated, they should be
fabricated with metal for all major connectors. Acrylic partial dentures should be
avoided because of the risk of breaking and aspiration during seizure activities.
Unilateral partial dentures are contraindicated. Temporary crowns and bridges
should be laboratory-cured for strength.
68. What are the common causes of unconsciousness in dental
patients?
The most common cause of loss of consciousness in the dental office is
syncope. The signs and symptoms are diaphoresis, pallor, and loss of
consciousness. Place the patient in the supine position with the feet elevated,
monitor vital signs, and give oxygen, 3—4 L/minute, via nasal cannula.
RADIATION THERAPY
69. What are the risk factors for the development of
osteoradionecrosis?
Bone exposed to high radiation therapy is hypovascular, hypocellular, and
hypoxic tissue. Osteoradionecrosis develops because the radiated tissue is unable
to repair itself. The risk for osteoradionecrosis increases as the dose of radiation
increases from 5,000 rads to over 8,000 rads. Tissues receiving less than 5,000
rads are at low risk for necrosis. In addition, the risk increases with poor oral
health. Oral surgical procedures after radiation therapy place the patient at high
risk for developing osteoradionecrosis. Soft-tissue trauma from dentures and oral
infections from periodontal disease and dental caries also put the patient at risk.
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70. How should the dentist prepare the patient for radiation therapy of
the head and necic?
The dentist should consult with the radiotherapist to determine what oral
structures will be in the field as well as the maximal radiation dose. If teeth are in
the field and the dose is greater than 5,000 rads, periodontally involved teeth and
teeth with periapical lucencies should be extracted at least 2 weeks before
radiation therapy begins. The dentist should prepare the patient for postradiation
xerostomia, provide custom fluoride trays, and prescribe 0.4% stannous fluoride
gel to be used for 3—5 minutes twice daily. The patient must he placed on a 2—3-
month recall schedule. On recall, the teeth must be carefully examined for root
caries, and instruction in oral hygiene should be reviewed.
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BIBLIOGRAPHY
1. Bennett WM, et al: Drug Prescribing in Renal Failure. 2nd ed. Pfiiladelphia,
American College of Physicians, 1991.
2. Cintron G, et al: Cardiovascular effects and safety of dental anesthesia and
dental interventions in patients with recent uncomplicated myocardial
infarction. Arch Intem Med 146:2203—2204, 1986.
3. Dajani AS, et al: Prevention of bacterial endocarditis recommendations by the
American Heart Association. JAMA 277:1794—1801, 1997.
4. Decks SG, et al: HIV-I protease inhibitors: A review for clinicians. JAMA
277:145—153, 1997.
5. Deglin JH, et al: Davis's Drug Guide for Nurses, 2nd ed. Philadelphia, F.A. Davis,
1991.
6. Fitzgerald RH, et al: Advisory statement: Antibiotic prophylaxis for dental
patients with total joint re placements. American Dental Association;
American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons. J Am Dent Assoc 128:1004—
1007, 1997.
7. Holroyd SV, Wynn RL, Requa-Clark B (eds): Clinical Pharmacology in Dental
Practice, 4th ed. St. Louis, Mushy, 1988.
8. Kilmartin C, Munroe CO: Cardiovascular diseases and the dental patient. J Can
Dent Assoc 6:513—518,1986.
9. Kupp MA, Chatton Mi: Current Medical Diagnosis and Treatment. Norwalk, CT,
Appleton & Lange,1983.
10. Lind SE: The bleeding time does not predict surgical bleeding. Blood
77:2547—2552, 1991.
11. Little JW: Managing dental patients with joint prostheses. JAm Dent Assoc
125:1374—1379, 1994.
12. Little JW, Falace DA: Dental Managementof the Medically Compromised
Patient, 5th ed. St. Louis, Mosby, 1996.
13. Magnac C, et al: Platelet antibodies in serum of patients with human
immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection. AIDS Res Hum Retroviruses
6:1443—1449, 1990.
14. Malamed SF, Sheppard GA: Medical Emergencies in the Dental Office, 4th ed.
St. Louis, Mosby, 1992.
15. Sams DR, et al: Managing the dental patient with sickle cell anemia: A review
of the literature. Pediatr Dent 12:317—320, 1990.
16. Smith HB, et al: Dental management of patients with sickle cell disorders. JAm
Dent Assoc 114:85,1987.
17. Sonis ST, et al: Principles and Practice of Oral Medicine, 2nd ed. Philadelphia,
W.B. Saunders, 1995.
18. Spolnik KJ: Dental radiographic manifestations of end-stage renal disease.
Dent Radiogr Photogr 54(2):2I— 31, 1981.
19. Tierney LM, McPhee Si, Papadakis MA, Schroeder SA: Current Medical
Diagnosis and Treatment. Norwalk, CT, Appleton & Lange, 1993.
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4. ORAL PATHOLOGY
Sook-Bin Woo, D.M.D., M.M.Sc.
DEVELOPMENTAL CONDITIONS
Tooth-related Problems
1. Describe the different types of dentinogenesis imperfecta.
Dentinogenesis imperfecta (Dl) causes the teeth to be opalescent and
affects both the primary and permanent dentition.
Type I Dl with osteogenesis imperfecta
Type II Dl without osteogenesis imperfecta
Type III Brandywine type, which also occurs in the absence of
osteogenesis imperfecta but is clustered within a racial isolate
in Maryland. In addition to classic findings of Dl, radiographs
may exhibit multiple periapical radiolucencies, and large pulp
chambers may lead to multiple pulp exposures.
2. What is the difference between fusion and concrescence? Twinning
and gemination?
Fusion is a more complete process than concrescence and may involve
either (1) fusion of the entire length of two teeth (enamel, dentin, and cementum)
to form one large tooth, with one less tooth in the arch, or (2) fusion of the root
only (dentin and cementum) with the maintenance of two clinical crowns.
Concrescence involves fusion of cementum only.
Twinning is more complete than gemination and results in the formation of
two separate teeth from one tooth bud (one extra tooth in the arch). In
gemination, separation is attempted, but the two teeth share the same root canal.
3. What is a Turner's tooth?
A Turner's tooth is a solitary, usually permanent tooth with signs of enamel
hypoplasia or hypocalcification. This phenomenon is caused by trauma or infection
in the overlying deciduous tooth that damages the ameloblasts of the underlying
tooth bud and thus leads to localized enamel hypoplasia or hypocalcification.
4. What are "bull teeth'7
Bull teeth, also known as taurodonts, have long anatomic crowns, large pulp
chambers, and short roots, resembling teeth found in bulls. They are most
dramatic in permanent molars but may affect teeth in either dentition. They occur
more frequently in certain syndromes, such as Klinefelter syndrome.
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5. What is the difference between dens evaginatus and dens
invaginatus?
Dens evaginatus occurs primarily in persons of mongoloid descent and
affects the premolars. Evagination of the layers of the tooth germ results in the
formation of a tubercle that arises from the occlusal surface and consists of
enamel, dentin, and pulp tissue. This tubercle tends to break when it occludes
with the opposing dentition and may result in pulp exposure and subsequent pulp
necrosis. Dens invaginatus occurs mainly in maxillary lateral incisors and ranges in
severity from an accentuated lingual pit to a "dens in dente." This phenomenon is
caused by invagination of the layers of the tooth germ. Food becomes trapped
in the pit, and caries begin early.
6. What are the causes of generalized intrinsic discoloration of teeth?
Amelogenesis imperfecta Fluorosis Porphyria
Dentinogenesis imperfecta Rh incompatibility Biliary atresia
Tetracycline staining
7. Why do teeth discolor from ingestion of tetracycline during
odontogenesis?
Tetracycline binds with the calcium component of bones and teeth and is
deposited at sites of active mineralization, causing a yellow-brown endogenous
pigmentation of the hard tissues. Because teeth do not turn over like some bone
tissues, this stain becomes a permanent "label" that fluoresces under ultraviolet
light.
8. Which teeth are most commonly missing congenitally?
Third molars, maxillary lateral incisors, and second premolars.
9. What conditions are associated with multiplesupernumerary teeth?
Gardner's syndrome and cleidocranial dysplasia.
10. What are the most common sites for supernumerary teeth?
Midline of the maxilla (mesiodens), posterior maxilla (fourth molar or
paramolar), and mandibular bicuspid areas.
Intrabony Lesions
11. A 40-year-old African-American woman presents with multiple
radiolucencies and radiopacities. What is the diagnosis?
The African-American population is prone to developing benign fibroosseous
lesions of various kinds. They range from localized lesions, such as periapical
cemental dysplasia involving one tooth (usually mandibular anterior), to florid
cementoosseous dysplasia, involving all four quadrants. The second condition also
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has been referred to as familial gigantiform cementoma, multiple enostoses, and
sclerotic cemental masses.
Florid cementoosseous dysplasia affecting at least three quadrants.
12. Are fibrous dysplasias of bone premalignant lesions?
Fibrous dysplasia, a developmental malformation of bone, is of unknown
etiology and is not premalignant. The monostotic form often affects the maxilla
unilaterally. The polyostotic form is associated with various other abnormalities,
such as skin pigmentations and endocrine dysfunction (Albright and Jaffe-
Lichtenstein syndromes). Cherubism, which used to be termed familial fibrous
dysplasia, is probably not a form of fibrous dysplasia. In the past, fibrous dysplasia
was treated with radiation, which sometimes caused the development of
osteosarcoma.
13. The globulomaxillary cyst is a fissural cyst. True or false?
False. Historically, the globulomaxillary cyst was classified as a
nonodontogenic or fissural cyst thought to result from enclavement of epithelial
rests along the line of fusion between the lateral maxillary and nasomedial
processes. Current thinking puts it in the category of odontogenic cysts, probably
of developmental origin and possibly related to the development of the lateral
incisor or canine. The two embryonic processes mentioned above do not fuse. The
fold between them fills in and becomes erased by mesodermal invasion so that
there is no opportunity for trapping of epithelial rests. This cyst occurs between
the roots of the maxillary lateral incisor and cuspid, both of which are vital.
14. The median palatal cyst is a true fissural cyst. True or false?
True. The epithelium of this intrabony cyst arises from proliferation of
entrapped epithelium when the right and left palatal shelves fuse in the midline.
The soft tissue counterpart, which also occurs in the midline of the palate and is
known as the palatal cyst of the newborn (Epstein's pearl), is congenital and
exteriorizes on its own. The histology is similar to that of dental lamina cysts of
the newborn (see below).
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Classic parakeratinized odontogenic l<eratocyst.
15. A neonate presents with a few white nodules on the mandibular
alveolar ridge. What are they?
They are most likely dental lamina cysts of the newborn (Bohn's nodules).
The epithelium of these cysts arises from remnants of dental lamina on the
alveolar ridge after odontogenesis. Dental lamina cysts of the newborn tend to
involute and do not require treatment.
16. A boy presents to the dental clinic with multiple jaw cysts and a
history of jaw cysts in other family members. What syndrome does he
most likely have?
The boy most likely has the bifid rib-basal cell nevus syndrome, which is
inherited as an autosomal dominant trait. The cysts are odontogenic keratocysts,
which have a higher incidence of recurrence than other odontogenic cysts. Other
findings include palmar pitting, palmar and plantar keratosis, calcification of the
falx cerebri, hypertelorism, ovarian tumors, and neurologic manifestations such as
mental retardation and medulloblastomas.
17. Are all jaw cysts that produce keratin considered odontogenic
keratocysts?
Yes and no. The odontogenic keratocyst is a specific histologic entity. The
epithelial lining exhibits corrugated parakeratosis, uniform thinness (unless altered
by inflammation), and palisading of the basal cell nuclei. The recurrence rate is
high, and the condition is associated with the basal cell-bifid rib nevus syndrome.
Odontogenic cysts that produce orthokeratin do not show the basal cell nuclei
changes, do not have the same tendency to recur, and are not associated with the
syndrome. However, some pathologists use the term "orthokeratin ized variant"
after odontogenic keratocyst to denote the difference, whereas others use the
term "orthokeratinizing odontogenic cyst." The clinical differences are important.
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18. What neoplasms may arise in a dentigerous cyst?
Ameloblastoma, mucoepidermoid carcinoma, and squamous cell carcinoma
may arise in a dentigerous cyst. Odontogenic tumors that may arise in a
dentigerous relationship, although not within a dentigerous cyst, include
adenomatoid odontogenic tumor and calcifying epithelial odontogenic tumor
(Pindborg tumor).
19. Wliat is tlie difference between a lateral radicular cyst and a lateral
periodontal cyst?
A lateral radicular cyst is an inflammatory cyst in which the epithelium is
derived from rests of Malassez (like a periapical or apical radicular cyst). It is-in a
lateral rather than an apical location because the inflammatory stimulus is
emanating from a lateral canal. The associated tooth is always nonvital. The
lateral periondontal cyst is a developmental cyst in which the epithelium
probably is derived from rests of dental lamina. It is usually located between the
mandibular premolars, which are vital.
20. What is the incidence of cleft lip and/ or cleft palate?
Cleft lip and cleft palate should be considered as two entities: (1) cleft
palate alone and (2) cleft lip with or without cleft palate. The former is more
common in females and the latter in males. The incidence of cleft palate alone is 1
in 2,000—3,000 births, whereas the incidence of cleft lip with or without cleft
palate is 1 in 700—1,000 births. Of all cases, 25% are cleft palate alone and 75%
are cleft lip with or without cleft palate.
Soft Tissue Conditions
21. Name the organism that colonizes lesions of median rhomboid
glossitis.
Candida sp. colonizes the lesions but probably is not the cause because in
many instances, even with elimination of candidal organisms, the area of papillary
atrophy persists. Some investigators have reverted to the original hypothesis that
median rhomboid glossitis is a developmental malformation, possibly caused by
failure of the tuberculum impar to retract completely.
22. Is benign migratory glossitis ("geographic tongue") associated
with any systemic conditions?
Most cases of benign migratory glossitis occur in the absence of a systemic
condition, although some cases have been associated with fissured tongue.
However, patients with psoriasis, especially generalized pustular psoriasis, have a
higher incidence of benign migratory glossitis.
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Benign migratory glossitis.
23. What predisposes to the formation of a hairy tongue?
Hyposalivation, broad-spectrum antibiotics, systemic steroids, and
oxygenating mouth rinses predispose to the formation of a hairy tongue. The
"hairs" are filiform papillae with multiple layers of keratin that fail to shed
adequately. The papillae are putatively colonized by chromogenic bacteria, so that
the tongue may appear black, brown, or even green.
INFECTIONS
Fungal Infection
24. IHow many clinical forms of candidiasis are there?
Acute forms: pseudomembranous candidiasis (the typical type with curdy
white patches) and atrophic candidiasis (angular cheilitis, often seen in HIV
infection).
Chronic forms: hyperplastic candidiasis (leukoplakia-like patches that do
not wipe off easily), atrophic candidiasis (denture sore mouth), mucocutaneous
candidiasis (associated with skin candidiasis and an underlying systemic condition
such as an endocrinopathy).
Acute pseudomembranous candidiasis.
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25. What factors predispose to candidal infection?
Predisposing factors include (1) poor immune function, which may be due to
age (very young and very old), malignancies, immunomodulating drugs, endocrine
dysfunction, or HIV infection; (2) malnutrition; (3) antibiotics that upset the
normal balance of flora; and (4) dental prostheses, especially dentures; and (5)
alteration in saliva flow and constituents.
26. A culture performed on an oral ulcer grows Candida sp. Does this
mean that the patient has candidiasis?
No. Approximately one-half of the adult population harbors Candida sp. in
the mouth. These persons grow the organisms on culture in the complete absence
of a candidal infection.
27. How do you make a diagnosis of candidiasis?
1. Good clinical judgment. Pseudomembranous plaques of candidiasis
wipe off, leaving a raw, bleeding surface.
2. Potassium hydroxide (KOH) preparation. The plaque is scraped, and
the scrapings are put onto a glass microscopic slide. A few drops of KOH are
added, the slide is.warrned over an alcohol flame for a few seconds, and a
coverslip is placed over the slide. The hyphae, if present, can be seen with a
microscope.
3. Biopsy to show hyphae penetrating the tissues (too invasive for routine
use).
4. Cultures. Although cultures are not the ideal way to diagnose
candidiasis, the quantity of candidal organisms that grow on culture correlates
somewhat with clinical candidiasis.
28. What are common antifungal agents for treating oral candidiasis?
• Polyenes: nystatin (topical), amphotericin (topical, systemic)
• Imidazoles: chlortrimazole, ketoconazole
• Triazoles: fluconazole
29. Actinomycosis represents a fungal infection. True or false?
False. Actinomycetes is a gram-positive bacteria. Do not be fooled by the
suffix mycosis.
30. What are sulphur granules?
These yellowish granules (hence the name) are seen within the pus of
lesions of actinomycosis. They represent aggregates of Actinomyces israelii, which
are invariably surrounded by neutrophils.
31. Name two opportunistic fungal diseases that often present in the
orofacial region.
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Aspergillosis and zygomycosis tend to infect immunocompromised hosts; the
latter causes rhinocerebral infections in patients with diabetes mellitus.
32. Name two deep fungal infections that are en in North America.
Histoplasmosis (caused by Histoplasma capsulatum) is endemic in the
Ohio— Mississippi basin, and coccidioidomycosis (caused by Coccidioides immiti§) is
endemic in the San Joaquin Valley in California.
Viral Infection
33. Name the four most common viruses of the Herpesviridae family
that are pathogenic in humans.
Herpes simplex virus (HSV 1 and 2) Varicella zoster virus (VZV)
Cytomegalovirus (CMV) Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)
34. Antibodies against HSV protect against further outbreaks of the
disease. True or false?
False. The herpes viruses are unique in that they exhibit latency. Once one
has been infected by HSV 1, the virus remains latent within the trigeminal
ganglion for life. When conditions are favorable (for the virus, not the patient),
HSV travels along nerve fibers and causes a mucocutaneous lesion at a peripheral
site, such as a cold sore on the lip. A positive antibody titer (IgG) indicates that
the patient has been previously exposed, and at the time of reactivation the titer
may rise.
35. How do you differentiate between recurrent aphthous ulcers and
recurrent herpetic ulcers?
Clinically, recurrent aphthous ulcers (minor) occur only on the
nonkeratinized mucosae of the labial mucosa, buccal mucosa, sulci, ventral
tongue, soft palate, and faucial pillars. Recurrent herpetic ulcers occur on the
vermilion border of the lips (cold sores or fever blisters) and on the keratinized
mucosae of the palate and attached gingiva. A culture confirms the presence of
virus. In immunocompromised hosts, however, recurrent herpetic lesions may
occur on both the keratinized and nonkeratinized mucosae.
Recurrent herpes labialis (cold sores or fever blisters).
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36. An elderly patient with long-standing rheumatoid arthritis presents
with a history of upper respiratory tract infection, ulcers of the right
hard palate, right facial weakness, and vertigo. What does he have?
Herpes zoster infection, which typically is unilateral. The patient also has
Ramsay-Hunt syndrome, which is caused by infection of cranial nerves VII and
VIII with herpes zoster, leading to facial paralysis, tinnitus, deafness, and vertigo.
37. What lesions associated with the Epstein.Barr virus may present in
the orofacial region?
Infectious mononucleosis Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
Burkitt's lymphoma (African type) Hairy leukoplakia
38. How does infectious mononucleosis present in the mouth?
Infectious mononucleosis usually presents as multiple, painful, punctate
ulcers of the posterior hard palate and soft palate in young adults or adolescents.
It is often associated with regional lymphadenopathy and constitutional signs of a
viral illness.
39. What oral lesions have been associated with infection by human
papillomavirus (HPV)?
• Focal epithelial hyperplasia • Squamous papilloma
(Heck's disease) -Some squamous cell and
• Oral condylomas verrucous carcinomas
• Verruca vulgaris
The benign conditions are usually associated with HPV 6 and 11; the
malignant ones with HPV 16 and 18.
40. What oral conditions does coxsackievirus cause?
Herpangina and hand-foot-mouth disease are caused by the type A
coxsackievirus and generally affect children, who then develop oral ulcers
associated with an upper respiratory tract viral prodrome.
41. What are Koplik spots?
Koplik spots are early manifestations of measles or rubeola (hence they also
are called herald spots). They are 1— 2-mm, yellow-white, necrotic ulcers with
surrounding erythema that occur on the buccal mucosa, usually a few days before
the body rash of measles is seen. Koplik spots are not seen in German measles.
Other Infections
42. What are the organisms responsible for noma?
Noma, which is a gangrenous stomatitis resulting in severe destruction of
the orofacial tissues, is usually encountered in areas where malnutrition is
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rampant. The bacteria are similar to those associated with acute necrotizing
ulcerative gingivitis, namely, spirochetes and fusiform bacteria.
43. What are the oral findings in syphilis?
Primary: oral chancre
Secondary: mucous patches, condyloma lata
Tertiary: gumma, glossitis
Congenital: enamel hypoplasia, mulberry molars, notched incisors
44. What is a granuloma?
Strictly speaking, a granuloma is a collection of epithelioid histiocytes that
often is associated with multinucleated giant cells like the Langhans-type giant
cells seen in granulomas of tuberculosis. Many infectious agents, including fungi
(such as histoplasmosis) and those causing tertiary syphilis and cat-scratch
disease, can produce granulomatous reactions. Foreign body reactions are often
granulomatous. Some granulomatous diseases, such as cheilitis granulomatosa,
Crohn's disease, and sarcoidosis, have no known etiology.
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Tuberculous granuloma with Langhans giant cell.
45. What are Langhans cells?
Langhans cells are multinucleated giant cells seen in granulomas, usually
those caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis. Their nuclei have a characteristic
horseshoe distribution. Do not confuse them with Langerhans cells, which are
antigen-processing cells.
REACTIVE, HYPERSENSITIVITY, AND AUTOIMMUNE CONDITIONS
Intra bony and Dental Tissues
46. The periapical granuloma is composed of a collection of histiocytes,
that is, a true granuloma. True or false?
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False. The periapical granuloma is a tumorlike (-oma) proliferation of
granulation tissue found around the apex of a nonvital tooth. It is associated with
chronic inflammation from pulp devitalization. The inflammation can stimulate
proliferation of the epithelial rests of Malassez to form a cyst, either apical
radicular or periapical.
Apical radicular cyst
47. What is condensing osteitis?
Condensing osteitis, a relatively common condition, manifests as an area of
radiopacity in the bone, usually adjacent to a tooth that has a large restoration or
a root canal, although occasionally it may lie adjacent to what appears to be a
sound tooth. It is asymptomatic. Histologically, condensing osteitis consists of
dense bone with little or no inflammation. It probably arises as a bony reaction to
a low-grade inflammatory stimulus from the adjacent tooth. It also has been
referred to as idiopathic osteosclerosis, bone scar, and focal sclerosing
osteomyelitis. Idiopathic osteosclerosis/bone scar are similar lesions unassociated
with teeth.
48. Wliat are tlie etiologic differences among the wearing down of
teeth caused by attrition, abrasion, and erosion?
Attrition: tooth-to-tooth contact
Abrasion: a foreign object-to-tooth contact, e.g., toothbrush bristles, bobby
pins, nails
Erosion: a chemical agent-to-tooth contact, e.g., lemon juice, gastric juices
Soft Tissue Conditions
49. Aphthous ulcers may be associated with certain systemic
conditions. Name them.
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• Iron, folate or vitamin B 12 deficiency
• Inflammatory bowel disease
• Behcet's disease
• Reiter's disease
• HIV infection
Conditions predisposing
to neutropenia
50. An aphthous ulcer is the same as a traumatic ulcer. True or false?
False but with reservations. A traumatic ulcer is the most common form of
oral ulcer and, as its name suggests, occurs at the site of trauma such as the
buccal mucosa, lateral tongue, lower labial mucosa, or sulci. It follows a history of
trauma such as mastication or toothbrush injury. An aphthous ulcer may occur at
the same sites, but often with no history of trauma. However, patients prone to
developing aphthae tend to do so after episodes of minor trauma.
Recurrent aphthous ulcer (minor) of lower labial mucosa.
51. A child returns one day after a visit to the dentist at which several
amalgam restorations were placed. He now has ulcers of the lateral
tongue and buccal mucosa on the same side as the amalgams. What is
your diagnosis?
Factitial injury. Children may inadvertently chew their tongues and buccal
mucosae while tissues are numb from local anesthesia, because the tissues feel
strange to the child. Children and parents should be advised to be on the look-out
for such behavior.
52. 1 s the mucocele a true cyst?
It depends. The term mucocele refers loosely to a cystlike lesion that
contains mucus and usually occurs on the lower lip or floor of the mouth.
However, it may occur wherever mucus glands are present. In most cases, it is
not a true cyst because it is not lined by epithelium. It is caused by escape of
mucus into the connective tissue when an excretory salivary duct is traumatized.
Therefore, the mucocele is lined by fibrous and granulation tissue. In a small
number of cases, it is caused by distention of the excretory duct due to a distal
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obstruction. In such a case, the mucocele is a true cyst, because the lining is the
epithelium of the duct.
53. What is the etiology of necrotizing sialometaplasia?
This painless ulcer usually develops on the hard palate but may occur
wherever salivary glands are present. It represents vascular compromise and
subsequent infarction of the salivary gland tissue, with reactive squamous
metaplasia of the salivary duct epithelium that may mimic squamous cell
carcinoma. The lesion resolves on its own.
54. Name the major denture- related findings in the oral cavity.
• Chronic atrophic candidiasis, especially of the palate (denture sore mouth)
• Papillary hyperplasia of the palatal mucosa
• Fibrous hyperplasia of the sulcus where the denture flange impinges
(epulis fissuratum)
• Traumatic ulcers from overextension of flanges
• Angular cheilitis from overclosure
• Denture-base hypersensitivity reactions
55. A patient is suspected of having an allergy to denture materials.
What do you recommend?
The patient should be patch-tested by an allergist or dermatologist to a panel of
denture-base materials, which include both metals and products of acrylic
polymerization. Usually, the lesions resolve with topical steroids.
56. What is a gum boil (parulis)?
A gum boil is an erythematous nodule usually located on the attached
gingiva. It may have a yellowish center that drains pus and may be asymptomatic.
The nodule consists of granulation tissue and a sinus tract that usually can be
traced to the root of the tooth beneath with a thin gutta percha point. It indicates
an infection of either pulpal or periodontal origin.
Two parulides. The one on the left is about to drain.
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57. What is plasma cell gingivitis?
Plasma cell gingivitis, reported in the 1970s, presented as an intensely
erythematous gingivitis and was likely due to an allergic reaction to a component
of chewing gum or other allergen.
58. Some patients have a reaction to tartar- control toothpaste. What is
the offending ingredient?
The offending ingredient is cinnamaldehyde. Susceptible patients develop
burning of the mucosa and sometimes bright red gingivitis, akin to plasma cell
gingivitis, after using the product. They often also have a reaction to chewing gum
that contains cinnamon.
59. What is the differential diagnosis for desquamative gingivitis?
What special handling procedures are necessary if you obtain a biopsy?
Desquamative gingivitis, which usually affects middle-aged women, is
characterized by red, eroded, and denuded areas of the gingiva. Definitive
diagnosis requires immunoreactive studies of the gingiva with various
commerically available antibodies directed against autoantibodies, usually with
direct immunofluorescence techniques. To preserve the integrity of immune
reactants, the biopsy specimen should be split: one-half should be submitted in
formalin for routine histopathology and the other half in Michel's solution or fresh
on ice.
The immunofluorescence patterns show that 50% of lesions are cicatricial
pemphigoid, 25% are lichenoid reactions or lichen planus, 20% have nonspecific
immunoreactivity, and 5% are bullous pemphigoid and pemphigus vulgaris.
Occasionally, other conditions, such as lupus erythematosus, linear IgA disease,
and epidermolysis bullosa acquisita, may present as desquama tive gingivitis.
Desquamative gingivitis.
60. What is the Grinspan syndrome?
As reported by Grinspan, this syndrome consists of hypertension, diabetes
mellitus, and lichen planus. Current thinking suggests that the lichen planus is
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caused by medications that the patients take for hypertension (especially
hydrochlorothiazides) and diabetes mellitus.
61. What drugs can give a lichen planus-lilce (lichenoid) mucosal
reaction?
• Drugs for treating hypertension, such as hydrochlorothiazide, captopril,
and methyldopa
• Hypoglycemic agents, such as chlorpropamide and tolazamide
• Antiarthritic agents, such as penicillamine
• Antigout agents, such as allopurinol
• Nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs.
Desquamative gingivitis.
62. Name the drugs that can be used to treat symptomatic lichen
planus.
Most of the drugs involved are immunomodulating agents. The most
commonly used are corticosteroids applied topically, injected intralesionally, or
taken systemically. Dapsone, azathioprine, and cyclosporine A have been used
with some success. More recently, retinoids also have been prescribed with limited
success.
63. What is galvanism?
Galvanism is the processs by which different metals in contact with each
other (as in amalgam) set up "cells" and "currents." In susceptible people, it may
lead to electrogalvanically induced keratoses and lichenoid lesions of the mucosa
in contact with amalgam restorations.
64. What are the typical skin lesions of erythema mulitforme called?
Target, iris, or "bull's eye" lesions. Erythema multiforme is an acute
mucocutafleous inflammatory process that may recur periodically in chronic form.
It may be idiopathic but also may occur after ingestion of drugs or after a herpes
simplex virus infection.
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65. Name the most common factors responsible for recurrent erythema
multiforme.
Herpes simplex virus reactivation and hypersensitivity to certain foods, such
as benzoates. Do not expect to be able to culture herpes simplex virus from the
lesions of recurrent erythema multiforme, which is a hypersensitivity reaction to
some component of the virus. Usually the viral infection precedes the lesions of
erythema multiforme.
66. What is Stevens-J ohnson syndrome?
Stevens-Johnson syndrome is a severe form of erythema multiforme with
extensive involvement of the mucous membranes of the oral cavity, eyes,
genitalia, and occasionally the upper gastrointestinal and respiratory tracts.
Desquamation and ulceration of the lips, with crusting, is usually dramatic. Typical
target lesions may be seen on the skin.
67. What is the difference between pemphigus and pemphigoid?
Both are autoimmune, vesiculobullous diseases. In pemphigus (usually
vulganis), autoantibodies attack desmosomal plaques of the epithelial cells,
leading to acantholysis and formatiofi of an intraepithelial bulla. In pemphigoid
(usually cicatricial), autoantibodies attack the junction between the epithelium and
connective tissue, leading to the formation of a subepithelial bulla.
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68. What two forms of pemphigoid involve the oral cavity?
Cicatricial pemphigoid (formerly known as mucous membrane pemphigoid)
and bullous pemphigoid. These autoimmune vesiculobullous diseases have
antigens located in the lamina lucida of the basement membrane. Cicatricial
pemphigoid presents primarily with oral mucosal and ocular lesions and
occasionally with skin lesions, whereas bullous pemphigoid presents primanly with
skin lesions and occasionally with mucosal lesions.
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69. Differentiate between a Tzancic test and a Tzancic cell.
The Tzanck test entails direct examination of cells that may indicate a
herpes simplex virus infection. The test is done by scraping the lesion (which may
be a vesicle, ulcer, or crust) and smearing the debris on a slide. The slide is then
stained and examined under a microscope for virally infected cells, which show
multinucleatjon and "ground-glass" nuclei. Tzanck cells are acantholytic cells
seen within the bulla of lesions of pemphigus vulgaris. Tzanck (acantholytic) cells
of pemphigus vulganis.
Tzanck (acantholytic) cells of pemphigus vulganis.
70. What is the difference between systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
and discoid lupus erythematosus (DLE)?
SLE is the prototypical multisystem autoimmune disease characterized by
circulating antinuclear antibodies; the principal sites of injury are skin, joints, and
kidneys. The oral mucosa is often involved, and the lesions may appear lichenoid,
with white striae, and atrophic or erythematous. DLE is the limited form of the
disease; most manifestations are localized to the skin and mucous membranes
with no systemic involvement. DLE does not usually progress to SLE, although
certain phases of SLE are clinically indistinguishable from DLE. The oral findings
are similar in both.
71. What is the midline lethal granuloma?
This term describes a destructive, ulcerative process, usually located in the
midline of the hard palate, that may lead to palatal perforation. Although the
clinical picture is dramatic and ominous, the histologic picture may be somewhat
nonspecific, showing only inflammation and occasionally vasculitis. Some
authorities believe that midline lethal granuloma may be a localized form of an
inflammatory condition known as Wegener's granulomatosis. Other conditions that
may present in a similar fashion include fungal infections, syphilitic gummas, and
malignant neoplasms such as lymphomas.
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CHEMOTHERAPY AND HIV DISEASE
72. What are the common oral manifestations in patients who have
undergone chemo therapy?
Chemotherapy can produce direct stomatotoxicity by acting on mitotically
active cells in the basal cell layer of the epithelium. The mucosa becomes atrophic
and, when traumatized, ulcerates. The chemotherapeutic agents also act on other
rapidly dividing cells in the body, such as hematopoietic tissues. The results are
neutropenia, anemia, and thrombocytopenia. Neutropenia may have an indirect
stomatotoxic effect by allowing oral bacteria to colonize the ulcers. Usually, these
ulcers develop in the period of profound neutropenia and resolve when neutrophils
reappear in the blood circulation. In addition, patients are at increased risk for
developing oral candidiasis, oral herpetic lesions, and deep fungal infections.
Thrombocytopenia may cause oral petechiae, ecchymoses, and hematomas,
especially at sites of trauma.
Chemotherapy-associated oral ulcerative mucositis.
73. A patient who underwent cancer chemotherapy now has recurrent
intraoral herpetic lesions but no history of cold sores or fever blisters. I s
this likely?
Yes. Many people have been exposed to herpes simplex virus without their
knowledge and are completely asymptomatic. The virus becomes latent within
sensory ganglia and reactivates to give rise to recurrent or recrudescent herpetic
lesions. The prevalence of people who have been exposed to HSV increases with
age.
74. What are the complications of leukemia in the oral cavity, aside
from those associated with chemotherapy?
Leukemic infiltration of the bone marrow leads to reduced production of
functional components of the marrow. Granulocytopenia results in more frequent
and more aggressive odontogenic infections; thrombocytopenia results in
petechiae, ecchymoses, and hematomas in the oral cavity, which is subject to
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trauma from functional activities. The patient may have a more than adequate
white cell count, but many of the white cells are malignant and do not necessarily
function like normal white cells. In addition, some leukemias, especially acute
monocytic leukemia, have a propensity to infiltrate the gingiva, causing localized
or diffuse gingival enlargement.
75. A patient underwent a matched allogenic bone marrow
transplantation for the treatment of leukemia. Three months later he
has erosive and lichenoid lesions in his mouth .What is your diagnosis?
The likely diagnosis is chronic oral graft-vs-host disease. The allogenic bone
marrow transplant or graft contains immunocompetent cells that recognize the
host cells as foreign and attack them. The oral lesions of chronic graft-vs.-host
disease resemble the lesions of lichen planus.
Chronic oral graft-vs-host disease of buccal mucosa.
76. What are the effects of radiation on the oral cavity?
Short-term: oral erythema and ulcers, candidiasis, dysgeusia, parotitis,
acute sialadenitis
Long-term: xerostomia, dental caries, osteoradionecrosis, epithelial
atrophy and fibrosis
77. What factors predispose to osteoradionecrosis?
This necrotic process affects bone that has been in the radiation field.
Predisposing factors include high total dose of radiation (especially if> 6,500 cGy),
presence of odontogenic infection (such as periapical pathosis and periodontal
disease), trauma (such as extractions), and site (the mandible is less vascular and
more susceptible than the maxilla).
78. What is the basic cause of osteoradionecrosis?
The breakdown of hypocellular, hypovascular, and hypoxic tissue readily
results in a chronic, nonhealing ulcer that can be secondarily infected. Some repo
show that the infection is for the most part superficial.
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79. What are the common oral manifestations of HI V infection?
Soft tissue: candidiasis, recurrent herpetic infections, deep fungal infections,
aphthous ulcers, hairy leukoplakia, viral warts
Periodontium: nonspecific gingivitis, acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis,
severe and rapidly destructive periodontal disease, often with unusual pathogens
Tumors: Kaposi's sarcoma, B-cell lymphoma, squamous cell carcinoma
80. A patient who tested positive for HIV antibodies presents with a
CD4 count of 150 but has never had an opportunistic infection or been
symptomatic. Does he have Al DS?
Yes. By the CDC definition (February 1993), patients with CD4 counts below
200 are considered to have AIDS.
81. Like other leukoplakias, hairy leukoplakia has a tendency t progress
to malignancy. True or false?
False. Hairy leukoplakia is associated with EBV infection and usually a
superimposed hyperplastic candidiasis. HPV also has been associated with hairy
leukoplakia, which is not a premalignant condition. However, patients infected
with HIV are more susceptible to oral cancer in general.
82. Are HI V-associated aphthous ulcers similar to recurrent major
aphthae?
Yes. They tend to be greater than 1 cm, persist for long periods (weeks to
months), and are difficult to treat.
HIV-associated aphthous ulcers of the soft palate and oropharynx.
83. Should HIV-associated aphthous ulcers be routinely cultured?
Yes. Often the culture is positive for HSV or even CMV, and the patient
needs to be treated appropriately.
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84. Kaposi's sarcoma (KS) is seen equally in the different population
risk groups. True or false?
False. Over 90% of the epidemic cases of KS are diagnosed in homosexual
or bisexual men. KS is an AIDS-defining lesion that is seen much less frequently in
the other risk groups. It is associated with the presence of a new virus— Kaposi's
sarcoma-associated human herpesvirus 8.
85. What management issues other than infection control and
diagnosis of oral lesions should you keep in mind when treating patients
with Al DS?
Hematologic dysfunction is common. HIV infection is associated with
autoimmune thrombocytopenic purpura granulocytopenia and anemia. In addition,
a nti retroviral agents such as zidovudine are myelosuppressive, as are drugs used
as prophylaxis against Pneumocystis carina pneumonia, such as trimethoprim-
sulfamethoxazole. The patient's blood picture should be known before treatment,
especially surgical procedures, begins.
HIV-related Kaposi's sarcoma of the palate.
86. How do you treat intraoral Kaposi's sarcoma?
Surgical excision, intralesional injections of ymca alkaloids, radiation, and
possibly interferon.
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BENIGN NEOPLASMS AND TUMORS
Odontogenic Tumors
87. Name the benign odontogenic tumors that are purely epithelial.
• Ameloblastoma
• Calcifying epithelial odontogenic tumor (Pindborg tumor)
• Adenomatoid odontogenic tumor
• Solid variant of the calcifying odontogenic cyst
• Squamous odontogenic tumor
• Clear-cell odontogenic tumor (rare)
88. Which odontogenic tumor is associated with amyloid production?
With ghost cells?
Calcifying epithelial odontogenic tumor (Pindborg tumor) is associated with
amyloid production; calcifying epithelial odontogenic cyst (Gorlin cyst) is
associated with ghost cells.
89. Which two lesions, one in the long bones and one in the cranium,
reseThble the ameloblastoma?
In the long bones, adamantinoma; in the cranium, craniopharyngioma.
90. All forms of ameloblastoma behave aggressively and tend to recur.
True or false?
False. One form of ameloblastoma, which occurs in adolescents and young
adults, behaves less aggressively and has a lower tendency to recur. It is is called
unicystic ameloblastoma.
91. Because ameloblastoma is so aggressive, it can be considered a
malignancy. True or false.
False. Ameloblastoma is a locally destructive lesion that has no tendency to
metastasize. However, it has two malignant counterparts: ameloblastic carcinoma
and malignant ameloblastoma.
92. To which teeth are cementoblastomas usually attached?
The mandibular permanent molars.
93. Name two odontogenic tumors that produce primarily
mesenchymal tissues.
Odontogenic fibroma and odontogenic myxoma.
94. An adolescent presents with a mandibular radiolucency with areas
that histologically resemble ameloblastoma as well as dental papilla.
What is your diagnosis?
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The diagnosis is ameloblastic fibroma, one of the rare odontogenic tumors
that has both a neoplastic epithelial and mesenchymal component.
Fibroosseous Tumors
and
95. Ossifying fibromas arise from bone- producing cells,
cementifying fibromas are odontogenic in origin. True or false?
In real life and real pathology, the line of demarcation between the two is
not so clear. They are clinically indistinguishable. Histologically, although pure
ossifying and pure cementifying fibromas exist, it is much more common to see a
mixture of bone/osteoid and cementum in any given lesion, with either
predominating or in equal proportions. Many pathologists use the term
cementoossifying fibroma as a unifying concept. The cell of origin is likely to be a
mesenchymal cell in the periodontal ligament that is capable of producing either
bone or cementum, therefore duplicating the two anchoring sites for Sharpey's
fibers. From that point of view, both are odontogenic in origin.
96. is it possible to distinguish histologically between fibrous dysplasia
and central ossifying tThroma?
No. The clinical and radiographic findings are the most important for
differentiating between the two. Fibrous dysplasia tends to occur in the maxilla of
young people and presents as a poorly defined radiolucent or radiopaque area
that is nonencapsulated. The radiographic appearance has been described as
"ground glass." The central ossifying fibroma is a well-demarcated radiolucency,
often with a distinct border, and may contain areas of radiopacity within the
lesion. It is more common in the mandible.
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Soft Tissue Tumors
97. Fibroma of the oral cavity is a true neoplasm. True or false?
It depends on your definition of neoplasm. As its name suggests, fibroma of
the oral cavity is a tumor ("-oma") composed of fibrous tissue. It tends to occur as
a result of trauma and therefore usually presents on the buccal mucosa, lower
labial mucosa, and lateral tongue. It is nonencapsulated and grows as long as the
inciting factor, such as trauma, is present. By Willis's definition of neoplasm ("new
growth"), the growth, once established, continues in an excessive manner even
after cessation of the stimuli that first evoked the change. Some pathologists,
therefore, prefer the term fibrous hyperplasia rather than fibroma because it more
accurately reflects its nature. The pathogenesis is similar to that of fibrous
hyperplasias caused by poorly fitting dentures.
Fibroma of tongue
98. What are verocay bodies?
Verocay bodies consist of amorphous-looking, eosinophilic material that
forms between parallel groups of nuclei in the schwannoma. They actually
represent duplicated basement membrane produced by Schwann cells and are an
important component of Antoni A tissue.
99. What is the cell of origin of the granular cell tumor? How is it
different from the cell of origin of the congenital epulis of the newborn?
The cell of origin of the granular cell tumor is probably a neural cell, such as
the Schwann cell. This tumor used to be called the granular cell myoblastoma
because it was believed that the cell of origin was a myocyte. The cell appears
granular because it contains many lysosomes. By light microscopy, these cells
resemble cells of the congenital epulis of the newborn. Whereas the granular cell
tumor stains for S-IOO protein, a marker for neural tissues, among others, the
congenital epulis does not.
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100. A patient presents with multiple neuromas of the lips and tongue.
What do you suspect?
The patient probably has multiple endocrine neoplasia type III, which is
inherited as an autosomal dominant condition. Patients also have
pheochromocytomas, cafe-au-lait macules, neurofibromas of the skin, and
medullary carcinoma of the thyroid. Recognition of the oral findings may lead to
early diagnosis of the thyroid carcinoma.
101. What are venous lakes?
Venous lakes are purplish-blue nodules or papules, often present on the lips
of older people, that represent dilated venules or varices.
102. What is the most common benign salivary gland tumor?
Pleomorphic adenoma.
103. Why is pleomorphic adenoma sometimes called the benign "mixed
tumor'7
Pleomorphic adenoma is called a "mixed tumor" because histologically it
may have a mixture of both epithelial and connective tissue components, although
in fact it is an epithelially derived tumor. The connective tissue components may
be prominent because one of the cells responsible for the tumor is the
myoepithelial cell, which, as its name suggests, has properties of both epithelial
and connective tissue. This cell is responsible for the areas of cartilage and bone
formation as well as for the myxoid nature of many "mixed tumors." In addition,
there are areas of epithelial cell proliferation in the form of ducts, islands, and
sheets of cells.
104. What is the brown tumor?
The brown tumor is histologically a central giant-cell granuloma associated
with hyperparathyroidism. It appears brown when excised because it is a highly
vascular lesion. Because it is indistinguishable from banal central giant-cell
granuloma, all patients diagnosed with central giant-cell granuloma should have
their calcium levels checked.
MALIGNANT NEOPLASMS
105. What percentage of the population has leukoplakia? What
percentage of leukoplakias have dysplasia or carcinoma when first
biopsied compared with erythroplakias?
Leukoplakia occurs in 3—4% of the population, and 15—20% of
leukoplakias have dysplasia or carcinoma at the time of biopsy, whereas 90% of
erythroplakias show such changes at the time of biopsy.
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Squamous cell carcinoma presenting as leukoplakia with erythematous and verrucous areas.
106. What is proliferative verrucous leulcoplalcia?
It is a clinically aggressive and progressive form of leukoplakia with a higher
rate of malignant transformation than banal leukoplakia.
107. What is the prevalence of oral cancer in the United States? Which
country in the world has the highest prevalence of oral cancer?
Oral cancer accounts for 3—5% of all cancers in the United States if one
includes oropharyngeal lesions. India has the highest prevalence of oral cancer,
which is the most common cancer in that country and is related to the use of betel
nut and tobacco products.
108. What are the risk factors for oral cancer?
• Tobacco products
• Alcohol (especially in conjunction with smoking)
• Betel nut products (especially in East Indians and some Southeast Asian
cultures)
• Sunlight (especially for cancer of the lip in men)
• History of syphilitic glossitis
• History of submucous fibrosis
• Immunosuppression
• History of oral cancer or other cancer
• Preexisting oral mucosal dysplasia
•Age
109. What do snuff-associated lesions look like?
At the site where the snuff is placed (usually the sulcus), the mucosa is
whitened with a translucent hue, and linear white ridges run parallel to the sulcus.
110. What is the difference in prognosis between a squamous cell
carcinoma and a verrucous carcinoma?
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Approximately one-half of squamous cell carcinomas have metastasized at
the time of diagnosis. The larger they are, the more likely that metastases will
develop. Verrucous carcinomas do not tend to metastasize despite the rather large
size of some lesions. They are locally aggressive lesions. Whereas many squamous
cell carcinomas are radiosensitive, verrucous carcinomas have been reported to
become extremely aggressive and histologically anaplastic when treated with
radiation
111. What is a "rodent ulcer'7
A rodent ulcer refers to a basal cell carcinoma that, despite its low tendency
to metastasize, erodes through adjacent tissues like the gnawing of a rodent and
through persistence may cause destruction of the facial complex.
112. What are the three most common intraoral malignant salivary
gland tumors?
Mucoepidermoid carcinoma, polymorphous low-grade adenocarcinoma, and
adenoid cystic carcinoma. The polymorphous low-grade adenocarcinoma also has
been reported under the names of terminal duct carcinoma and lobular carcinoma.
113. Which two salivary gland tumors often show perinuclear invasion
(neurotropism)?
Adenoid cystic carcinoma and polymorphous low-grade adenocarcinoma.
However, any malignancy (particularly carcinomas) can show perinuclear invasion
that may represent invasion of the lymphatics around a nerve.
114. The benign lymphoepithelial lesion of Sjogren's syndrome is an
innocuous autoimmune sialadenitis. True or false?
False. The "benign" lymphoepithelial lesion is not so benign. Many experts
believe that
these lesions are premalignant. Affected patients have a higher incidence of
lymphoma than the
general population.
115. A patient with Sjogren's syndrome is referred for a labial salivary
gland biopsy to identify a benign lymphoepithelial lesion. Does this
sound right?
No. The benign lymphoepithelial lesion of Sjogren's syndrome is fou.ud in
the major glands, mainly the parotid, especially if parotid enlargement is present.
A labial salivary gland biopsy will show an autoimmune sialadenitis characterized
by lymphocytic infiltrates that form foci. The more foci, the more likely the
diagnosis of an autoimmune sialadenitis; foci are less specific than the
lymphoepithelial lesion.
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116. Do lymphomas of the oral cavity occur outside Waldeyer's ring?
Yes. Oral lymphomas are most common in Waldeyer's ring, but they may
occur in the palate (a condition formerly described as lymphoproliferative disease
of the palate), buccal mucosa, tongue, floor of the mouth, and retromolar areas.
Not infrequently they are also primary lesions in the jaw bones.
117. What does a monoclonal plasma cell proliferation mean?
Plasma cells produce immunoglobulin that contains heavy and light chains.
Each plasma cell and its progeny produce either kappa or lambda light chains. A
group of plasma cells that produces only kappa or lambda light chains but not
both is most likely due to a proliferation of a single malignant clone of plasma
cells, such as a plasmacytoma or multiple myeloma. The presence of both light
chains in a plasma cell proliferation is more in keeping with a polyclonal
proliferation, which characterizes inflammatory lesions.
118. Name the different epidemiologic forms of Kaposi's sarcoma.
1. Classic r European form: usually Eastern European men (often Jewish);
multiple red papules on the lo extremities, with rare visceral involvement and a
more indolent course.
2. Endemic or African form: young men or children in equatorial Africa;
frequent visceral involvement that may be fulminant.
3. Epidemic form: HIV-associated; may be widely disseminated to
mucocutaneous and visceral sites; variable course.
4. Renal transplant-associated form: patients who have undergone renal
transplantation with immunosuppressive therapy; lesions usually regress when
immunosuppressive therapy is discontinued.
119. A patient has a suspected metastatic tumor to the mandible. What
are the likely primary tumors?
• Lung • Prostate • Gastointestinal tract • Thyroid
• Breast • Kidney • Skin
120. Osteosarcoma of the jaws occurs in younger patients more often
than osteosarcoma of the long bones. True or false?
False. Patients with osteosarcoma of the jaws are 1—2 decades older than
patients with osteosarcoma of the long bones.
121. What conditions predispose to osteosarcoma?
Many cases of osteosarcoma in young adults occur de novo. However, there are
well-documented cases of osteosarcoma in association with Paget's disease,
chronic osteomyelitis, a history of retinoblastoma, and prior radiation to the bone
for fibrous dysplasia.
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NONVASCULAR PIGMENTED LESIONS
122. What drugs can cause mucosal pigmentation?
• Oral contraceptives • Minocycline
• Antimalarial agents (e.g., plaquenil) • Zidovudine (possible)
123. Why does heavy metal poisoning primarily cause staining of the
gingiva?
Heavy metals such as lead, bismuth, and silver may cause a grayish-black
line to appear on the gingival margins, especially in patients with poor oral
hygiene. Plaque bacteria can produce hydrogen sulfide, which combines with the
heavy metals to form heavy metal sulfides that are usually black.
124. What can cause mucosal melanosis?
Benign: physiologic pigmentation, postinflammatory hyperpigmentation
(especially in dark-skinned people), oral melanotic macule, smoking, mucosal
nevus, melanoacanthosis
Malignant: melanoma
Systemic conditions: Peutz-Jegher's syndrome, Albright's syndrome,
Addison's disease neurofibromatosis
125. What are the different forms of oral melanocytic nevi?
Intramucosal nevus: tends to be elevated, papular or nodular
Junctional nevus: tends to be macular
Compound nevus: tends to be papular
Blue nevus: tends to be macular
126. What is the most common site for oral melanoma?
Hard palate.
127. What is the difference between a melanocyte and a melanophage?
A melanocyte is a neuroectodermally derived dendritic cell that contains the
intracellular apparatus to manufacture melanin. A melanophage is a macrophage
that has phagocytosed melanin pigment and therefore can look like a melanocyte
because it contains melanin. However, it lacks the enzymes to produce melanin.
METABOLIC LESIONS ASSOCIATED WITH SYSTEMIC DISEASE
128. What are the three presentations of Langerhans cell disease
(histiocytosis X)?
Chronic localized disease: eosinophilic granuloma; usually in adults.
Chronic disseminated disease: limited to a few organ systems in adults.
Hand-Schuller-Christian disease is a well-recognized form, characterized by
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exophthalmos; diabetes insipidus and bony lesions; sometimes with skin and
visceral involvement.
Acute disseminated disease: Letterer-Siwe disease in children;
widespread involvement of multiple organ systems, especially skin; usually runs a
rapidly progressive, often fatal course; considered a malignancy for the most part.
129. What are Birbecic granules?
Birbeck granules are racket-shaped cytoplasmic inclusions seen in Langerhans
cells of histiocytosis X.
L5s. ^-^r;
L^^"'
y-.^ ^
Racket-shaped Birbeck granule of Langerhans cell histiocytosis.
130. What are the oral changes associated with pregnancy?
Gingivitis and pyogenic granuloma (epulis gravidarum).
131. An elderly man complains that his jaw seems to be getting too big
for his dentures and that his hat does not fit him anymore. What do you
suspect?
Paget's disease (ostejtis deformans), a metabolic bone disease in which initial
bone resorption is followed by haphazard bone repair, with resulting marked
sclerosis. This condition may lead to narrowing of skull base foramina and
neurologic deficits. The maxilla is often affected; a "cotton-wool" appearance has
been described on radiographs.
132. What oral lesions are associated with gastrointestinal disease?
The most common gastrointestinal disease associated with oral signs is
inflammatory bowel disease, especially Crohn's disease. Patients may manifest
cobblestoning of the mucosa and papulous growths, which represent
granulomatous inflammation similar to what is seen in the gastrointestinal tract.
Occasionally, patients also develop a pyostomatitis vegetans. In addition, they
may have aphthouslike ulcers as well as symptoms of glossitis associated with
vitamin B 12 deficiency if part of the ileum has been resected for the disease.
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Patients with gluten-sensitive enteropathies also may present with aphthouslike
ulcers.
133. what is primary and secondary Sjogren's syndrome?
Primary Sjogren's syndrome, which used to be called the sicca syndrome,
consists of dry eyes (keratoconjunctivitis sicca) and dry mouth (xerostomia) in the
absence of other systemic conditions. Secondary Sjogren's syndrome consists of
primary Sjogren's syndrome plus a connectivetissue disorder such as rheumatoid
arthritis, systemic lupus erythematosus, progressive systemic sclerosis, or
polymyositis. IMost patients with Sjogren's syndrome have circulating
autoantibodies.
134. What is the dental significance of the Sturge- Weber syndrome?
This syndrome is characterized by vascular malformations of the
leptomeninges, facial skin innervated by the fifth nerve (nevus flammeus), and the
corresponding ipsilateral areas in the oral mucosa and bone. Bleeding is therefore
an important consideration in dental treatment. Patients also may exhibit mental
retardation and seizure disorders. Treatment may include phenytoin.
DIFFERENTIAL DIAGNOSES AND GENERAL CONSIDERATIONS
Intrabony Lesions
135. What are pseudocysts of the jaw bones? Give examples.
These conditions appear cystlike on radiograph but are not true cysts.
Examples include:
• Traumatic (simple) bone cyst: empty at surgery
• Aneurysmal bone cyst: giant cells and blood-filled spaces
• Static bone cyst (Stalne bone cavity): salivary gland depression
• Hematopoietic marrow defect: hematopoietic marrow
136. What is the differential diagnosis for a multiloculated
radiolucency?
• Dentigerous cyst
• Odontogenic keratocyst
• Ameloblastoma
• Vascular malformations, such as hemangiomas
• Odontogenic myxoma
• Intraosseous salivary gland tumors
• Lesions that contain giant cells, such as aneurysmal bone cyst, central giant
cell granuloma, and cherubism
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Soft Tissue Lesions
137. What is the differential diagnosis for an upper lip nodule?
Salivary gland lesion: sialolith, benign salivary gland tumor (especially
pleomorphic adenoma and canalicular adenoma), malignant salivary gland tumor
Vascular lesion: hemangioma, lymphangioma, other vascular anomaly
Neural lesion: neurofibroma, schwannoma, neuroma
Skin appendage tumors
138. What may cause diffuse swelling of the lips?
• Vascular malformations, such as lymphangiomas and hemangiomas
• Angioneurotic edema
• Hypersensitivity reactions
• Cheilitis glandularis
• Cheilitis granulomatosa (e.g., IMelkersson-Rosenthal syndrome)
• Crohn's disease
139. What is the differential diagnosis for a solitary gingival nodule?
The most common diagnoses are fibroma or fibrous hyperplasia, pyogenic
granuloma (especially in a pregnant patient), peripheral giant cell granuloma, and
peripheral ossifying fibroma (essentially a fibrous hyperplasia with metaplastic
bone formation). Other less common conditions include benign and malignant
tumors, especially of odontogenic origin, and (in elderly patients) metastatic
tumors.
140. What may cause generalized overgrowth of gingival tissues?
Common causes include plaque accumulation; drugs such as phenytoin,
cyclosporine A, sodium valproate, diltiazem, and nifedipine (the last two are
calcium channel blockers); fibromatosis gingivae; and leukemic infiltrate.
141. A labial salivary gland biopsy is useful for diagnosis of certain
systemic conditions. What are they?
• Sjogren's syndrome
• Autoimmune sialadenitis associated with connective-tissue disease
• Graft-vs.-host disease
• Amyloidosis
• Sarcoidosis
142. What may cause chronic xerostomia?
Common causes include many anticholinergic drugs, autoimmune sialadenitis
(such as Sjogren's syndrome and graft-vs.-host disease), aging (although many
experts believe this to be drug-related), radiation to the gland, primary neurologic
dysfunction, and nutritional deficiencies (e.g., vitamin A, vitamin B, and iron).
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143. Name possible causes of bilateral parotid swelling.
Mumps Malnutrition
Sjogren's syndrome Alcoholism
Radiation-induced acute parotitis Bulimia
Diabetes mellitus Warthin 's tumor
144. What may cause depapillation of the tongue?
Vitamin B deficiency Median rhomboid glossitis (focally)
Iron deficiency Syphilis
Folate deficiency Plummer-Vinson syndrome
Benign migratory glossitis (focally)
145. What may cause diffuse enlargement of the tongue?
Congenital macroglossia Cretinism
Lymphangioma Acromegaly
Hemangioma Trisomy 21
Neurofibromatosis Amyloidosis
Hyperpituitarisni Hypothyroidism
146. What is the differential diagnosis of midline swellings of the floor
of the mouth?
Ranula (mucocele) Derrriojd cyst
Epidermoid cyst Benign lymphoepithelial cyst
147. What may cause diffuse white plaques in the oral cavity?
Lichen planus (especially plaquetype) Pachyonychia congenita
Cannon's white sponge nevus Dyskeratosis congenita
Leukedema Extensive leukoplakia (especially
Hereditary benign intraepithelial proliferative verrucous leukoplakia)
dyskeratosis Candidiasis
148. Name the conditions that may give rise to papillary lesions of the
oral cavity.
Possible underlying conditions include papilloma, verruca vulgaris, condyloma,
papillary hyperplasia of the palatal mucosa (denture injury). Heck's disease, oral
florid papillomatosis, venucous carcinoma, papillary squamous cell carcinoma,
pyostomatitis vegetans (associated with inflammatory bowel disease), and
verruciform xanthoma.
149. What lesions may occur in the oral cavity of neonates?
Lesions in the oral cavity of neonates include neuroectodermal tumor of
infancy, congenital epulis of the newborn, gingival cyst of the newborn, palatal
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cyst of the newborn (Bohn's nodules and Epstein's pearls), lymphangionnas of the
alveolar ridge, and natal teeth.
150. What may cause "burning mouth" syndrome?
This sensation usually results from mucosa that is atrophic or inflamed,
which, in turn, may be caused by candidiasis (especially atrophic candidiasis of the
tongue or of the palate caused by dentures), xerostomia, allergies (especially to
denture materials), and specific inflammatory mucosal lesions, such as lichen
planus and migratory glossitis. Sometimes a psychological component may be
involved.
151. What may cause oral paresthesia?
Oral paresthesia may be caused by manipulation or inflammation of a nerve
or tissues around a nerve, direct damage to a nerve or tissues around a nerve,
tumor impinging on or invading a nerve, pnmary neural tumor, and central
nervous system tumor.
152. Why do lesions appear white in the oral cavity?
Lesions appear white because the epithelium has been changed, usually
thickened, causing the underlying blood vessels to be deeper, as in
hyperkeratosis, epithelial hyperplasia (acanthosis), and swelling of the epithelial
cells (Cannon's nevus, leukedema). Lesions may appear white if exudate or
necrosis is present in the epithelium (candidiasis, ulcers) or if there are fewer
vessels in the connective tissue (scar). Finally, a change in the intrinsic nature of
the epithelial cell, such as epithelial dysplasia, may cause the mucosa to appear
white (leukoplakia).
153. Why do lesions appear red in the oral cavity?
Lesions appear red because the epithelium is thinned and the underlying
vessels are now closer to the surface, as in epithelial atrophy, desquamative
conditions, healing ulcers, and loss of the keratin layer. Redness also may be
caused by an increase in the number or dilatation of blood vessels in the
connective tissue, as in inflammation. Finally, a change in the intrinsic nature of
the epithelial cell, such as epithelial dysplasia, may cause the mucosa to look red
(erythroplakia).
154. Distinguish macules, papules, and plaque.
A macule is a localized lesion that is not raised and is better seen than felt. It
is often used to describe localized pigmented lesions, such as amalgam tattoos
and melanotic macules. Both papules and plaque are raised lesions; the papule is
<5 mm, and the plaque is larger.
155. What is the difference between a bulla and vesicle?
The bulla is usually >5 mm in size; the vesicle is <5 mm.
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156. Differentiate between a liamartoma and a choristoma.
A hamartoma is a tumorlike growth consisting of an overgrowth of tissues
that histologically appear mature and are native to the area (e.g., hemangioma,
odontoma). A choristoma is a tumorlike growth consisting of an overgrowth of
tissues that histologically appear mature but are not native to the area (e.g.,
cartilaginous choristoma or bony choristoma of the tongue). A hamartoma of the
skin and mucosa is sometimes called a nevus (e.g., vascular, epidermal, or
melanocytic nevus).
157. What are oncocytes?
Oncocytes are eosinophilic, swollen cells found in many salivary gland tumors,
such as oncocytomas and Warthin's tumor, and in oncocytic metaplasia of salivary
ducts. They are swollen because they contain many mitochondria.
158. What are Russell bodies?
Russell bodies are round, eosinophilic bodies found in reactive lesions and
represent globules of immunoglobulin within plasma cells.
BIBLIOGRAPHY
Developmental Conditions
1. Christ TF: The globulomaxillary cyst: An embryologic misconception. Oral
Surg 30:515, 1970.
2. Cohen DA, et al: The lateral penodontal cyst. J Periodontol 55:230, 1984.
3. Waldron CA: Fibro-osseous lesions of the Jaws. J Oral Maxillofac Surg
43:249, 1985.
4. Wright JM: The odontogenic keratocyst: Orthokeratinized v Oral Surg
51:609, 1981.
I nfections
5. Dismukes WE: Azole antifungal drugs: Old and new. Ann Intern Med
109:177, 1988.
6. Lehner T: Oral candidosis. Dent Pract Dent Res 17:209, 1967.
7. Scully C, et a!: Papillomaviruses: The current status in relation to oral
disease. Oral Surg Oral Med Oral Pathol 65:526, 1988.
8. Weathers OR, Griffin JW: Intraoral ulcerations of recurrent herpes simplex
and recurrent aphthae: Two distinct clinical entities. JAm Dent Assoc
81:81, 1970.
Reactive, Hypersensitivity, and Autoimmune Conditions
9. Bean SF, Quezada RK: Recurrent oral erythema multiforme. Clinical
experience with 11 patients. JAMA 249:2810, 1983.
10. Kerr DA, McClatchey KD, Regezi JA: Idiopathic gingivostomatitis. Oral Surg
Oral Med Oral Pathol 32:402, 1971.
11. Nisengard RJ, Rogers RS III: The treatment of desquamative gingival
lesions. J Periodontol 58: 167, 1987.
12. Rennie JS: Recurrent aphthous stomatitis. Br Dent J 159:361, 1985.
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13. Schiodt M, Halberg P, Hentzer B: A clinical study of 32 patients with oral
discoid lupus erythematosus. IntJ Oral Surg 7:85, 1978.
14. Silverman 5, Lozada-nur F: A prospective follow-up study of 570 patients
with oral lichen planus: Persistence, remission, and malignant association.
Oral Surg Oral Med Oral Pathol 60:30, 1985.
Chemotherapy and HI V Disease
15. Greenberg MS, et al: Oral herpes simplex infections in patients with
leukemia.-J Am Dent Assoc 1145:483, 1987.
16. Libman H, Witzburg RA (eds): HIV Infection: A Clinical Manual. Boston,
Little, Brown, 1993.
17. Marks RE, Johnson RP: Studies in the radiobiology of osteoradionecrosis
and their clinical significance.Oral Surg Oral Med Oral Pathol 64:379, 1987.
18. Peterson DE, Elias KG, Sonis ST (eds): Head and Neck Management of the
Cancer Patient. Boston, Martinus Nijhoff, 1986, p 351.
19. Schubert MM, et al: Oral manifestations of chronic graft-v. -host disease.
Ann Intern Med 144:1591, 1984.
Benign Neoplasms and Tumors
20. Ellis GL, Auclair PL, Gnepp DR: Surgical Pathology of the Salivary Glands.
Philadelphia, W.B. Saunders, 199!.
21. Eversole LR, LeiderAS, Nelson K: Ossifying fibroma: A clinicopathologic
study of 64 cases. Oral Surg Oral Med Oral Pathol 60:505-511, 1985.
22. Hansen LS, Eversole LR, Green TL, Powell NB: Clear cell odontogenic
tumor— A new histologic vari ant with aggressive potential. Head Neck
Surg 8:115, 1985.
23. Robinson L, Martinez MG: Unicystic ameloblastoma: A prognostically
distinct entity. Cancer 40:2278.1977.
Malignant Neoplasms
24. Batsakis JG: The pathology of head and neck tumors: The lymphoepithelial
lesion and Sjogren's syn drome. Head Neck Surg 5:150, 1982.
25. Batsakis JG, et al: The pathology of head and neck tumors: Verrucous
carcinoma. Head Neck Surg 5:29,1982.
26. Freedman PD, Lumerman H: Lobular carcinoma of intraoral minor salivary
glands. Oral Surg Oral Med Oral Pathol 56:157, 1983.
27. Hansen L, Olson J, Silverman S: Proliferative verrucous leukoplakia. Oral
Surg Oral Med Oral Pathol 60:285, 1985.
28. Waldron CA, Shafer WG: Leukoplakia revisited. Cancer 36:1386, 1975.
Nonvascular Pigmented Lesions
29. Argenyi ZB, et al: Minocycline-related cutaneous hyperpigmentation as
demonstrated by light mi croscopy, electron microscopy, and x-ray energy
spectroscopy. J Cutan Pathol 14:176, 1987.
30. Buchner A, Hansen L: Pigmented nevi of the oral mucosa. Oral Surg Oral
Med Oral Pathol 63:566, 1987.
Metabolic Lesions Associated with Systemic Disease
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31. Beitman RG, Frost SS, Roth JLA: Oral manifestations of gastrointestinal
disease. Digest Dis Sci 26:741, 1981.
32. Little JW, Falace DA: Dental l^anagement of the Medically Compromised
Patient, 3rd ed. St. Louis, Mosby, 1988, p 325.
33. Writing Group of the Histiocytosis Society: Histiocytosis syndromes in
children. Lancet 1:208, 1987.
Differential Diagnoses and General Considerations
34. Neville BW, Damm DD, Allen CM, Bouquot JE: Oral and maxillofacial
pathology. Philadelphia. W.B. Saunders, 1995.
35. Regezi JA, Sciubba JJ: Oral Pathology: Clinical-Pathologic Correlations, 2nd
ed. Philadelphia, W.B. Saunders, 1993.
36. Shafer WG, Hine MK, Levy BM: A Textbook of Oral Pathology, 4th ed.
Philadelphia, W.B. Saunders, 1983.
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5. ORAL RADI OLOGY
Bernard Friedland, B.Ch.D., M.ScJ.D.
RADIATION PHYSICS AND BIOLOGY
1. How are x-rays produced?
X-rays are produced by "boiling off" electrons from a filament (the cathode)
and accelerating the el to the target at the anode. The accelerated x-rays are
decelerated by the target material, resulting in bremsstrahlung. Characteristic x-
rays are produced when the incoming electrons knock out an inner K- or L-shell
electron in the target and an electron from the L or M shell falls in to fill the void.
2. At the energies typically used in dental radiography, what
interactions do the x-rays undergo with tissues?
X-rays undergo three interactions with tissue: elastic scatter, Compton scatter
(also known as inelastic or incoherent scatter), and photoelectric absorption. Pair
production occurs at much higher energy values (1.02 megaelectron volts [ than
are used in dentistry.
3. Which of the interactions is primarily responsible for patient dose?
In the photoelectric process the incoming x-ray transfers all of its energy to
the tissue. Photoelectric absorption, therefore, contributes the most to patient
dose.
4. Why are filters used?
Filters are used to remove the low-energy x-rays, which are primarily
responsible for photoelectric interactions and patient dose. Removing these x-rays
increases the average energy of the beam and reduces the likelihood of
photoelectric interactions, thereby reducing patient dose.
5. Why are intensifying screens used in extraoral radiography? How do
they work?
Intensifying screens are used to reduce patient dose. They do so by
converting x-rays to light. Since one x-ray gives rise to many light photons, the
number of x-rays required to produce the same density on the film is markedly
reduced.
6. What radiosensitive organs are in the field of typical dental x-ray
examinations?
The thyroid is an extremely radiosensitive organ, along with lymphoid tissue
and bone marrow in the exposed areas.
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7. What evidence suggests a risk of carcinogenesis from exposures to
low levels of ionizing radiation such as those in dentistry?
No single study proves the association between carcinogenesis and exposure
to x-rays at the low levels used in dentistry. Many studies that follow patients
exposed to higher levels, however, provide evidence of a link. Populations that
have been studied include atomic bomb survivors in Nagasaki and Hisoshima,
radium watch-dial painters, patients exposed to multiple fluoroscopies for
tuberculosis, and others.
8. What units are used to describe radiation exposure and dose? WThat
do they measure?
1. The roentgen (R) is the basic unit of radiation exposure for x- and gamma
radiation. It is defined in terms of the number of ionizations produced in air.
2. The rad (roentgen absorbed dose) is a measure of the amount of energy
absorbed by an organ or tissue. Different organs or tissues absorb a different
amount of energy when exposed to the same amount of radiation or roentgens.
3. The rem (roentgen equivalent man or mammal) is a measure of the degree
of damage caused to different organs or tissues. Different organs or tissues show
differing amounts of damage even when they have absorbed the same amounts of
rads.
The International System of Units (Sis) are the coulomb/kilogram, the Gray,
and the Sievert for the roentgen, rad, and rem, respectively.
9. What are the effects of ionizing radiation on the cell?
Radiation damage to the cell is divided into direct and indirect effects. A
direct effect takes place when the radiation interacts directly with a biologic
molecule to produce damage:
1. RH^RH++e"
2. RH ^ R+ + H+
An indirect effect occurs when the radiation interacts with a nonbiologic
molecule, which then interacts with a biologic molecule and results in cell damage:
1. H2O ^ HzO-" + e
2. H2O+ ^ H+ + 0H°
3. RH + OH°^R+ H2O
10. What is the difference between density and contrast?
Density refers to the overall degree of blackening of a film. Contrast refers to
the differences in densities between adjacent areas of the film.
11. Which technique factors control film density?
The longer a film is exposed, the darker it will be; hence, time of exposure
controls density. The milliampere (mA) determines how hot the filament gets and
how many electrons are boiled off. The greater the filament current, the hotter the
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filament and the more electrons are boiled off to reach the anode and to produce
x-rays; hence mA also controls density. As a result of the kilovolt peak (kVp),
which is the potential voltage difference between the cathode (filament) and
anode, electrons that are boiled off are accelerated to the anode. The greater the
potential difference between the cathode and anode, the greater the acceleration
of the electrons toward the anode. Electrons that hit the anode at greater speed
result in x-rays with higher energies. X-rays with higher energies are more likely to
reach the film and blacken it. Thus, kVp also controls film density. The distance
from the source to the film also has a great effect on film density (see question
17).
12. Which technique factors control film contrast? How do they affect
contrast?
Contrast is controlled by the kVp only. The higher the kVp, the lower the
contrast, and vice versa. Time, mA, and distance affect only density and not
contrast.
13. Assume that you manually develop your x-ray films and that you do
not know the de veloping time. What is the best way to ensure an
acceptable film?
If you do not know the developing time, the best option is to develop by
sight. Remove the film from the developer from time to time and visually
determine whether you have sufficient density (assuming that the exposure was
made correctly). Be careful not to expose the film to daylight.
14. Assuming that you have manually developed the film, how long
should you fix it?
A general rule of thumb is to fix the film for at least twice the developing
time. Thus, you should know how long you took to develop the film and then fix it
for at least double that time.
15. How is the latent image on an x-ray film converted into a visible
image?
When a film is developed, the exposed silver halide crystals are converted to
metallic silver, which blackens film and thus makes the image visible.
16. How do you trouble-shoot a dental radiograph that is too dark or
too light?
Changes in radiographic quality most commonly result from errors in
processing and less commonly, but not rarely, from errors in technique factors.
Check the exposure factors (kVp, mAs) to ensure that they were appropriate for
the patient. Check the chemicals to ensure that they are at the correct
temperature, that they have been stirred, and that they are fresh. If all of these
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factors are satisfactory, evaluation of the x-ray unit or film may be necessary. A
problem with either is rare.
17. What is the inverse square law?
The intensity or exposure rate of radiation at a given distance from the
source is inversely proportional to the square of the distance. If we double the
distance from the source, for example, the intensity of the radiation is reduced
fourfold.
18. IHow do we control scatter radiation?
In intraoral radiography, we do not control scattered x-rays that result from
the interaction of x-rays with the patient. We do try, however, to minimize the
scatter by use of a lead-lined long cone. In extraoral radiography, such as
cephalometric radiography, scattered radiation is controlled by the use of a grid
that is situated between the patient and the x-ray film.
19. What is meant by film speed? How is film speed expressed?
Film speed refers to the amount of radiation required to produce a particular
density. Thus, the faster a film, the less radiation is needed to produce the same
density than for a slower film. The speed of a film is expressed as the reciprocal
value of the number of roentgens required to produce a density of one. Thus, if 5
roentgens are required to produce a density of one, the film speed is 0.20. If 8
roentgens are required to produce a density of one, the film speed is 0.125.
20. What is meant by the terms sensitivity, specificity, and predictive
value when applied to the efficacy of radiographic examinations?
Sensitivity refers to the ability of a test, in this case a radiograph, to detect
disease in patients who have disease. Thus, sensitivity is a measure of the
frequency of positive (true-positive rate) and negative (false-negative rate) test
results in patients with disease. Specificity refers to the ability of a test to screen
out patients who do not in fact have the disease. Thus, specificity is a measure of
the frequency of negative (true-negative rate) and positive (false-positive) test
results in patients without disease. The predictive value of a radiograph is the
probability that a patient with a positive test result actually has the disease
(positive predictive value) or the probability that a patient with a negative test
result actually does not have the disease (negative predictive value).
21. What is the basic technology behind magnetic resonance imaging
(MRI)?
Atoms in the body act like bar magnets. In the MRI procedure, the area to be
examined is subjected to an external magnetic field. The atoms line up with the
magnetic field so that their long axes point in the same direction, just as one finds
when bar magnets are subjected to a magnetic field. Once the atoms are so
aligned, they are also subjected to a radio wave. The atoms absorb some of the
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radio wave's energy and lean over. When the radio wave is turned off, the atoms
"relax" and emit the energy that they absorbed. This energy can be picked up by
appropriate receivers and converted into a picture.
22. What is the trend with respect to use of a lead apron and thyroid
collar to protect a pa tient from radiation?
Although as yet there is no consensus on the issue, there is an increasing
tendency not to use lead aprons and thyroid collars in dental radiology. The
feeling is that with modern machines, well-collimated beams, and fast films, the
use of a lead apron offers no additional protection because virtually all of the
patient dose is a result of internal scatter radiation. An exception, even among
those who have discontinued use of the lead apron and thyroid collar, is occlusal
films in younger patients. In occlusal radiography, the sensitive thyroid gland of
younger patients is frequently in the path of the primary beam.
RADIOGRAPHIC TECHNIQUES
23. What are the advantages of using the paralleling technique?
In the paralleling technique the film is placed parallel to the object or tooth,
and the central ray is directed perpendicular to both the object and the film. The
result is an image with relatively minimal distortion. In the bisecting angle
technique, by contrast, the film is not parallel to the tooth, and the central beam is
directed at 90° to an imaginary line bisecting the angle formed by the long axes of
the tooth and film. The result is a more distorted image.
24. What are the advantages of the long-cone technique?
The long-cone technique has two primary benefits. The long cone reduces
patient dose by reducing the field size. It also increases the target-film distance,
thereby reducing magnification.
25. Why is it important to obtain right-angle views of any radiographic
abnormality?
Radiographs are two-dimensional representations of three-dimensional
objects. To obtain a three-dimensional view with film, one needs to obtain views
at right angles to each other. For example, a periapical film suggesting a cyst of
the mandible should be supplemented with an occlusal view and a posteroanterior
(PA) view of the mandible.
26. If you intend to remove a tooth surgically— for example, an
impacted second bicuspid— how can you determine whether the
impacted tooth lies buccal or lingual to the erupted teeth?
A periapical view shows only the mesiodistal location of a tooth relative to
other teeth. To determine its buccolingual relation, you need a view at right angles
to the periapical view. An occlusal view is generally the easiest view to take and is
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the only intraoral view that you can take at 90° to the periapical view. In areas
where it may not be possible to get an occlusal view, such as the third molar
region, a PA mandibular film may be the best solution. This, of course, is an
extraoral view. You could also determine the impacted tooth's buccolingual
relation by exposing a second periapical view with the tube positioned either more
mesially or distally compared with the first periapical exposure. By applying the
buccal object rule, you can then determine the impacted tooth's buccolingual
relation to the erupted teeth.
27. What are the indications for an occlusal film?
• To determine the buccolingual position of an impacted tooth
• To demonstrate the buccal and lingual cortices, particularly in the mandible
• To visualize the intermaxillary suture
• To demonstrate arch form
• To replace periapical films in young children
An occlusal film also may be used when one wishes to visualize on one film a
lesion that is too large to fit on a single periapical film.
28. What operator error results in a foreshortened image?
Foreshortening results when the vertical angulation of the tube is too great;
that is, the tube is angled too steeply. Elongation, by contrast, results from a
vertical angle that is too shallow. A good way to remember cause and effect is to
think of the sun and your shadow. Your shadow is shortest at noon when the sun
is highest in the sky (a steep vertical angle) and longest in the late afternoon
when the sun is low in the sky (a shallow vertical angle).
29. I s it preferable to err on the side of foreshortening or elongation?
Why?
If one is going to err, it is best to foreshorten. Think again of the sun and
shadows. The short shadows produced by the high-noon sun have crisp, well-
delineated margins, whereas the long shadows produced by the low late-afternoon
sun disappear into the distance with ill-defined mar gins. It is better to have a
foreshortened image that is crisp rather than an elongated image that is difficult
to read. This is particularly true when one is examining the apical area.
30. Which radiographic view is considered the primary view for
evaluating the alveolar bone for periodontal disease? What are the
radiographic manifestations of periodontal disease?
The bitewing view is the primary view for evaluating radiographic changes
consistent with periodontal disease, which include loss of crestal cortication,
changes in the contour of the interdental bone, horizontal and angular bone loss,
and furcation involvement. The bitewing film is superior to a periapical film
because distortion, including elongation or foreshortening, is slight. The reason is
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that the vertical angle is small (approximately 5°), and the central ray is directed
at right angles to the film.
31. Is there a generally accepted protocol for the frequency of
radiographic evaluation in adult dental patients?
Yes. The United States Food and Drug Administration, in cooperation with the
American Dental Association and other major organizations, has developed and
disseminated protocols for exposing dental patients to x-ray examinations. These
protocols require a history and clinical examination before prescribing an
individualized radiographic examination.
32. How should radiographic protocols be altered for pregnant dental
patients?
With the use of standard radiation protection, there should be no additional
risk to the fetus from x-ray exposures commonly used in dentistry. However,
because of the concerns many women have during pregnancy, it is advisable to
limit x-ray exposures to the necessary minimum.
33. 1 n a patient who has trismus and whose teeth you wish to examine,
what alternatives to the standard bitewing and periapical views may be
used?
Intraorally, buccal bitewings can be used. For buccal bitewings, insert a
standard no. 2 film into the buccal vestibule with the tube side facing the teeth.
Direct the cone from the opposite side, and increase the time exposure by two
steps. If the patient can open even slightly, an occlusal view also can be done.
The lateral occlusal film can give an excellent view of the teeth, including the
periapical regions. Extraorally, a lateral oblique film can be obtained. Although it
does not give as detailed information as an occlusal film, the lateral oblique also
depicts the teeth and surrounding periapical regions. A panoramic film has less
resolution than the occlusal film and possibly even less than the lateral oblique
(depending on the screen-film combination). Thus it provides less detail than
either of the two.
34. What are the differences between standard intraoral radiography
(bitewings and periapicals) and panoramic radiography?
1. Bitewing and periapical techniques use direct-exposure film while the
panoramic technique uses intensifying screens.
2. The panoramic view uses a tube movement that results in loss of detail
and resolution.
35. What imaging techniques are available to evaluate the soft tissue
components of the temporomandibular joints (TMJ s)?
Three imaging procedures are available for evaluation of the soft tissue
components of the TMJs: arthrography, computed tomography (CY), and MRI.
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MRI studies are becoming more widely used because they image soft tissue well,
do not employ ionizing radiation, and are noninvasive. Arthrography is the most
invasive and involves the introduction of contrast into one or both joint spaces.
36. Name the paranasal sinuses and the radiographic views commonly
used to evaluate the sinuses.
The paranasal sinuses are the frontal sinuses, the maxillary sinuses, the
spheroid sinuses, and the ethmoid sinuses. The views used to evaluate them are
the Waters view (maxillary sinus), the Caldwell view (maxillary and frontal sinus),
the lateral view (maxillary and frontal sinus), and the submentovertex view
(spheroid and ethmoid sinus). A panoramic film may be used as an adjunct to
these views. The panoramic film shows the maxillary sinus.
The view of choice depends on precisely what is under examination. For
example, the submentovertex view permits excellent visualization of the lateral
wall of the maxillary sinus, whereas the Waters view depicts the medical, lateral,
and inferior borders of the maxillary sinus.
37. What plain film views may be used to visualize the TMJ ?
The transpharyngeal or Parma view provides an image mainly of the lateral
aspect of the condyle. The lateral transcranial view also provides an image mainly
of the lateral aspect of the condyle. Its main purpose is to depict the condyle-
glenoid fossa relationship. The Zimmer or trans- or periorbital view provides a
mediolateral image of the condyle as well as the condylar neck. A reverse Towne
view is useful for visualizing the condylar neck. Keep in mind that tomography
provides better visualization of the TMJ than plain film views. The above views,
however, are relatively easy to take.
38. What are the indications for a panoramic film?
There is no specific indication for the panoramic film. Virtually any structure
that is portrayed on a panoramic film can be displayed by another view, which
often provides greater detail. For example, the panoramic film is often used to
visualize impacted third molars. A lateral oblique view of the jaws provides the
same information with greater detail. A Waters view provides greater information
about the maxillary and other sinuses than a panoramic film.
39. Which intraoral view is best for visualizing the greater palatine
foramina?
The greater palatine foramina cannot be visualized on any intraoral film. On
some maxillary ocelusal films, a foramen can be seen in the area of the second or
third molars. This foramen is the nasolacrimal canal and not the greater palatine
foramen.
40. What are the names of the major salivary glands? How are they
studied radiographically?
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The three major salivary glands are the parotid, submandibular, and
sublingual glands. Because the salivary glands consist of soft tissue, they cannot
be seen on radiographs unless special steps are taken to make them visible. In a
technique called sialography, a radiopaque dye or contrast is injected through the
duct openings into the gland. Iodine is the agent normally used to provide
contrast. Calcifications of the duct may be seen on intraoral films, especially
calcifications of Wharton's duct, the submandibular gland duct. The stones or
sialoliths may be seen on either periapical or more commonly on occlusal films.
41. What are the contraindications to sialography?
As stated above, iodine compounds are normally used as the contrast
medium. It cannot be used, however, in allergic patients. In such patients,
another contrast agent must be used.
42. What are the typical magnifications of radiographs commonly used
in dentistry?
The magnification of periapical and bitewing films is about 4%; of
cephalometric films, about 10%; and of panoramic films, 20—25%.
43. What are the indications for the use of MRI vs. CT?
There is no simple answer to this question. In general, MRI is better for
imaging lesions based in soft tissues— for example, a tumor in the tongue. CT, on
the other hand, provides better images of bone; thus, for an intraosseous tumor,
CT is the technique of choice. Not uncommonly one may want to use both MRI
and CY. For example, when a patient has a tumor in the floor of the mouth, one
may use MRI to determine its extent in the soft tissue and CT to determine
whether there is any bone involvement. For TMJ imaging, MRI is better at imaging
the soft tissue of the disk, but CT is better for almost all other investiagions of the
TMJ.
BASIC RADIOLOGIC INTERPRETIVE CONCEPTS
44. What are the radiographic features of any lesion or area of interest
on the film that always should be defined and recorded?
1. Location of the lesion as exactly as possible
2. Size
3. Shape
4. Appearance of borders
5. Density, with particular attention to whether it is radiolucent, radiopaque,
or mixed
6. Effects of the lesion on adjacent structures
45. Once the radiographic features of the area of interest are
described, what is the first decision to be made about that area?
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The first and most important determination is to decide whether the area is
normal or abnormal. Simple as it may sound, this determination is the biggest
challenge that you will face on a daily basis in clinical practice.
46. What is by far the most likely interpretation of a bilaterally
symmetric radiographic appearance in the jaws?
A bilateral symmetric appearance, with extremely few exceptions, is indicative
of normality. Among the few exceptions to this rule are cherubism and infantile
cortical hyperostosis (Caffey's disease).
47. The location of a lesion may be a clue to its origin. What single
anatomic structure in the mandible is most useful in differentiating
between a lesion of possible odontogenic vs. nonodontogenic origin?
The mandibular or inferior alveolar canal is extremely useful in distinguishing
between a lesion of odontogenic vs. nonodontogenic origin. Because one does not
expect to find odontogenic tissues below the canal, it is most unlikely that lesions
situated below the canal are odontogenic in origin. Indeed, the lesion of
odontogenic origin rarely, if ever, begins below the canal. Of course, any lesion,
including one of odontogenic origin, may begin above the canal and extend below
it.
48. What is the most likely tissue of origin for a tumor in the
mandibular canal?
Because a nerve and a blood vessel run in the canal, the tissue of origin is
most likely to be either neural or vascular, resulting in tumors such as
neurolemmoma, neurofibroma, traumatic neuroma, or hemangioma.
49. What broad categories of possible disease entities need to be
considered in developing a differential diagnosis of any abnormality
noted during a radiographic examination?
• Trauma
• Metabolic, nutritional, and endocrinologic diseases
• Congenital anomalies and abnormalities of growth and development
• Iatrogenic lesions
• Neoplastic diseases (benign and malignant)
• Inflammation and infection
50. What general radiographic features or principles permit the
diagnosis of an underlying systemic cause for a particular condition or
appearance?
When a systemic cause underlies a problem, both the mandible and maxilla
are affected. Furthermore, the jaws are typically affected bilaterally, often
symmetrically. If the condition affects the teeth, one would expect them to be
affected in a bilaterally symmetrical fashion, too.
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51. What technique can be used to determine the tracic of a fistula that
exits on the soft tissue adjacent to the teeth?
Insert a gutta percha point into the fistula, and allow it to track as far as it
can. Obtain a periapical view with the gutta percha point in place.
52. What are the usual radiographic signs of inflammatory disease
involving the paranasal sinuses?
• Mucous membrane thickening • Presence of a soft-tissue mass
• Air-fluid levels • Changes in the cortical margins
• Opacification of a sinus cavity of a sinus
53. What common radiographic signs help to distinguish among a cyst,
benign neoplasm, or malignant neoplasm?
Cysts tend to be radiolucent and round or oval in shape and to have intact
cortical margins. Benign neoplasms are more variable than cysts in density, shape,
and definition of margins. Malignant neoplasms of the jaws tend to be aggressive,
with ragged margins and poor definition of shape and borders. Malignant lesions
often grow quickly, leaving roots of teeth in position and giving the appearance of
roots floating in space. Both cysts and benign neoplasms are more likely than
malignant neoplasms to resorb tooth roots.
54. When should bitewing views first be obtained for the typical child?
The first bitewing views should be obtained after the establishment of
contacts on the posterior teeth.
55. How do primary teeth differ from permanent teeth
radiographically? How does the difference affect the radiographic
evidence of caries in primary teeth?
Primary teeth are smaller and have relatively larger pulp chambers with pulp
horns in closer proximity to the external surface of the crown. The enamel layer is
thinner in dimension. Primary teeth are slightly less opaque on film because of a
higher inorganic content. As a result, caries in primary teeth tends to progress
more rapidly from initial surface demineralization to involvement of the dentin.
Thus careful interpretation is especially important in evaluating the primary
dentition.
56. What is the correlation between the histologic and radiographic
progress of dental caries?
There must be 30—60% loss in mineralization before caries is
radiographically evident with standard D- and E-speed intraoral films. Therefore,
the histologic or clinical progress of a carious lesion is advanced, sometimes
significantly, compared with its radiographic progress.
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57. What is the rule of 3's for radiographic assessment of the
development of permanent teeth?
It takes approximately 3 years for a permanent tooth bud to calcify after
matrix formation is complete, approximately 3 more years for the tooth to erupt
after calcification is complete, and about 3 more years after initial eruption for root
formation to be complete.
58. What is the difference in the progress of pit and fissure caries and
proximal or smooth surface caries on a radiograph?
In smooth surface caries in enamel the base of the triangle is at the surface,
whereas the apex is at the amelodentinal junction. Once smooth surface caries
penetrates, it spreads rapidly along the amelodentinal junction so that the base of
the triangle is now at the amelodentinal junction and the apex is directed towared
the dentin. Pit and fissure caries are not usually visible radiographically until the
caries has reached the dentin. Pit or fissure caries then have a triangular
appearance with the base of the triangle at the amelodentinal junction and the
apex directed toward the deeper surface of the tooth.
ciiitniel
clenlin
Smooth surface caries Pit and fissure caries
59. In pathology of the maxilla, what feature is most useful in
determining whether the pathology arose inside or outside the sinus?
The floor of the sinus is the most useful feature. If the pathology arose inside
the sinus, the floor is intact and in its normal position or perhaps depressed
inferiorly. If the pathology arose outside the sinus, the floor of the sinus is intact
and in its normal position or moved or pushed superiorly. If the sinus floor has
been destroyed, it may not be possible to determine whether the pathology arose
from without or within the sinus.
60. Foramina may be superimposed over the apices of teeth, mimicking
the presence of periapical disease. What radiographic features are most
useful in distinguishing between normal structures and apical
pathology?
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If the lucency is due to the superimposition of a foramen, the periodontal
ligament space and the lamina aura around the tooth are intact. The exposure of
a second radiograph, with the tube in a different position from the first exposure,
also is frequently useful. If the lucency moves relative to the apex of the tooth,
the lucency is not associated with the tooth and is not due to periapical pathology.
This exercise, however, does not rule out the possibility that the lesion is
abnormal; it means merely that the lesion is not related to the tooth.
61. A radiolucency normally surrounds the crown of an unerupted
tooth. What is it called?
The radiolucent area is called the follicle space.
62. is it possible for a patient to be in acute pain as a result of a
periapical abscess, yet to have a completely normal periapical film?
This finding is not unusual because 30—60% of mineralization must be lost
before bone destruction is radiographically evident. In an acute situation, there
frequently has not been sufficient time for this amount of bone destruction to
occur. Thus, the radiographiags behind the clinical picture. The same may be true
in the healing phase. A patient may be improving clinically yet still show
radiographic signs of pathology.
63. is a widened periodontal ligament space at the apex of a tooth
always indicative of pathology?
No. When a radiolucency such as the mental foramen or mandibular canal is
superimposed over the periodontal ligament space, the ligament space appears to
be widened. Such a widening is purely artifactual. The periodontal ligament space
also may appear wider at the neck of a tooth. If the lamina aura is normal in this
area, the widened periodontal ligament space is probably a variant of normal.
64. Can a patient refuse an x-ray examination that is considered
necessary, given signs and symptoms, and sign a release of
responsibility in the chart?
A patient may legally refuse to undergo a radiographic examination. Such
patients probably waive their right to seek damages later if an adverse event
occurs that may have been detected by the radiograph. The patient's decision to
refuse a radiographic examination is a matter of informed consent. The dentist
may not be protected from suit if the record reflects merely that the patient was
told of the need for an x-ray and declined to undergo the examination. The record
should show clearly that the patient was told why the examination was necessary,
what information the dentist needed, and how the lack of that information may
lead to improper diagnosis and/or treatment.
65. What are the radiographic manifestations in the jaws of patients
infected with the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)?
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There are no unique oral or maxillofacial radiographic manifestations of HIV
infection, although infected patients are at a significantly higher risk for aggressive
periodontal disease.
66. What is the efficacy of dental radiographs?
Studies of standard dental radiography (bitewing. periapical, and panoramic
views) show considerable variance in the ability to detect common dental diseases
such as caries, periodontal disease, and apical periodontitis. Radiographs should
not be considered to be perfect, but they are most valuable when combined with a
thorough history and clinical examination.
RADIOGRAPHIC INTERPRETATION
67. What is the earliest radiographic sign of periapical disease of pulpal
origin?
The earliest radiographic sign is widening of the periodontal ligament space
around the apex of the tooth.
68. What is the second most common radiographic sign of periapical
disease of pulpal origin?
The second most common radiographic sign is loss of the lamina aura around
theapexof the tooth.
69. Describe the radiographic differences that allow one to distinguish
among periapical abscess, granuloma, radicular (periapical) cyst, and an
apical surgical scar.
One cannot distinguish among periapical abscess, granuloma, or radicular
(periapical) cyst on radiographic grounds alone. All of these lesions are radiolucent
with well-defined borders. Whereas an abscess may be expected to be less well
corticated than a radicular cyst, this feature is not marked or constant enough to
be of real utility. An apical surgical scar may be radiographically distinguishable
from the other three lesions if there is radiographic evidence of surgery, such as a
retrograde amalgam. Of course, a history should elicit the fact of surgery.
70. How does the radiographic appearance of pulpal pathology that has
extended to in volve the bone differ in primary posterior teeth from the
picture commonly seen in perma nent posterior teeth?
In permanent teeth, widening of the periodontal ligament space is seen
around the apex of the tooth. In primary teeth, by contrast, the infection presents
as widening of the periodontal ligament space or an area of lucency in the
furcation area.
71. Does any radiographic sign permit the diagnosis of a nonvital
tooth?
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It is frequently stated that tooth vitality cannot be determined by radiographs
alone, but this is not so. The presence of a root canal filling in a tooth provides
virtually conclusive proof of its nonvitality, as does the presence of a retrograde
filling, usually amalgam.
72. At times it may be difficult to distinguish between hypercementosis
and condensing or sclerosing osteitis around the apex of a tooth. What
radiographic feature permits a definitive diagnosis when one is
confronted with this dilemma?
If hypercementosis is present, the periodontal ligament space is visible
around the added cementum; that is, the cementum is contained within and is
surrounded by the periodontal ligament space. Condensing osteitis, by contrast, is
situated outside the periodontal ligament space.
73. What is the radiographic sign of an ankylosed tooth?
The radiographic sign of an ankylosed tooth is loss of the periodontal
ligament space and lamina aura.
74. What is the earliest radiographic sign of periodontal disease?
The earliest radiographic sign of periodontal disease is loss of density of the
crestal cortex, which is best seen in the posterior regions. In the anterior part of
the mouth, the alveolar crests lose their pointed appearance and become blunted.
In the posterior areas, the alveolar crests usually meet the lamina aura at right
angles. In the presence of periodontal disease, these angles become rounded.
75. What is the earliest radiographic sign of furcation involvement due
to periodontal disease? In periodontal disease, one may see the loss of a
cortical plate, either the buccal or lingual
plate, on an intraoral film. The plate may be lost so that the crest now
occupies a position apical to the furcation. This appearance, however, does not
permit a diagnosis of furcation involvement. Widening of the periodontal ligament
space in the furcation area is the earliest radiographic sign of furcation
involvement.
76. What is the radiographic differential diagnosis of a radiolucency on
the root of a peri odontally healthy tooth?
Internal resorption, external resorption, and superimposition are the most
common causes. Note that the question refers to a periodontally healthy tooth. If
bone loss has resulted in exposure of the root, caries and abrasion, among other
potential possibilities, enter the picture.
77. How can you distinguish among the above radiolucencies on the
root of a tooth?
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In internal resorption, the canal is widened, whereas it is unaffected in
external resorption. If the resorption began below the bone level, it has to be
internal resorption because, without adjacent bone, there are no osteoclasts in the
area to cause external resorption. Of course, if either internal or external
resorption involves both the canal and other tooth structure, it is not possible to
distinguish between the two conditions. A superimposed radiolucency moves
relative to the root if another view is obtained with the tube in a different position.
The most common such lucencies are normal anatomy, such as foramina, sinus,
mandibular canal, and accessory or nutrient foramina or canals. Artifacts such as
cervical burnout also may produce a lucency on the root at the junction of the
enamel and cementum.
78. What is the radiographic differential diagnosis of a radiolucency on
the crown of a tooth?
Caries, internal resorption, restorations, abrasions, erosions, and enamel
hypophisia are among the more common possibilities. Caries typically have
irregular margins; they may also have typical shapes, such as the triangular
appearance of interproximal caries. Internal resorption has smooth, well-defined
margins. The same is true of radiolucent restorations, which frequently can be
recognized by their shape and sometimes by the presence of an opaque base,
such as calcium hydroxide, lining the floor of the preparation. Abrasions,
particularly at the cervical margins, often have a V-shaped appearance. Other
abrasions, such as those caused by a clasp on a denture, typically have well-
defined borders and straight lines, unlike most naturally occurring phenomena.
Erosions also have well-defined borders, and their shape is typically round or oval.
Hypoplasia usually is not a single lucency on a tooth but rather many small
lucencies.
79. What is the differential diagnosis of a root that appears short on
the radiograph?
A root that appears short may indicate an incompletely formed tooth, which
may be either vital and still developing or nonvital; a short but otherwise normal
root (the root may be congenitally short or underdeveloped because of an
acquired condition such as radiation); root resorption; foreshortening; surgery,
such as apicoectomy; or iatrogenic causes, such as orthodontic treatment. In
certain conditions, such as dentinogenesis imperfecta, the teeth also have short
roots.
80. How can one distinguish among the various possibilities for a
radiographically short- appearing root?
In a normal root, the canal is not radiographically visible to the apex nd
appears to end just before the apex. In the case of a foreshortened normal root,
the canal is not open at the apex. Foreshortening can be distinguished from a
normal short root by the fact that other structures in the radiograph point to the
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steep angulation of the tube. Alternatively, a second filnn can be exposed to
ensure that the correct vertical angle is used. If the root still looks short, it cannot
be due to foreshortening. In teeth with an open apex, the shape of the canal is
important. In a still-developing tooth, the ends of the canal diverge
("blunderbuss"), whereas in resorption the walls of the canal converge. Surgical
intervention is usually easily spotted by the presence of a retrograde amalgam.
The involvement of multiple teeth with short roots points to a condition such as
dentinogenesis imperfecta. A history of orthodontic treatment confirms an
iatrogenic cause.
81. What is the differential diagnosis for teeth with pulps that are
reduced in size?
In dentinogenesis imperfecta all of the teeth are involved. In dentinal
dysplasia all or or only some of the teeth may be involved. Less commonly,
reduced chambers may be seen in amelogenesis imperfecta. Rarely, the cause of
a generalized reduction in pulp size in many teeth may be idiopathic, although
such cases are usually limited to a few teeth. The same is true of small pulp
chambers due to attrition or trauma. Finally, small pulp chambers may be a
variant of normal.
82. What conditions should be considered in a differential diagnosis of
generalized large pulp chambers?
Any condition that results in a disturbance in calcification of the tooth may
result in enlarged pulp chambers, including vitamin D-resistant rickets,
hypophosphatasia, cystinosis, and hypoparathyroidism.
83. What are the radiographic signs of osteomyelitis?
A classic sign of osteomyelitis is a periosteal reaction or periostitis, which is
typically seen in the mandible but rarely, if ever, in the maxilla. The periosteum
lays down bone on its deep aspect, resulting in new bone, known as an
involucrum formation. Cloacae, which are drainage tracts for purulent material,
may be visible on radiographs. Sequestra, which are areas of bone separated from
adjacent bone, are another typical feature.
84. What radiographic features help to differentiate a malignant lesion
from osteomyelitis?
Malignant lesions destroy bone uniformly. In osteomyelitis, areas of
radiographically normal-appearing bone are frequently seen between the areas of
destruction. Sequestra are not present in malignant lesions. The nature of the
periosteal response cannot be used to distinguish between malignancies and
infection, with the possible exception of the sun-ray periosteal reaction described
in osteogenic sarcoma.
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85. What features of a periosteal reaction lielp to differentiate between
infectious periosti tis and a periosteal reaction due to malignant
disease?
A periosteal reaction by itself does not permit a definitive diagnosis of either
an infectious or malignant origin, notwithstanding comments to the contrary.
Although some periosteal reactions are more suggestive than others of a particular
origin (e.g., the sun-burst appearance of osteogenic sarcoma), none is definitive.
86. Both fluid and a soft tissue mass present as opacification of the
maxillary sinus on a Waters view. How can one distinguish
radiographically between the two?
Take a second view with patient's head tilted upward, downward, or laterally
relative to the position for the first Waters view. If the superior border of the
opacity remains the same, one is dealing with soft tissue. If the superior surface
changes, one is dealing with fluid because the fluid level changes when the head
is tilted (like water in a glass). This technique, of course, does not work when
opacification of the sinus is complete. One cannot distinguish between fluid or soft
tissue in the sinus on the basis of the degree of opacity on plain films.
87. Sometimes it is difficult to distinguish a tooth or part of a tooth
embedded in bone from other opacities in the bone or from opacities in
the sinus. What radiographic features are helpful in this predicament?
An opacity surrounded by a thin, relatively uniform radiolucent zone, which in
turn is surrounded by a thin radiopaque line or cortex, is of inestimable value. The
radiolucent zone and cortex provide conclusive proof that the opacity is not in the
sinus. The uniform zone is suggestive of the periodontal ligament space, whereas
the cortex is suggestive of the lamina aura. This general appearance is thus
reminiscent of a tooth. The presence of a canal in the opacity is also useful.
Whether the opacity is in fact tooth depends, among other things, on the density
and uniformity of the opacity as well as on its shape and size. An odontoma, for
example, has the general features of uniform radiolucent zone, surrounded by a
cortex, yet it is a benign tumor. One may not be able to determine with certainty
from a periapical view alone whether an opacity is inside or outside the sinus. A
Waters view helps to clarify the situation.
88. List the radiographic signs of a fractures.
The radiographic signs of a fracture include a demonstrable radiolucent
fracture line, displacement of a bony fragment, disruption in the continuity of the
normal bony contour, and increased density (due to overlap of the adjacent
fragments).
89. What radiographic sign helps to differentiate between a recent
fracture and an older fracture?
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The edges of an older fracture are typically rounded, whereas the edges of a
recent fracture are sharp.
90. What plain film views are of greatest assistance in evaluating the
jaws for fractures?
The Waters view provides the single best plain film view of the maxilla. The
zygomatic arches are best examined with a basal or submentovertex view. A PA
film of the mandible is helpful, as are lateral oblique films. Occlusal views are
useful in both the mandible and maxilla. Periapical films provide the greatest detail
about a fracture if the fracture line traverses an area that a periapical film is able
to cover. A reverse Towne projection shows the condylar necks and condyles, as
does the transorbital or periorbital view.
91. What radiographic features help to differentiate between the
radicular cyst emanating from a maxillary central incisor and the
nasopalatine or incisive canal cyst?
If the lesion crosses the midline, it is far more likely to be a nasopalatiho
intact lamina aura around the teeth is indicative of vital teeth and effectively rules
out a radicular cyst. The presence of large restorations on a central incisor
supports the diagnosis of a radicular cyst, but this feature is overridden by an
intact lamina aura.
92. To what extent do the amount and degree of calcification in a
tumor point to its benign or malignant nature?
Calcification has no significance in predicting the benign or malignant nature
of a tumor. Both benign tumors (e.g., odontomas, adenomotoid odontogenic
tumors, ossifying fibromas) and malignant tumors (e.g., osteogenic sarcoma
produce bone or calcifications. To determine the benign or malignant nature of a
tumor, one must look to other features.
93. Which lesions may present with a soap-bubble or honeycomb
appearance?
Ameloblastoma Giant cell lesions
Keratocyst Hemangioma
Primordial cyst Calcifying epithelial odontogenic tumor
Aneurysmal bone cyst Fibrous dysplasia
Cherubism
94. What are the radiographic features of degenerative joint disease
(DJ D) or osteoarthri tis involving the TMJ s?
The changes of DJD include subchondral sclerosis, flattening of the articular
surfaces of the condyle, and osteophyte formation. Osteophyte formation occurs
in the later stages of the disease process. Small erosions, called Ely cysts, may be
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seen on the articulating surfaces. A narrowing of the joint space is another
common finding. The eminence may be flattened or hollowed and may also show
osteophyte formation.
95. Why is it important to visualize both TMJ s on radiograph even when
a patient has signs and symptoms only on one side?
The unique nature of the TMJs— both are part of a common mandible— often
results in functional symptoms on one side even though the osseous pathology
may be on the other side. Once the decision to radiograph a joint has been made,
both sides should be examined.
96. What common intracranial calcilications may be observed on a
radiographic view of the skull, such as a cephalometric view? What
intracranial calcilications represent pathology and should be further
evaluated?
Physiologic calcifications include those of the pineal gland, choroid plexus,
aura (falx cerebri, tentorium, vault), ligaments (petroclinoid, interclinoid),
habenular commissure, basal ganglia, and dentate nucleus. Pathologic
calcifications include calcifications in tumors (meningioma, craniopharyngioma,
glioma), cysts (dermoid cyst), and infections (parasitic, as in cysticercosis;
tuberculosis).
BIBLIOGRAPHY
1. Christensen EE: Christensen's Introduction to the Physics of Diagnostic
Radiology, 3rd ed. Philadelphia, Lea & Febiger, 1984.
2. Goaz PW, White SC: Oral Radiology Principles and Interpretation, 3rd ed. St.
Louis, Mosby, 1994.
3. Langlais RP, Kasle MJ: Exercises in Oral Radiographic Interpretation, 3rd ed.
Philadelphia, W.B. Saunders, 1992.
4. Som PM, Bergeron RT: Head and Neck Imaging, 2nd ed. St. Louis, Mosby,
1991.
5. Stafne EC, Gibilisco JA: Oral Roentgenographic Diagnosis, 4th ed. Philadelphia,
W.B. Saunders, 1985.
6. Wood NK, Goaz PW: Differential Diagnosis of Oral Lesions. St. Louis, Mosby,
1985.
7. Worth HM: Principles and Practice of Oral Radiologic Interpretation. Chicago,
Year Book, 1963.
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ILLUSTRATIONS
Root. A small, rounded, uniformly opaque structure Is visible in the left
posterior maxilla. The opacity is surrounded by a small, uniform radiolucent
zone, which in turn is surrounded by a thin, uniform radiopaque line or
cortex. The radiopacity is reminiscent of tooth structure, the radiolucent
zone of the periodontal ligament space, and the cortex of the lamina aura.
This radiographic appearance is virtually diagnostic of a tooth— in this case,
a root that remained following extraction of a tooth. The triangular opacity
is a normal structure, the coronoid process of the mandible.
>
Left Radiolucency on root of a tooth. This radiograph shows an example of extemal
resorption. Note the intact canal, eliminating internal resorption as a possible cause. Other
causes of a radiolucency on the root of a tooth include superimposition, caries, abrasion, and
radiolucent restorations.
Right, Tori. Symmetrical opacities are visible in the premolar region of the mandible. The
posterior borders of the opacities are not visible on the films; the anterior borders, however, are
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well defined. The teeth are unaffected by the opacities. The appearance Is due to the presence
of lingual tori. This radiograph Illustrates the principle that bilateral, symmetrical opacities are,
with rare exceptions, normal or variants of normal.
Fistulous tract. The patient presented with a complaint of pain In the
left posterior maxilla. Clinical examination revealed drainage from the
buccal sulcus around tooth no. 15. To determine the origin of the
problem, a gutta percha point was Inserted and a film exposed. Rather
than being purely perl odontal, the problem emanated from the apex of
the meslobuccal root.
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Buccal object rule. The radiographs above illustrate the buccal object rule. Bitewing and
periapical films (A) show an impacted third molar on the left side. For the periapical exposure,
the cone was moved distally in relation to the bitewing view. The impacted third molar moved
mesially, that is, in the opposite direction in which the tube was moved. Applying the principles
of the buccal object rule, we can determine that the impacted third molar lies buccal to the
erupted second molar. The posteroanterior mandibular view (B) confirms this deduction. Note
that in order to apply the rule, one must have a reference object— in this case, the erupted
second molar.
Cherubism. The panoramic radiograph above shows symmetrical,
bilateral, multilocular radiolucent areas in the mandibular ramus. This
is one of the rare exceptions to the general statement that
symmetrical bilateral ap pearances are normal or variants of normal.
The appearance indicates cheru bism. Another exception to the
general statement is infantile cortical hyperostosis or Caffey's
disease.
Pathology arising from within or without the sinus. The periapical radiograph {AJ
shows a dome-shaped opacity situated apical to the area of tooth no. 15. The well-
defined and uncorticated opacity is situated above the sinus floor, which is intact. The
intact sinus floor strongly suggests that the opac ity arose inside the sinus rather than
outside with subsequent invasion of the sinus. The radiographic appearance is consistent
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with a mucous retention phenomenon. The apical view (B) shows a radiolucent area
apical to the root of tooth no. 2. The sinus floor is el evated but intact. This appearance
suggests that the problem originated outside the sinus and is consistent with rarefying
osteitis and a concomitant periostitis, which occurs as the floor of the sinus attempts to
confine the lesion by continually reforming. If the sinus floor is destroyed, it may be
difficult and sometimes impossible to determine whether the lesion arose from within or
without the sinus.
Radicular cyst. The large radiolucency in the right maxilla illustrates a radicular cyst
arising from tooth no. 7. The lucency is well defined and partly corticated, features that
are consistent with a benign lesion. The cortical borders of the sinus and nasal cavity are
intact. Note that the lucency does not cross the midline. Another entity that should
perhaps be considered is an incisive canal or nasopalatine cyst. With rare exceptions,
however, the nasopalatifle cyst crosses the midline.
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Radiolucency on crown of a tooth. The radiographs
illustrate different causes of a radiolucency on the crown
of a tooth. The widened canal of the central incisor fAJ is
an example of internal resorption. B^ With external
resorption in the impacted premolar, the canal is visible
throughout the length of the tooth. The some what curved
radiolucency across the first bicuspid results from abrasion
caused by the clasp of a removable partial denture.
Another example of abrasion due to a denture clasp is
shown in C Erosion, caries, radiolucent restorations, and
enamel hypoplasia also may result in a radiolucency on the
crown of an erupted tooth.
B
.y,-tiMMBt
Fractures and osteomyelitis. The most obvious abnormality is the fracture in the
premolar area of the left mandible {A and B). Also evident is a fracture of the right body
of the mandible. Although single fractures of the mandible do occur, it is highly common
for more than one to be present. Closer examination reveals that the left condyle also
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has sustained a fracture {A and 0- ^ore often than not, unilateral fracture of the condyle
is associated with a fracture of the opposite side of the body of the mandible. Perhaps
the greatest concern to the patient is the presence of osteomyelitis in the right body {A
and D). This case illustrates eloquently a highly specific feature of osteomyelitis: the
more or less rounded opacity surrounded by a radiolucent zone. The rounded opacity,
situated at the inferior cortex, is a sequestrum. A larger, boat-shaped sequestrum is
visible inferior to and partly surrounding the round sequestrum. This panoramic film
illustrates a cardinal point: always examine the entire film. Once you have spotted an
area of interest, be certain to examine the rest of the film. If necessary, cover the
previously examined area so that your attention is not continually drawn to it.
Hypercementosis and condensing osteitis. A^ Enlarged root of tooth no. 29, particularly in
the apical area. The root of tooth no. 28 also shows some widening. The periodontal ligament
space surrounds the tissue that has been laid down, and the lamina aura is visible outside the
periodontal ligament space. 4 An opacity situated outside the periodontal ligament space is
situated. A illustrates hypercementosis, whereas B is an illustration of condensing osteitis.
Extraction soclcets. The appearance of a healing or
healed extraction socket may present a problem. The
sockets shown above have filled with dense bone. In
some cases, such an appearance may be confused
with a root. Features that may be of assistance in
distinguishing between the two include the density of
the socket, the presence or absence of a canal, and
the presence or absence of a periodontal ligament
space. Nonetheless, the diagnosis may be difficult. For
a good discussion and illustration of the problem, see
Worth HM: Principles and Practice of Oral Radiologic Interpretation. Chicago, Year-Book, 1963, pp
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6. PERI ODONTOLOGY
Marks. Obernesser, D.D.S., M.M.Sc.
The Fundamentals of Gums and the Art of Gum Gardening 101:
" ...'tis better to have longer teeth than teeth no longer.."
An anonymous periodontist
" You don't know your players without a program."
The genera of some of the bacteria and the nannes of disease states have
changed. Here is a new "program."
FUNDAMENTALS OF THE PERIODONTIUM
1. What fibers are normally found in a healthy periodontium?
The fibers are described classically in histologic position as the
dentogingival, dentoperiosteal, alveologingival, circular, and transseptal.
2. What is the major blood supply to the periodontal ligament?
Adjacent gingival tissue?
The blood supply to the periodontal ligament derives from arteries and
arterioles within the supporting bone (e.g., inferior alveolar artery) to the socket
and periodontal ligament. Adjacent tissue is supplied by other superficial vessels.
3. What cell type is most frequently found in the periodontal ligament?
The predominant cell type is the fibroblast.
4. What immunologic cells are typically found in the healthy
periodontium?
Immunologic cells typically found in the healthy periodontium include
polymorphonuclear neutrophils (PMNs), mast cells, macrophages, and
lymphocytes. The prevalence of these cell types shifts depending on the disease
state.
5. What is the major macromolecular component of the cementum,
alveolar bone, and periodontal ligament?
Collagen.
CLASSIFICATION AND ETIOLOGY OF PERIODONTAL DISEASES
6. What are the etiologic agents in periodontal disease?
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Contrary to old wives' tales, periodontal disease is not caused by occlusal
trauma, vitamin deficiencies, or hypercholesterolemia. The cause is bacterial
plaque— specifically, gram-negative bacteria.
7. Does the presence of gram.negative bacteria predispose tlie patient
to periodontal disease?
The bacteria are a critical element of the periodontal disease process;
however, the host response to these bacteria is also a major component.
8. What is the chief component of plaque?
Bacteria. Approximately 90—95% of the wet weight of plaque is bacteria.
The other 5—10% consists of a few host cells, an organic matrix, and inorganic
ions.
9. How fast does plaque form?
As a rule of thumb, plaque accumulates in about 24 hours.
10. What are the basic types of plaque? How do they differ in
composition?
The basic types of plaque are supragingival and subgingival. Supragingival
plaque consists mostly of aerobes and facultative bacteria (mostly gram-positive),
whereas subgingival plaque consists mostly of anaerobic bacteria (frequently
gram-negative).
11. What type of plaque is associated with caries?
Naturally the supragingival plaque is associated with caries— predominantly
the gram-positive cocci and rods (the acid producers).
12. What coating is responsible for the adherence of plaque to the
enamel?
The salivary pellicle.
13. What are the basic types of subgingival plaque?
The three basic types of subgingival plaque are hard tissue, soft tissue, and
loose plaque, all of which differ in composition. Hard tissue plaque adheres to the
cementum, dentin, and enamel; soft tissue plaque adheres to the epithelial cells;
and loose plaque floats in-between. Loose plaque has come under a great deal of
investigation because of its possible role in attachment loss. The soft tissue plaque
that adheres to the epithelial lining of the pocket has also sparked interest
because of the potential involvement of the organisms in tissue invasion.
14. What is the major factor in determining the different bacteria in
supragingival and subgingival plaque?
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The major factor is oxygen. The redox potential of the gingival sulcus
greatly influences the bacterial composition.
15. Do cariogenic bacteria promote colonization by periodontal
pathogens?
On the contrary, the cariogenic bacteria tend to inhibit the gram-negative
rods associated with periodontal disease.
16. What is the major mechanism by which cariogenic bacteria inhibit
gram- negative periodontal pathogens?
Gram-positive cariogenic bacteria produce bacteriocins and other substances
that inhibit gram-negative bacterial growth.
17. What is calculus? How is it basically formed?
Calculus is mineralized plaque. It is formed by bathing of the plaque in a
supersaturated solution of Ca and PO saliva.
18. Why is calculus frequently a dark color (e.g., black, brown, gray)?
After the plaque has been solidified to calculus and an inflammatory
response has occurred, localized bleeding ensues. Red blood cells adhere to and
permeate the calculus, hemolysis follows, and the hemoglobinliron colors the
calculus.
19. What terms are used to describe healthy gingiva?
Healthy gingiva have scalloped, knifelike margins and a firm, stippled
texture. In white people they are salmon-pink in color. African-Americans, Indians,
Asians, and Africans frequently have pigmented gingiva. Salmon-pink naturally
does not apply, but the other terms do.
20. What terms are used to describe inflamed gingiva?
The key word is inflammation, and the cardinal signs of inflammation are
calor, rubor, tumor, and dolor. All may apply to inflamed gingiva. The margins are
described as rolled, the gingiva as erythematous and edematous. The stippling is
absent, and the gingiva are frequently described as boggy.
21. What is gingivitis? What bacterial groups are generally associated
with gingivitis?
Gingivitis is inflammation of the gingiva. The bacterial groups associated
with gingivitis are spirochetes, Actinomyces spp. (gram-positive filament), and
Eikenella s\i\i. (gram-negative rod).
22. What other terms are used in the clinical description of gingivitis?
Other terms describe severity (mild, moderale, severe), location (marginal or
diffuse), and presence or absence of ulceration (desquamative), suppuration, and
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hemorrhage. Other terms describing the architecture also may apply, such as
blunting papilla and defting.
23. What term is used to describe HI V gingivitis? IHow does it appear
clinically?
Linear gingival erythema (LGE) is frequently used to describe HIV gingivitis.
As the name implies, the gingival margin has a distinct red band, and the tissue
may bleed easily.
24. 1 s gingivitis a forerunner of periodontitis?
No. Gingivitis is not necessarily a forerunner of periodontitis. Chronic
gingivitis may exist for long periods without advancing to periodontitis.
25. Does periodontitis occur without gingivitis?
To the purist, the answer is yes. This situation may be particularly true in
the case of localized juvenile periodontitis, in which negligible gingival
inflammation may be accompanied by active periodontal disease. However, most
patients with routine adult periodontitis also exhibit gingivitis.
26. What causes the transition from gingivitis to periodontitis?
The exact cause of the progression is most likely multifactorial, including a
pathogenic combination of bacteria and an abnormal host response.
27. What are the histologic characteristics of the initial periodontal
lesion?
Basically vasculitis of the vessels is accompanied by an increase of gingival
exudate from the sulcus. PMNs migrate into the sulcus and junctional epithelium.
The most coronal portion of the junctional epithelium is altered, and some
perivascular collagen is lost.
28. What histologic changes are associated with the early periodontal
lesion?
Many of the changes are a continuation of the initial lesion. PMNs continue
to migrate into the epithelium, and other lymphocytes follow. The collagen
network continues to break down, and the junctional epithelial cells proliferate.
29. What are the histologic features of the established periodontal
lesion?
A key component of the established lesion is the predominance of plasma
cells in the connective tissue with the production of antibodies, continued loss of
connective tissue substance, and proliferation of junctional epithelium with or
without apical migration.
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30. What are the key histologic features of the advanced periodontal
lesion?
Many of the features are similar to the established lesion. The advanced
lesion extends to the periodontal ligament and alveolar bone with pocket
formation and goes through periods of exacerbations and remission. There are
more extensive cellular changes due to inflammation.
31. What are the clinical signs of acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis
(ANUG)?
ANUG is an acute, recurring infection of the gingiva characterized by
necrosis of the papilla (leading to blunting), spontaneous bleeding, pain, and fetor
oris. It has been theorized that the disease is stress-related (e.g., taking the
National Dental Board examinations, practical examina tions, being on death row
at Alcatraz).
32. What bacteria are associated with ANUG?
The bacteria associated with ANUG are a fusospirochetal complex— fusiform
bacteria and spirochetes.
33. What bacteria are associated with gingivitis of pregnancy? Why?
Bacteria associated with gingivitis of pregnancy are the black-pigmenting
Bacteroides spp., which crave steroid hormones for their own metabolism.
Therefore, pregnancy essentially selects for these I Patients who use birth control
pills or receive steroid therapy (chronic autoimmune diseases) are also at risk.
34. What general terms are used to describe periodontitis?
Mild, moderate, and advanced or severe are commonly used. Other terms
may include generalized or localized, refractory, rapidly progressive, adult chronic,
or juvenile.
35. How is periodontitis classified?
The disease is classified according to its severity:
Type I Gingivitis
Type II Mild penodontitis
Type III Moderate periodontitis
Type IV Severe or advanced periodontitis
These categories are based on clinical criteria such as the amount of bone
loss, pocket depth, and mobility.
36. What is the Periodontal Screening Program?
This program was established by the American Academy of Periodontology
and the American Dental Association as a screening method for the general dentist
to evaluate patients' periodontal health. Selected teeth are examined for the
presence or absence of disease.
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37. What term is used to describe IHI V periodontitis?
HIV periodontitis has been updated to necrotizing ulcerative periodontitis. It
involves severe pain, bleeding, rapid loss of bone and soft tissue, exposure of
bone, sequestration, and tooth loss.
38. What bacteria are generally associated with active adult
periodontitis?
The bacteria most frequently cultured from active adult periodontal lesions
include Prophyoromonas gingivalis, Actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans,
Campylobacter recta (Wolinella recta), Fusobacterium nucleatum, Pro vetella
intermedia, Bacteroides forsytlius, Eil<enella corrodens, and Treponema denticola.
39. What are the clinical features of localized juvenile periodontitis?
The periodontal destruction is localized to the first permanent molars and/or
the permanent central incisors. Clinical signs of inflammation are less acute than
would be expected from the severity of destruction. Other features include familial
pattern, paucity of plaque, onset during the circumpubertal period, and
preponderance of >1. actinomycetemcomitansv^hen the sites are cultured.
40. What bacteria are associated with rapidly advancing periodontitis?
P. gin givalis Bacteroides capiilus
P. inter media E. corrode ns
41. What bacteria are associated with refractory periodontitis?
The major infectious agents are B. forsytiius, F. nucleatum, Streptococcus
intermedius, E. corrodens, and P. gingivalis. Although the diseases listed above
have clinically distinct manifestations, many of the same players show up in
cultural studies again and again. When the diagnosis of refractory or rapidly
progressive periodontitis is made, the patient's medical and family history should
be thoroughly investigated. There may be underlying systemic medical problems.
Do not hesitate to use the clinical medical laboratory and to refer the patient for a
complete medical examination.
42. What is the first cellular line of defense of the body against the
periopathogens?
Other than the epithelial cell barrier, the first line of defense is the PMN.
43. Which periodontal diseases may involve bacterial invasion of the
connective tissue?
• Localized juvenile periodontitis (UP)
• Gingivitis
• ANUG
44. What bacteria may be associated with tissue invasion?
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For UP the answer is again A. actinomycetemcomitans. For gingivitis and
ANUG the culprits are spirochetes.
45. 1 n what type of plaque are these organisms frequently cultured?
Because these organisms are associated with tissue invasion, they are most
commonly isolated from soft tissue plaque and loose plaque in a periodontal
pocket.
46. What is meant by a burn-out lesion in a patient with UP?
At one point the patient with UP had an infection with periodontal lesions in
which the chief etiologic agent was A. actinomycetemcomitans. The body responds
with an immunologic response and controls the infection, but the bony defect
remains. The deep pocketing now becomes inhabited with bacterial flora more
characteristic of adult periodontal lesions.
47. What bacteria are associated with HiV-related gingivitis and
periodontitis?
Studies indicate that the bacteria complexes associated with HIV-related
gingivitis (LGE) and periodontitis are similar and include
A.actinomycetemcomitans, P. intermedia, P. gin givaiis, C. recta, and yeasts
(Candida aibicans). A major difference may be the number of C. recta that are
isolated. Concentrations of C. recta tend to be higher in HIV-related periodontitis.
Enteric bacteria also may be isolated.
48. Patients with deep periodontal pockets and heavy deposits of
plaque and calculus may develop an acute periodontal abscess after
scaling. Why?
After scaling and root planing of deep sites the coronal tissue heals
(contracts and reattaches), but there may be infective material below. The process
is analogous to tightening a pursestring.
49. What is a perioendo abscess?
A perioendo abscess is a combined lesion in which periodontal and end
problems occur simultaneously. Symptoms may vary, but as a general rule the
lesion demonstrates radiographic involvement of the periodontium and periapex
with significant probing depths, percussion sensitivity, and pulpal sensitivity.
Treatment may include scaling, root planing, periodontal surgery, and root canal
therapy.
50. What treatment is frequently used for a periodontal abscess?
Initial treatment may consist of the establishment of drainage and the
removal of the etiologic agents (incision and drainage, scaling, root planing,
irrigation), followed first by a course of antibiotic therapy and then by surgical
treatment. Variations exist. Be careful of the endoperio abscess.
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51. When is it safe to treat a pregnant woman's nonacute periodontal
problem?
In general, the second trimester is the window of treatment for most dental
procedures. If antibiotics or other medications are indicated, consult with the
obstetrician and Physicians' Desk Reference.
52. Which periodontal disease most nearly fulfills Koch's postulates?
Koch's postulates state that a pathogenic bacterium causes a disease, that
the disease is transmissible through the bacteria, and that if you eliminate or
control the bacteria, you eliminate the infection. UP, caused by A.
actinomycetemcomitans, most nearly fulfills Koch's postulates.
53. Why do most periodontal infections not fulfill Koch's postulates?
The answer lies in the preceding question. Most periodontal infections may
be described as mixed anaerobic infections.
54. What is the paradox regarding an acute dental abscess?
The paradox basically pertains to bone loss associated with the lesion. An
acute infection may involve rapid, extensive bone loss, but after the infection is
eradicated, the lesion has great potential to heal completely.
55. What bacterial group is associated with root caries?
Root caries may be a problem for patients with gingival recession and
xerostomia (whether induced by drugs, radiation, or some other agent). The
bacteria associated with root caries are gram-positive rods and filaments,
particularly Actinomyces viscosus.
CONCEPT OF DISEASE ACTIVITY
56. What is meant by active destructive disease?
Active destructive disease indicates a loss of periodontal attachment.
57. How is disease activity measured?
Classically disease activity (attachment loss) is measured by using a
periodontal probe and a fixed reference point, such as the cementoenamel
junction (CEJ). The change in the probing depth, excluding any changes in the
gingival height due to inflammation, determines disease activity. Statistically,
disease activity is frequently defined as an attachment loss of 1.5 mm or greater.
A number of different types of probes are used to measure disease activity (e.g.,
Florida probe). Other methods may include subtraction radiography.
58. What is the classic definition of the presence of periodontal
disease?
Radiographic evidence of bone loss.
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59. How is the radiographic evidence of bone loss determined?
In the healthy periodontium, the bone approaches the height of the CEJ. In
the case of periodontal disease, bone resorption has occurred, and the height is
below the CEJ.
60. Which radiographs tend to be most accurate in the determination of
bone loss?
The bitewings because of the parallelism. Vertical bitewings are useful to
assess bone in severe cases.
61. What is bone sounding?
Sounding is used to provide the clinician with additional information about
the amount of bone loss. The area in question is anesthetized, and a probe is
forced through the epithelium until it strikes bone. Sounding may facilitate flap
design.
62. How is periodontal disease activity described?
In the past, periodontal disease was thought to be a slow. Continuous
process. Many of the older texts state that the disease progresses at a rate of 0.1
mm per year, but longitudinal studies have demonstrated otherwise. Current ideas
revolve around the concept of random bursts of disease activity.
63. What is the nonspecific plaque hypothesis?
The hypothesis simply states that it is the quantity and not the quality of the
plaque that causes periodontal disease. The specific plaque hypothesis states the
converse.
64. Which hypothesis is more clinically accurate?
The specific plaque hypothesis. A prime example is UP. Furthermore, a
number of patients may exhibit heavy deposits of bacterial plaque and calculus
with severe gingivitis, yet no bone loss.
65. What is meant by a shift in flora in comparing a healthy or diseased
periodontal site?
The healthy periodontal site is characterized by a preponderance of gram-
positive organisms and fewer gram-negative organisms. In the diseased state the
opposite holds true.
66. What bacteria are associated with active destructive periodontal
disease (adult periodontitis)?
The bacteria associated with destructive periodontal disease include P.
gingivalis, E. corrodens, F. nuc/eatum, C. recta, B. forsythus, and A.
actinomycetemcomjtans. The major player may be P. gingivalis.
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67. What traditional clinical markers (other than a great change in
attachment loss) may be significant in determining active periodontal
disease?
One may think that the classic signs of inflammation (tumor, calor, rubor,
and suppuration) are predictors of pending attachment loss. Data demonstrate the
sensitivity and specificity only of calor (temperature) for predicting attachment
loss. However, it is difficult to leave inflamed gingiva untreated.
68. What two inflammatory mediators may be indicators of disease
activity?
Interleukin l.-beta and tumor necrosis factor alpha may indicate disease
activity.
PERIODONTAL DIAGNOSIS
69. What is periodontal pocketing?
Periodontal pocketing is the measurement from the crest of the gingiva to
the depth of the pocket. Measurements range from < 1—3 mm in the healthy
state (without inflammation).
70. What sites are routinely probed during a thorough periodontal
examination?
Six sites are commonly checked: the mesio-, mid-, and distobuccal sites as
the corresponding lingual/palatal sites. Most periodontists sweep the probe
continuously through the sulcus to get a better feel for the pocket depths as a
whole.
71. What is periodontal pseudopocketing?
Pseudopocketing is a condition in which pocketing occurs without
attachment loss. A classic example is phenytoin (Dilantin) hyperplasia.
72. Which is more important: attachment loss or periodontal
pocketing?
Attachment loss is much more significant because supportive structures are
destroyed. Pocketing may increase or decrease, depending on the severity of
gingival inflammation, without attachment loss. Frequently, extensive attachment
loss and gingival recession, with poor prognosis for the tooth, may be
accompanied by shallow periodontal pocketing.
73. What are the two most significant clinical parameters for the
prognosis of a periodontal ly involved tooth?
The two most significant clinical parameters are mobility and attachment
loss.
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74. What is gingival hypertropliy?
Gingival hypertrophy indicates that the gingivae have increased in size and
not number. Hypertrophy indicates inflammation, whereas hyperplasia may not.
75. Wliat causes gingival recession?
The major causes are tooth brush or floss abrasion, parafunctional habits,
periodontal disease, and orthodontics (if the bands are improperly placed).
76. Which area of the oral cavity has the least amount of attached
gingiva?
The buccal mandibular premolar area commonly has the least amount of
attached tissue.
77. What is a long junctional epithelium?
After a periodontal pocket has been scaled, root planed, and curetted, a soft
tissue reattachment to the root surface may occur. This reattachment is called a
long junctional epithelium. Pocket reduction is due to a gain in attachment, not to
a decrease of inflammation. Fibrous reattachment is also possible.
78. What is the term for gingival cells that attach to the root
cementum? How do they attach to the root?
The term is junctional epithelium; the cells attach by hemidesmisomes.
79. What is a mucogingival defect?
Mucogingival defects are defined by periodontal pocketing that goes beyond
the mucogingival junction.
80. What are the major risk factors for periodontitis?
Major risk factors for periodontal disease include increased age, poor
education, neglect of dental care, previous history of periodontal disease, tobacco
use, and diabetes.
81. Is periodontal disease a risk factor for other disease?
Some epidemiologic evidence indicates that periodontal disease and other
chronic infective diseases may be associated with coronary artery disease and
stroke.
82. What is the crown- to- root ratio in a healthy dentition?
As a general rule, the crown-to-root ratio in a healthy dentition is 1:2 (for
each tooth).
83. What root shapes generally have a more favorable prognosis?
As the preceding question suggests, the crown-to-root ratio is very
important. Long, tapering roots are usually sturdier than short, conical roots.
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84. What is the clinical significance of crown-to-root ratios?
Teeth with poor crown-to-root ratios tend to have a worsened prognosis,
especially if mobility is significant.
85 What is a fenestration?
If you studied the classical languages, you will quickly surmise that
fenestration refers to a window in the bone. Bony fenestrations are frequently
treated surgically with grafts, with or without guided tissue regeneration.
86. What is a bony dehiscence?
A dehiscence is a V-shaped defect in the supporting bone— buccal or lingual
plates. These defects are difficult to treat.
87. What is positive bony architecture?
In the healthy state the bone contours follow the gingival contours, a
pattern that is usually described as scalloping. Negative bony architecture is
another story.
88. What is negative bony architecture?
As described above, the bony architecture usually follows the gingival tissue.
Negative bony architecture denotes intrabony defect(s). Many periodontists
believe hat when osseous surgery is performed, it is necessary to recreate positive
bony architecture, even at the expense of healthy supporting bone. Growing
evidence suggests, however, that the recreation of positive bony architecture does
not improve the periodontal prognosis.
89. What are the basic classifications of bony defects?
Bony defects are generally classified according to the number of bony walls
that remain. For example, a one-wall defect has only one remaining wall of bone,
two-wall defects have two remaining walls, and so on.
90. Which bony defect is most likely to repair or fill naturally after
treatment?
Three-wall periodontal defects are most likely to repair naturally after
therapy.
91. Why are three-wall defects most likely to repair after treatment?
Three-wall defects tend to be narrow, and three walls may contribute
regenerative cells. Two- and one-wall defects lack that luxury.
92. Name the microbiologic methods of assessing bacterial plaque.
There are numerous ways to assess bacterial plaque. General categories
include cultural, microscopic, enzymatic, and genetic methods.
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93. How are furcations classified?
Furcations are classified according to probing. Class I furcations are found at
the onset of probing: class II, approximately halfway into the furcation; and class
III, throughout the furcation.
94. IHow is tooth mobility assessed?
Tooth mobility is important in the development of a prognosis and vital to
treatment planning. Mobility is determined by gently tapping the tooth in a
buccal/Ungual direction with two instruments. Mobility is gauged by the motion
back and forth in millimeters (range: to 3+, also known as "flapping in the
breeze").
95. What periodontal pathology do diabetes, Papillon-LeFevre, and
Chediak-Higashi disease have in common?
With all of these diseases the normal cellular immunologic response is
impaired. The white cells (PMN5) do not function properly. Therefore, patients are
susceptible to periodontal infections. Watch for abscesses.
96. What is gingival crevicular fluid (GCF)?
GCF is an ultrafiltrate of serum. Therefore, it contains many of the
components of serum, particularly complement and antibody. The flow rates of
GCF have been used in attempt to predict disease activity. Furthermore,
investigators have been interested in GCF for other markers of periodontal
breakdown (e.g., beta-glucuronidase, interleukin, collagenase).
97. What enzymatic methods may be used to assess bacterial plaque?
Disease activity?
Some of the enzymatic methods used to assess bacterial plaque associated
with active disease include BANA (benzoyl-arginine-naphthylamide) hydrolysis,
collagenase, and beta glucuronidase.
98. What genetically based techniques are used to assess bacterial
plaque?
Most of these techniques are based on DNA/RNA homologies. DNA/RNA
probes specific for a suspected periodontal pathogen are used to analyze plaque.
Commercial probes are on the market. A chairside probe already in use in Europe
awaits FDA approval for use in the United States.
99. Name the major immunologic techniqt for assessing bacterial
plaque.
The major techniques are fluorescent antibody staining, enzyme-linked
immunosorbent assay (ELISA), and Latex agglutination, all of which may have
high-technology instrumentation applied to them. They are used most commonly
as research tools.
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ADJUNCTIVE PERIODONTAL THERAPY
100. What antibiotics are used frequently to treat a periodontal
abscess?
After the establishment of drainage, whether it be via the sulcus or incision
and drainage (I&D), penicillin or amoxicillin (500 mg every 6 hr) provides
adequate antibiotic coverage.
101. What antibiotics may be well advised for the treatment of adult
periodontitis?
For adult periodontitis, with high concentrations of P. gingivalis, doxycycline
(50—100 mg 2 times/day) provides adequate coverage. P. gingivalis tends to be
more sensitive to doxycycline than to tetracycline.
102. What is the appropriate response to refractory periodontitis?
This is the time to call out the cavalry. Broad-spectrum antibiotic coverage
may be indicated, such as clindamycin (300 mg 3 times/day) or
amoxicillin/clavulanic acid (500 mg every 6 hr) and metronidazole (250 mg 3
times/day). Other combinations exist.
103. How is LJ P treated?
UP has a preponderance of A. actinomycetemcomitans and is sufficiently
treated with tetracycline (250 mg every 6 hr).
104. I n a patient who is allergic to penicillin and erythromycin, what is
the next antibiotic to be used for prophylaxis for a heart murmur?
Clindamycin, 600 mg 1 hour before treatment.
Note: The American Heart Association has recently revised the dosage of
antibiotics re quired for prophylaxis. Refer to chapter 3 (Oral Medicine).
105. Why are third-generation cephalosporins frequently
contraindicated for the treat ment of a periodontal abscess?
Frequently the spectrum of a third-generation cephalosporin becomes so
specific that it does not provide adequate antimicrobial coverage. Penicillins should
be the first choice; erythromycin or clindamycin may be is used in penicillin-allergic
patients.
106. What complication may occur with broad- spectrum antibiotics?
A major problem is the development of pseudomembranous colitis, which is
caused by the overgrowth and toxin production of Clostridium difficle
107. Why are tetracyclines used commonly in the treatment of
periodontal disease?
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Tetracycline is used primarily for antibiotic coverage, but it has advantages
over other antibiotics because it concentrates at levels 2—4 times higher in the
GCF than in the serum, binds to the root surface and can be released over a
prolonged time, prevents bacterial reattachment to the root surface, promotes
reattachment of fibers to the root surface, and inhibits collagenolytic activity.
108. What are some of the common guidelines or precautions that
should be given to a patient in prescribing tetracyclines?
Use of any antibiotic involves the potential to upset the natural bacterial
flora. Gastrointestinal distress, including nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea, is
possible. Women must be advised of the potential of yeast infections. Other side
effects include tinnitus, vertigo, and photosensitivity.
109. Are tetracyclines safe and effective for women who are taking
birth control pills?
In general, a woman who is taking birth control pills should avoid the use of
tetracyclines. Clinical studies have shown that tetracyclines may cause abnormal
breakthrough bleeding during the menstrual cycle.
110. if a patient is not sure whether she is pregnant, should
tetracyclines be used to treat an acute periodontal infection?
Tetracyclines exert their bacteriostatic effect by inhibiting protein synthesis
at the ribosome. They also cross the placenta and inhibit fetal protein synthesis.
Avoid tetracyclines in pregnant patients.
111. What directions should be given to the patient in prescribing oral
tetracyclines?
Tetracyclines should be taken between meals (on an empty stomach) with a
tall glass of water. Foods and antacids containing relatively high concentrations of
calcium and iron should not be taken with tetracycline. Tetracycline acts as a
chelator with these divalent cations, thereby interfering with its own intestinal
absorption. Therapeutic dosages, therefore, are not achieved.
112. What are the major advantages and disadvantages of using
doxycycline or minocycline in the treatment of periodontal disease?
The spectrum of doxycycline and minocycline may be slightly better,
particularly in covering P. gingivalis. Other advantages include less
photosensitivity, less chelating, and better patient compliance. Because both
antibiotics are more fat-soluble, the dose is reduced to 50 or 100 mg 2 times/day.
A big disadvantage is cost. Doxycycline and minocycline are much more expensive.
113. What is the major problem with the use of metronidazole?
When prescribing metronidazole, you should advise patients that they must
refrain from alcohol or they may become violently ill from the combination
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(Antabuse effect). Patients should always be advised not to mix any medicine with
alcohol.
114. Why is metronidazole effective in treating a periodontal infection?
Metronidazole is most effective in areas of low redox potential, making it ideal for
the treatment of anaerobic infections. It is also effective in treating Montezuma's
revenge that is caused by a parasite.
115. What is localized drug delivery? How does it apply to periodontal
therapy?
Localized drug delivery is being developed to deliver the drug directly to the
site of intended use— the periodontal sulcus. The great advantage of such systems
is that because they are local, systemic side effects are almost nil. The best
studied system involves a tetracycline fiber, but other systems exist. This method
is the wave of the future with antibiotics, antiinflammatory drugs, and growth
factors.
116. How do localized delivery systems work?
One of the most popular localized drug delivery systems is for tetracycline.
Basically the tetracycline is impregnated into an ethyl vinyl acetate strip. The
fiber/strip is placed into the sulcus and secured into position. The fiber slowly
releases the antibiotic into the sulcus, eradicating the bacteria. The fiber should be
in place for 7—10 days, depending on the system used.
117. What preparation is required before placement of the fiber?
The teeth should be thoroughly scaled, root planed, and polished before
fiber placement.
118. What pathway do nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)
block?
NSAIDs block the cyclooxygenase metabolism of arachidonic acids.
119. Which mouth rinse appears to be most effective in the control of
bacterial plaque?
Chlorhexidine gluconate is the most effective oral rinse for controlling
bacterial plaque, particularly because it leaves the greatest residual concentration
in the mouth after use.
120. What is sanguinaria? How is it used?
Sanguinaria, an extract from the blood root plant that exhibits antimicrobial
properties, has been formulated into various dentifrices and mouthwashes. A
major problem with sanguinaria is that it is easily washed from the oral cavity so
that the antimicrobial effects are short-lived.
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121. What is triclosan? How does it woric?
Triclosan is a compound that has broad-spectrum antimicrobial properties.
Therefore, it is effective against many of the gram-positive and gram-negative
organisms involved with oral disease. Triclosan has recently been approved for use
in dentifrices.
122. IHIV- positive patients frequently manifest a condition called hairy
leukoplakia in their oral cavity. What microbe is commonly associated
with hairy leukoplakia? What is the treatment for this condition?
Candida albicans (yeast) is frequently associated with hairy leukoplakia and
should be treated with antifungal medication, including nystatin or fluconazole.
Chlorhexidine rinses should be included, because chlorhexidine is also effective
against C. aibicans.
123. What is the primary symptom of root sensitivity?
In general, the primary symptom is sensitivity to cold.
124. What is the cause of root sensitivity?
Root sensitivity is believed to be caused by the movement of fluid in the
dentinal tubules, which stimulates the pain sensation (the hydrodynamic theory).
125. What factors may contribute significantly to dentinal sensitivity?
Tooth brush abrasion, periodontal and orthodontic treatment, gingival
recession, acidic foods, and bruxism.
126. How is root sensitivity treated?
Treatment of root sensitivity usually involves seal-coating of the root.
Substances routinely used are fluoride mouth rinses, fluoride toothpastes,
desensitizing toothpaste, application of composite monomer, and iontophoresis.
127. How do root desensitizers work?
A number of methods are used, including protein precipitants (e.g.,
strontium chloride), dentinal tubule blockers (e.g., fluorides, oxalates), nerve
desensitizers (potassium nitrate), and physical agents such as burnishing the root,
composites, monomers, and resins.
128. What is iontophoresis? How is it used in periodontics?
Iontophoresis is analogous to electroplating. In periodontics it is used to
treat dentinal sensitivity by electroplating fluoride to the root surface.
129. What new method is being tested to treat root sensitivity?
Investigators are testing the efficacy of lasers to seal the dentinal tubules.
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OCCLUSAL TREATMENT
130. What is the role of occlusion in periodontal disease?
As a primary player, occlusion has little significance in the etiology of
periodontal disease, but it may act as a contributing factor.
131. What are primary and secondary occlusal trauma?
Primary occlusal trauma refers to excessive force applied to a tooth or teeth
with normal supporting structures. Secondary occlusal trauma refers to excessive
force applied to a tooth or teeth with inadequate support (periodontal disease).
132. What is fremitus?
Fremitus is occlusal trauma associated with centric occlusion and may
indicate a slight occlusal discrepancy. On examination the patient is asked to open
slightly and tap gently. The examiner checks for minor tooth movement on
tapping. This technique is used mostly for the maxilla.
133. When is a nightguard indicated?
A nightguard is indicated whenever the signs or symptoms of bruxism occur.
134. What are the clinical signs of bruxism?
Signs of bruxism may include faceting, temporomandibular joint (TMJ)
symptoms, masticatory muscle soreness, fractured teeth or restorations, and
widened periodontal ligament spaces (on radiographs). These signs may occur in
various combinations.
135. What criteria should be followed in constructing a nightguard for
the treatment of bruxism?
A nightguard should have four characteristics: (1) it should be made of hard
acrylic; (2) it should snap gently over the occlusal surfaces of the maxillary teeth;
(3) it should occlude evenly with the mandibular teeth; and (4) it should have
even contacts in excursion and be comfortable so that the patient will wear it.
136. When should the splinting of teeth be considered?
Splinting of teeth is performed basically for patient comfort. Little evidence
suggests that splinting improves the prognosis of periodontal mobile teeth. In fact,
it may worsen the prognosis by limiting oral hygiene access.
137. What types of splints may be fabricated?
A wide range of splints may be provided from the simple to the elaborate.
Examples in elude interproximal application of composite, composite with mesh
reinforcement, Maryland bridge, and other fixed prostheses.
138. What do widened periodontal ligament spaces indicate?
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Widened periodontal ligament spaces are indicative of occlusal traumatism
(no underlying medical problems).
139. What situation may be considered to be controlled occlusal
trauma?
Orthodontic tooth movement may be considered to be controlled occlusal
trauma.
NONSURGICAL TREATMENT OF PERIODONTAL DISEASE
140. What is scaling? Root planing? Curettage?
Scaling is the removal of hard and soft deposits (plaque and calculus) from
tooth surfaces. Root planing is the smoothing of the root surfaces with a scaler or
cures. The objective of root planing is to remove additional deposits as well as
affected cementum in an attempt to achieve soft-tissue attachment. Curettage is
the removal of the lining of the periodontal pocket. This procedure is frequently
performed with root planing to promote soft tissue attachment.
141. What is the treatment routinely used for ANUG?
Ti consists of debndement (scaling and root planing) with an antibiotic.
Penicillin V/K, 260—500 mg 4 times/day for 7 days, should be sufficient. Pain
relievers are prescribed if needed. Instructions for oral hygiene should be stressed.
142. What is the treatment for acute suppurating gingivitis?
The treatment is the same as that for ANUG. If the patient does not
respond, you may consider changing the antibiotic. If the second antibiotic does
not work, you may want to examine systemic factors; for example, diabetics are
prone to this type of periodontal problem.
143. What is nonsurgical therapy for periodontal disease?
Nonsurgical treatment is centered on maintenance. Scaling and root planing
are performed at greater frequency than in a normal recall schedule.
144. What is an appropriate interval for maintenance appointments for
a patient treated nonsurgical ly?
Initially it is best to see the patient at 3— 4-month intervals so that oral
hygiene and disease progression may be assessed.
145. What is the Keyes technique?
The Keyes technique is a method of assessing bacterial plaque via
microscopic means (wetmount slides) and correlating periodontal infection,
particularly the numbers of spirochetes and motile rods. This technique was in
vogue during the past 10—20 years, but in the author's opinion additional
validation studies are required.
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SURGICAL TREATMENT OF PERIODONTAL DISEASE
146. What are the advantages of periodontal surgery over nonsurgical
treatment?
The most important reason for performing periodontal surgery is access. It
gives you the opportunity to visualize the roots so that calculus may be removed
more completely.
147. What are additional objectives of periodontal surgery?
Other objectives include pocket reduction and promotion of gingival
reattachment.
148. Name the major complications that may be associated with
periodontal surgery.
With any form of surgery, you run the risk of pain, fever, swelling, infection,
and bleeding. In addition, other problems that may occur include gingival
recession, root caries, and root sensitivity.
149. When is gingivectomy indicated?
Gingivectomies are indicated when there are copious amounts of attached
tissue and no intrabony defects. The most common application is treatment of
drug-induced hyperplasia.
150. What drugs may cause gingival hyperplasia?
Common causative drugs include phenytoin, nifedipine, and cyclosporine A.
These med ications stimulate proliferation of gingival fibroblasts, causing an
overgrowth of the gingiva. Other drugs that may cause gingival hyperplasia
include calcium channel blockers (verapamil, felodipine, nisoldipine, diltiazem,
amiodipine), antiepileptics (lamotrigine and mephenytoin), the immunosuppressive
mycophenolate, the antidepressant sertraline, the antipsychotic pimozide, and
interferon alpha beta.
151. How may pocket depth be indicated before performing a
gingivectomy?
After the tissue has been anesthetized, a probe may be inserted to the
depth of the pocket, and a second probe may be used to perforate the gingiva at
that depth, creating a bleeding point (Black procedure). A series of bleeding points
provides a guide for the amount to tissue to be excised. Connect the dots!
152. What instruments are commonly used to perform a gingivectomy?
Instruments may include the Buck and Kirkland knives, side-cutting
rongeurs, electrosurgery apparatus, and laser.
153. What is a modified Widman flap?
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A Widman flap is also known as open or flap curettage. Sulcular or
submarginal incisions are made initially, and full-thickness flaps are elevated for
debridement, scaling, and root planing. Flaps are then closed with sutures.
154. What is a full-thickness periodontal flap? A partial-thickness
periodontal flap?
After the incision is made, a full-thickness flap involves elevation of the
entire soft tissue, whereas a partial-thickness flap involves the splitting (dissection)
of the gingival flap, leaving the periosteum adherent to the bone.
155. Why are inverse bevel incisions frequently used in flap surgery?
Inverse bevel incisions facilitate degranulation by thinning the flap.
Furthermore, the thinning of the flap may promote reattachment of the gingiva to
the root by placing connective tissue elements against the root when the flap is
closed.
156. What is an apically positioned flap? When is it most frequently
performed?
The definition is in the name. After the flap has been elevated and the
necessary treatment has been performed, the gingiva is positioned at the crest of
bone. This procedure is most frequently performed after osseous surgery (e.g.,
positive architecture, crown lengthening) and usually requires vertical releasing
components.
157. What is osteoplasty? What is ostectomy?
Osteoplasty is the reshaping or recontouring of nonsupportive bone. An
example is the recontouring and ramping of interproximal bone. Ostectomy is the
removal of supporting bone. This procedure is usually performed to create positive
architecture or to increase the clinical crown length.
158. What is cementoplasty? Where is it commonly applied?
Cementoplasty is the reshaping and smoothing of the root cementum. Teeth
with developmental grooves in the roots, such as the premolars and maxillary
lateral incisors, may develop localized periodontal defects as bacterial plaque and
calculus run apically down the groove.
159. When is a crown- lengthening procedure indicated?
The procedure is indicated whenever clinical crown length is inadequate for
the restoration. A general rule of thumb for a crown preparation is that you should
have 4 mm between the margin of the preparation and the crest of bone to ensure
adequate crown length. This measurement maintains a proper biologic width.
160. How are furcations routinely treated?
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Formerly, as soon as a furcation became evident on the radiograph, the
treatment was tincture of cold steel, better known as extraction. The treatment of
furcations varies, depending on the type and the tooth. Treatment may range
from simple management with scaling, root planing, and curettage to tissue-
guided regeneration with bone-grafting material.
161. What is a distal wedge procedure? Where is it commonly found
clinically?
As the name implies, in the distal wedge procedure a block of tissue is
removed from the distal aspect of a tooth to reduce the pocket depth. Distal
wedge procedures are frequently the sequel to the extraction of a third molar.
After the third molar is extracted, the bone fill is poor, leaving a periodontal
defect.
162. What is a palatal/ lingual curtain procedure? Where is it frequently
used? Why?
The palatal/lingual curtain procedure is a surgical procedure commonly
carried out in treating the maxillary anterior teeth. Deep, interproximal buccal
incisions are made to free the palatal tissue; the buccal flap is not elevated. After
the palatal/lingual flap is elevated, debridement, scaling, and root planing are
carried out from the palatal. The rationale behind this procedure is to maintain the
buccal gingival architecture to minimize esthetic changes.
163. What is crestal anticipation?
This term is commonly used to describe flap design when surgery is
performed, particularly when it is extremely difficult to position the gingival flap
apically at the crest of bone. (In palatal and lingual gingiva, vertical releasing
incisions are difficult or contraindicated.) Basically an inverse bevel gingivectomy
to the crest is carried out.
164. When is a root amputation indicated?
Obviously the procedure applies only to multirooted teeth. In general, a root
amputation may be performed when periodontal involvement of a single root is
severe. Endodontic and prosthetic considerations also must be taken into account.
165. Which teeth are most frequently involved in root amputation
procedures?
The requirement of multirooted teeth limits the number of candidates. A
vast majority of root amputations involve the maxillary first and second molars.
166. Why are the maxillary first and second molars frequent candidates
for root amputation?
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Because of the convergence of the distobuccal root of the first molar and
the mesiobuccal root of the second molar as the roots move apically, the first and
second molars are commonly involved periodontal sites.
167. What are the major advantages of using a laser for periodontal
procedures?
There are two major advantages of using a laser for periodontal surgery: (1)
the incision is sterile, and (2) the laser cauterizes blood vessels during the
procedure. It also has been reported that the postoperative period is less painful
because of the desensitization of nerve endings.
168. Why may it be advantageous to use combination therapy
(antibiotic and NSAI D) in the treatment of periodontal disease?
Combination therapy attempts to kill two birds with one stone. It not only
eliminates the etiologic agent but also attempts to control the resultant
inflammation (hopefully to prevent bone loss).
169. What surgical procedure is performed as adjunctive therapy for orthodontic
tooth rotation? How successful is it?
Routinely a fiberotomy is performed to prevent relapse of the tooth rotation.
In general, a fiberotomy is not enough. The rotated tooth still requires some type
of stabilization.
170. What medications may affect salivary flow? How may they affect
periodontal health?
Many medicines may influence salivary flow. Prime suspects are tricyclic
antidepressants and antihypertensives. Decreased salivary flow diminishes the
natural cleansing of the oral cavity, thus increasing the incidence of periodontal
disease and caries. Watch for both supra- and subgingival root caries.
GINGIVAL AUGMENTATION AND MUCOGINGIVAL SURGERY
171. When should a soft-tissue graft be considered as an appropriate
treatment of gingival recession?
A soft tissue graft should be considered as soon as the mucogingival
junction has been breached (i.e., probing extends beyond the mucogingival
junction). Other factors also need consideration, such as location, frenum
attachment, root sensitivity, root caries, and required restoration.
172. What is a free gingival graft? What other type of graft procedures
may be used?
In a free gingival graft a section of attached gingiva is harvested from an
area of the mouth. Routinely the hard palate is used, but any area with sufficient
attached gingiva is appropriate. The graft is then sutured to the recipient site.
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other grafting procedures include the pedicle or lateral sliding flap, in which the
graft is lifted from an area adjacent to the recipient site but not completely freed.
This procedure maintains vascular supply to the graft.
173. How is bleeding controlled after the palate has been used as the
donor site for a free gingival graft?
There are a number of ways to control bleeding at the donor site, including
(1) pressure with a moistened gauze, (2) pressure with a tea bag, (3)
vasoconstriction (epinephrine in the local anesthetic), (4) suturing (tie off the
bleeders), (5) collagen with or without stent, (6) topical thrombin, and (7)
chemical electrical cautery. If bleeding continues, it may not be a bad idea to
assess prothrombin time (PT), partial thromboplastin time (PYF), and platelet
count.
174. What is the primary reason for failure of a free gingival graft?
The chief reason that a free gingival graft fails is disruption of the vascular
supply before engraftment. The second most common reason is infection.
175. What is meant by necrotic slough of a free gingival graft?
After a free gingival graft has been placed, the healing involves
revascularization of the graft. The superficial layers of the graft are the last to be
revascularized; therefore, the layer dies off, producing a necrotic slough. Pedicle
grafts take their vascular supply with them; hence, no necrotic slough.
179. What type of flap is used at the recipient site of a free gingival
graft? Why?
Partial-thickness flaps are used so that the periosteum remains attached to
the bone. The reason is that the periosteum is the blood supply for the graft.
176. Why is the bone/ periosteum scored during a grafting procedure?
The bone is frequently scored during a free gingival graft to prevent the ma
of the graft. In other words, it helps to prevent the mucosa from covering over the
graft. Additional methods to prevent this problem include suturing the base
(apical) portion of the graft to the mucosa and tacking the mucosa to the
periosteum.
177. Why is it difficult to place a free gingival graft in the buccal area of
the mandibular premolars?
This procedure can be especially problematic when extensive recession has
caused a mucogingival defect. The problem lies in the fact that you may encroach
on the mental nerve/vascular bundle with the graft and cause problems with these
structures.
178. When is a frenectomy indicated?
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In general, frenectomy is indicated whenever a frenum is causing a
problem. For example, a high attachment of a frenum may cause the crestal
gingiva to pull away during phonation (ankyloglossia) and mastication, thus
opening the pocket for food impaction. This situation frequently arises in the
premolar areas.
179. What procedure may be performed in conjunction with a
frenectomy to prevent recurrence?
A frenum also may cause a problem in the area between the maxillary
central incisors, thus contributing to a diastema. The fibers of the frenum cross
the height of the maxilla to the incisive papilla. The papilla may blanch when the
frenum is pulled. A free gingival graft is pdrformed in conjunction with the
frenectomy to prevent recurrence of fiber attachment to the papilla.
180. What other material has recently been developed for soft tissue
grafting?
Freeze-dried allograft acellular human dermis.
181. What are the advantages of using allograft dermis?
The great advantage is that no donor graft is required. Thus the discomfort,
bleeding, and infection associated with harvesting of tissue are avoided. In
addition, the supply is potentially unlimited.
182. What are the disadvantages of using allograft dermis?
The two major disadvantages are acceptance and compliance. Some
patients refuse to have any substance placed in their body from a cadaver source.
In addition, after the allograft dermis has been placed, patients are advised not to
brush their teeth with toothpaste but to rinse only for 7—10 days. The paste may
inhibit engraftment.
183. What is a push- back procedure? Why was it used?
A push-back procedure was performed ona larger area of attached gingiva.
As the name implies, an incision was made at the mucogingival junction, and the
mucosa was pushed back, leaving exposed bone. Ouch! The area eventually
granulated inward, followed by attached gingiva. Needless to say, the patient
never spoke to you again because of the severe postoperative pain. As the
question implies, this procedure is no longer in use.
REGENERATIVE PROCEDURES
184. What are the basic types of bone-grafting materials used in the
treatment of periodon tal defects?
Grafts may be broken down into three fundamental categories: (1)
autografts (intraoral and extraoral), (2) allografts, and (3) alloplasts. The
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autografts may be harvested from the patients hip and rib (extraoral) or from a
healing extraction socl<et, the chin, maxillary tuberosity, or retromolar areas
(intraoral). Allografts consist of freeze-dried bone and freeze-dried decalcified
bone from another source (usually cadaver bone). Alloplasts are synthetic
materials; the most commonly used are tricalcium phosphate, calcium carbonate,
and hydroxyapatite.
185. What is bone/ blood coagulum? Where is it used?
Bone/blood coagtilum is another type of grafting material, normally obtained
with a chisel or file during osseous surgery. The bone/blood shavings are collected
and then packed into the defect in an attempt to promote new bone formation.
Because the bone is predominantly cortical, the results are not predictable.
186. What is bone swagging?
Swagging is the bending and breaking of the bony walls into the periodontal
defect. It, too, has poor predictability and is not used with great frequency.
187. When should an intraoral autograft from an extraction site be
harvested?
As a general guideline, the intraoral autograft should be harvested 6—8
weeks after extraction. This gives the extraction site enough time to become
organized with osteogenic components.
188. Which bone-grafting material has the greatest osteogenic
potential with the fewest Sequelae in periodontal applications?
Osteogenic potential and sequelae are optimal with freeze-dried allografts
(cadaver bone).
189. What sequelae may occur with autogenous bone grafts?
Possible sequelae include graft rejection, root resorption, and ankylosis.
190. What are connective tissue grafts? Where are they applied?
Connective tissue grafts are commonly used to augment a site that is now
concave.
191. What sites are commonly used to harvest connective tissue for
grafting?
Common sites include the hard palate, maxillary tuberosity, and retromolar
area.
192. What growth factors may potentially be used to stimulate osseous
regeneration?
The purpose of this question is to inform you of one of the new hot spots in
periodontal research. Some day, after the etiologic agents have been removed and
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the inflammation is under control, growth factors may be applied to regenerate
the periodontium. Three growth factors that appear to have a great deal of
potential are bone morphogenic protein, platelet-derived growth factor, and
insulinlike growth factor. Surely others will emerge.
193. What is guided tissue regeneration (GTR)? Where is it most
successful?
GTR involves the placement of a membrane (usually Gore-Tex) over a bony
defect during periodontal surgery. A second surgical procedure is needed 6—8
weeks after initial surgery to retrieve the membrane. Defects amenable to this
type of treatment are shallow furcations and narrow intrabony defects. GTR also
may be applied to ridge augmentation procedures. A resorbable membrane is now
commercially available. Therefore, no second surgery is needed to remove the
membrane.
194. What is the purpose of the membrane?
The membrane prevents apical migration of the epithelium, which causes
repocketing and prevents bone regeneration.
195. What surgical techniques may be used for ridge augmentation?
Common techniques use GTR membrane fixation or titanium mesh. In both
cases, autogenous and/or allograft bone is placed and secured with these
materials.
196. What are the indications for ridge augmentation?
Basically it is used whenever more bony mass is indicated. Examples inc
future placement of an implant and filling a concavity after tooth extraction for
esthetic reasons. More extensive augmentation is indicated when the bone
becomes too atrophic for a prosthesis.
197. What are the two basic types of implant placement?
The two basic types of implant placement are submerged and
nonsubmerged. Submerged implants require a second surgical procedure to
uncover the fixture.
198. What is osseointegration?
Osseointeg ration is the same as ankylosis.
199. What bacteria are associated with periimplantitis?
Many of the same species associated with periimplantitis are also associated
with adult periodontitis, including A. actinomycetemcomitans, P. gingivalis, and
P.intermedia. Other species frequently detected by cultural methods are
Capnocytophaga species, C. recta, and £ corrodens.
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200. How are implants maintained?
Implants require maintenance, much lil<e crowns and bridges and natural
teeth. The same principle holds true: cleanliness is next to godliness. Implant
systems may have different instruments associated with their maintenance. The
instruments are usually plastic-tipped so that the surface of the implant is not
scratched. Floss, superflpss, and braided floss are also handy.
BIBLIOGRAPHY
Classification of Periodontal Diseases and Etiologies
1. Haffajee AD, Socransky SS, Dzink JL, et al: Clinical, microbiological and
immunological features of subjects with refractory periodontal diseases. J
Clin Periodontol 15:390, 1988.
2. Kornman KS, Loesche WJ: Effects of estradiol and progesterone on
Bacteroides melaningogenicus and Bacteroides gingivalis. Infect Immun
35:256-263, 1982.
3. Listgarten MA: The role of dental plaque in gingivitis and periodontitis. J Clin
Periodoritol 15:485-487,1988.
4. Mandell ID, Gaffar A: Calculus revisited. J Clin Periodontal 13:249—257,
1986.
5. Moore WEC, Moore LH, Ranney RR, et al: The microflora of periodontal sites
showing active progression. J Clin Periodontol 18:729—739, 1991.
6. Newman MN, Socransky SS: Predominant microbiota of penodontosis. J
Periodontol Res 12:120—128, 1977.
7. Sooriyamoorthy M, Gower DB: Hormonal influences on gingival tissue:
Relationship to periodontal disease. J Clin Periodontol 16:201—208,
1989.
8. Tanner ACR, Haffer C, Brathall GT, et a!: A study of the bacteria associated
with advancing periodontitis in man. J Clin Periodontol 6:278, 1979.
9. Zambon JJ, Reynolds HS, Genco RJ: Studies of the subgingival microflora in
patients with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome. J Clin Periodontol
61:699-704, 1990.
Concept of Disease Activity
10. Jandinski JJ, Stashenko P. Feder LS, et a!: Localization of interleukin I-beta
in human periodontal tissue. J Penodontol 62:36—43, 1991.
11. Lindhe J, Haffajee AD, Socransky SS: The progression of periodontal
disease in the absence of periodontal therapy. J Clin Periodontol
10:433-442, 1983.
12. Rossomando EF, Kennedy JE, Handjmichael J: Tumor necrosis factor alpha
in gingival crevicular fluid as a possible indicator of periodontal disease in
humans. Arch Oral Biol 35:431-434, 1990.
13. Socransky SS, Haffajee AD, Goodson JM, Lindhe J: New concepts of
destructive periodontal disease. J Clin Periodontol 11:21—32, 1984.
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Periodontal Diagnosis
14. Cochran DL: Bacteriological monitoring of periodontal disease: Cultural,
enzymatic, immunological, and nucleic acid studies. Cun Opin Dent 1:37-
44, 1991.
15. Goultschin J, Cohen HDS, Donchin M, et al: Association of smoking with
periodontal treatment needs. J Periodontol 6 1:364-367, 1990.
16. Grbic IT, Lamster IB, Celenti RS, Fine JB: Risk indicators for future clinical
attachment loss in adult penodontitis: Patient variables. J Periodontol
62:322-329, 1991.
17. Savitt ED, Keville MW, Peros WJ: DNA probes in the diagnosis of
periodontal microorganisms. Arch Oral Biol 35(Suppl):153S— 159S, 1990.
18. Schlossman M, Knowler WC, Pettitt DT, Genco Ri: Type 2 diabetes mellitus
and periodontal disease. J Am Dent Assoc 121:532—536, 1990.
Adjunctive Periodontal Therapy
19. Bonesville P: Oral pharmacology of chlorhexidine. J Clin Periodontol 4:49—
65, 1977.
20. Ciancio SA: Antibiotics in periodontal care. In Newman MG, Kornman KS
(eds): Antibiotic/Antimicrobial Use in Dental Practice. Carol Stream, IL,
Quintessence, 1990, pp 136—147.
21. Goodson JM: Drug delivery. In Perspectives on Oral Antimicrobial
Therapeutics. Chicago, American Academy of Periodontology, 1987, pp 6
1-78.
22. Southard GL, Boulware RT, Walborn DR, et al: Sanguinarine: A new
antiplaque agent. Compend Cont Educ Dent 5(Suppl):72— 75, 1984.
23. Williams RC: Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs in periodontal disease.
In Lewis AJ, Furst DE (eds): Non-steroidal Anti-inflammatory Drugs. New
York, Marcel Dekker, 1987, pp 143—155.
Nonsurgical Treatment of Periodontal Disease
24. Drisko CL, Killoy WJ: Scaling and root planing: Removal of calculus and
subgingival organisms. CurrOpin Dent 1:74—80, 1991.
25. Hirshfeld L, Wasserman B: A long term survey of tooth loss in 600 treated
periodontal patients. J Periodontol 49:225—237, 1978.
26. Pihistrom B, McHugh RB, Oliphant TH, Ortiz-Campos C: Comparison of
surgical and non-surgical treatment of periodontal disease. J Clin
Periodontol 10:524—541, 1983.
Surgical Treatment of Periodontal Disease
27. Becker BE, Becker W, Caffesse R, et al: Three modalities of periodontal
therapy: 5-year final results. J Dent Res 69:2 19, 1990.
28. Kalkwarf KL: Surgical treatment of periodoptal diseases: Access flaps, bone
resection techniques, root preparation, and flap closure. Cun Opin Dent
1:87-92, 1991.
29. Ramfjord SP, Morrison EC, Kerry GJ, et al: Four modalities of periodontal
treatment compared over five years. J Clin Periodontol 14:445—452,
1987.
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30. Ramfjord SP, Nissle RR, Shick RR, Cooper H: Subgingival curettage versus
surgical elimination of periodontal pockets. J Periodontol 39:167—175,
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31. Robertson PB: The residual calculus paradox. J Periodontol 61:65—66,
1990.
32. Tarnow DP, Fletcher P: Root resection vs. maintenance of furcated molars.
NY State Dent J 55:34, 36,39, 1989.
Gingival Augmentation and Mucogingival Surgery
33. Allen EP: Use of mucogingival surgery to enhance esthetics. Dent Clin North
Am 32:307-330, 1988.
34. Lang NP, Loe H: The relationship between the width of keratinized gingiva
and gingival health. J Penodontol 43:623—627, 1972.
35. Miller PD: Regenerative and reconstructive periodontal plastic surgery:
Mucogingival surgery. Dent Clin North Am 32:287—306, 1988.
36. Prato GPP, De Sanctis M: Soft tissue plastic surgery. Curr Opin Dent 1:98—
103, 1991.
Regenerative Procedures
37. Becker BE, Becker W: Regenerative procedures: Grafting materials, guided
tissue regeneration, and growth factors. Curr Opin Dent 1:93—97, 1991.
38. Branemark PI, Zarb GA, Albrektsson T: Tissue-integrated prostheses. In
Osseointeg ration in Clinical Dentistry. Carol Stream, IL, Quintessence,
1985.
39. Lynch SE, Williams RC, Poison AM, et al: A combination of platelet-derived
growth factors enhances periodontal regeneration. J Clin Periodontol
16:545-548, 1989.
40. Magnusson I, Batch C, Collins BR: New attachment formation following
controlled tissue regeneration using biodegradable membranes. J
Periodontol 59:1-6, 1988.
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7. ENDODONTI CS
Steven P. Levine, D.M.D.
DIAGNOSIS
1 . What is the proper role of the pulp tester in clinical diagnosis?
The pulp tester excites the nervous system of the pulp through electrical
stimulation. However, the pulp tester suggests only whether the tooth is vital or r
the crucial factor is the vascularity of the tooth. The pulp test alone is not
sufficient to allow a diagnosis and must be combined with other tests.
2. What is the importance of percussion sensitivity in endodontic
diagnosis?
Percussion sensitivity is a valuable diagnostic tool. Once the infection or
inflammatory process has extended through the apical foremen into the
periodontal ligament (PDL) space and apical tissues, pain is localizable with a
percussion test. The PDL space is richly innervated by proprioceptive fibers, which
make the percussion test a valuable tool.
3. Listening to a patient's complaint of pain is a valuable diagnostic aid.
What differenti ates reversible from irreversible pulpitis?
In general, with reversible pulpitis pain is elicited only on application of a
stimulus (i.e., cold, sweets). The pain is sharp and quick but disappears on
removal of the stimulus. Spontaneous pain is absent. The pulp is generally
noninflamed. Treatment usually is a sedative dressing or a new restoration with a
base. Irreversible pulpitis is generally characterized by pain that is spontaneous
and lingers for some time after stimulus removal. There are various forms of
irreversible pulpitis, but all require endodontic intervention.
4. What are the clinical and radiographic signs of an acute apical
abscess?
Clinically an acute apical abscess is characterized by acute pain of rapid
onset. The affected tooth is exquisitely sensitive to percussion and may feel
"elevated" because of apical suppuration. Radiographic examination may show a
totally normal periapical complex or a slightly widened PDL space, because the
infection has not had enough time to demineralize the cortical bone and reveal a
radiolucency. Electric and thermal tests are negative.
5. Discuss the importance of inflammatory resorption.
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Resorption after avulsion injuries depends on the thickness of cementum.
When the PDL does not repair and the cementum is shallow, resorption penetrates
to the dentinal tubules. If the tubules contain infected tissue, the toxic products
pass into the surrounding alveolus to cause severe inflammatory resorption and
potential loss of the tooth.
6. A patient presents with a "gumboil" or fistula. What steps do you
take to diagnose the cause or to determine which tooth is involved?
All fistulas should be traced with a gutta percha cone, because the
originating tooth may not be directly next to the fistula. Fistulas positioned high on
the marginal gingiva, with concomitant deep probing and normal response of
teeth to vitality testing, may have a periodontal etiology.
7. Why is it often quite difficult to find the source of pain in endodontic
diagnosis when a patient complains of radiating pain without sensitivity
to percussion or palpation?
Teeth are quite often the source of referred pain. Percussion or palpation
pain may be lacking in a tooth in which the inflammatory process has not reached
the proprioceptive fibers of the
periodontal ligament. The pulp contains no proprioceptive fibers.
8. What is the anatomic reason that pain from pulpitis can be referred
to all parts of the head and neck?
In brief, nerve endings of cranial nerves VII (facial), IX (glossopharyngeal),
and X (vagus) are profusely and diffusely distributed within the subnucleus
caudalis of the trigeminal cranial nerve (V). A profuse intermingling of nerve fibers
creates the potential for referral of dental pain to many sites.
9. I s there any correlation between the presence of symptoms and the
histologic condition of the pulp?
No. Several studies have shown that the pulp may actually degenerate and
necrose over a period of time without symptoms. Microabscess formation in the
pulp may be totally asymptomatic.
10. Describe the process of internal resorption and the necessary
treatment.
Internal resorption begins on the internal dentin surface and spreads
laterally. It may or may not reach the external tooth surface. The process is often
asymptomatic and becomes identifiable only after it has progressed enough to be
seen radiographically. The etiology is unknown. Trauma is often but not always
implicated. Resorption that occurs in inflamed pulps is characterized histologically
by dentinoclasts, which are specialized, multinucleated giant cells similar to
osteoclasts. Treatment is prompt endodontic therapy. However, once external
perforation has caused a periodontal defect, the tooth is often lost.
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11. How can one deduce a clinical impression of pulpal health by
examining canal width on a radiograph?
Although not a definitive diagnostic tool, pulp chamber and root canal width
on a radiograph may give a suggestion of pulp health. When compared with
adjacent teeth, very narrowed root canals usually indicate pulpal pathology, such
as degeneration due to prior trauma, capping, or pulpotomy or periodontal
disease. Conversely, root canals that are very wide in comparison to adjacent
teeth often indicate prior pulp damage that has led to pulpal necrosis.
12. What is the significance of the intact lamina aura in radiographic
diagnosis?
The lamina aura is the cribiform plate or alveolar bone proper, a layer of
compact bone lining the socket. Because of its thickness, an x-ray beam passing
through it produces a white line around the root on the radiograph. Byproducts of
pupal disease, passing from the apex or lateral canals, may degenerate the
compact bone; its loss can be seen on a radiograph. However, this finding is not
always diagnostic, because teeth with normal pulps may have no lamina aura.
13. Which radiographic technique produces the most accurate
radiograph of the root and surrounding tissues?
The paralleling or right-angle technique is best for endodontics. The film is
placed parallel to the long axis of the tooth and the beam at a right angle to the
film. The technique allows the most accurate representation of tooth size.
14. What is the definition of a true combined lesion?
A true combined lesion is due to both endodontic and periodontal disorders
that progress independently. The lesions may join as the periodontal lesion
progresses apically. Such lesions, if any chance of healing is to occur, require both
endodontic therapy and aggressive periodontal therapy. Usually, the prognosis is
determined more by the extent of the periodontal lesion.
15. What is the reason that radiographic examination does not show
periapical radiolucencies in certain teeth with acute abscesses?
One study showed that 30—50% of bone calcium must be altered before
radiographic evidence of periapical breakdown appears. Therefore, in acute
infection apical radiolucencies may not appear until later, as treatment progresses.
16. Why do pulpal- periapical infections of mandibular second and third
molars often involve the submandibular space?
Extension of any infection is closely tied to bone density, the proximity of
root apices to cortical bone, and muscle attachments. The apices of the
mandibular second and third molars are usually below the mylohyoid attachment;
therefore infection usually spreads to the lingual and submandibular spaces; often
the masticator space is also involved.
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17. A patient presents with a large swelling involving her chin.
Diagnostic tests reveal that the culprit is the lower right lateral incisor.
What factor determines whether the swelling extends into the buccal
fold or points facially?
A major determining factor in the spread of an apical abscess is the position
of the root apex in relation to local muscle attachments. In this particular case, the
apex of the lateral incisor is below the level of the attachment of the mentalis
muscle; therefore, the abscess extends into the soft tissues of the chin.
18. A middle-aged woman has been referred for diagnosis of multiple
radiolucent lesions around the apices of her mandibular incisors. The
patient is asymptomatic, the teeth are normal on vitality tests, no
cortical expansion is noted, and the periodontium is normal. Medical
history and blood tests are normal. What is your diagnosis?
The most lil<ely diagnosis is periradicular cemental dysplasia or cementoma.
This benign condition of unknown etiology is characterized by an initial osteolytic
phase in which fibroblasts and collagen proliferate in the apical region of the
mandibular incisors, replacing medullary bone. The teeth remain normal to all
testing. Eventually, cementoblasts differentiate to cause reossification of the area.
Treatment is to monitor over time.
Torabinejad M, Walton R: Periradicular lesions. In Ingle JI (ed): Endodontics, 4th ed.
Baltimore, Williams & Wilkins, 1994, pp 434—457.
CLINICAL ENDODONTICS (TREATMENT)
19. What is the current thinking on use of the rubber dam?
The dam is an absolute necessity for treatment. It ensures a surgically clean
operating field that reduces chance of cross-contamination of the root canal,
retracts tissues, improves visibility, and improves efficiency. It protects the patient
from aspiration of files, debris, irrigating solutions, and medicaments. From a
medicolegal standpoint, use of the dam is considered the standard of care.
20. What basic principles should be kept in mind for proper access
opening?
Proper access is a crucial and overlooked aspect of endodontic practice. The
root canal system is usually a multicanaled configuration with fins, loops, and
accessory foramina. When possible, the opening must be of sufficient size,
position, and shape to allow straight-line access into the canals. Access of
inadequate size and position invites inadequate removal of caries, com promises
proper instrumentation, and inhibits proper obturation. However, overzealous
access leads to perforation, weakening of tooth structure, and potential fracture.
21. What are the current concepts on irrigating solutions in
endodontics?
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The type of irrigant is of minor importance in relation to the volume and
frequency. The crucial factor is constant irrigation to remove dentinal debris, to
prevent blockage, and to lessen the chance of apical introduction of debris.
Several studies have shown the efficacy of saline, distilled water, sodium
hypochlorite, hydrogen peroxide, combinations of the above, and many other
agents. The results show no advantage to chemomechanical preparation of the
root canal system.
22. Of what material are endodontic files currently made?
Hand-operated instruments, including broaches, H-files, K-files, reamers, K-
flex files, and S-files, are made of stainless steel as opposed to carbon steel, which
was used in the past. Stainless steel bends more easily, is not as brittle, is less
likely to break compared with carbon steel, and can be autoclaved without dulling.
In addition, hand and rotary files are now being made of nickel-titanium.
23. What are the characteristics of a K-file?
The K-file is made by machine grinding of stainless steel wire into a square
shape (some companies produce a triangular shape). The square wire is then
twisted by machines in a counterclockwise direction to produce a tightly spiraled
file.
24. What are the characteristics of a reamer?
The reamer is made by machine twisting of a triangular stainless steel stock
wire in a counterclockwise direction but into a less tightly spiraled instrument than
the K-file.
25. How does the K-flex file diffei7
The K-flex file is produced from a rhomboid or a diamond-shaped stainless
steel stock wire twisted to produce a file. However, the two acute angles of the
rhombus produce a cutting edge of increased sharpness and cutting efficiency.
The low flutes made from the obtuse angles form an area for debris removal.
26. How does filing differ from reaming?
Filing establishes its cutting action upon withdrawal of the instrument. The
instrument is re moved from the canal without turning. Thus it uses basically a
push-pull motion. Reaming is done by placing the instrument in the canal,
rotating, and withdrawing.
27. What is the recommended use for Gates-Glidden and Reeso drills?
These two types of engine-driven instruments, especially the Gates-Glidden
drills, are useful in the new recommended instrumentation technique of step-down
preparation. They are efficient in initial coronal preparation of the canal, thereby
allowing easier, more efficient, and less traumatic apical preparation.
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28. What is RC-prep? How is it used?
RC-prep is composed of ethylene diamine tetraacetic acid (EDTA) and urea
peroxide in a carbwax base. Its use as a canal lubricant is also enhanced by
combination with sodium hypochlorite, which produces much bubbling action,
allowing enhanced removal of dentinal debris and permeability into the tubules.
29. Why is niclcel-titanium becoming a material of choice for
endodontic hand and rotary instruments?
The newer hand and rotaiy instruments made from nickel-titanium have
excellent flexibility and strength after repeated sterilization, are quite
anticorrosive, and resist fracture quite well.
30. What types of hand-operated implements for root canal
instrumentation are currently available?
A detailed discussion of the various properties and differences in file-reamer
types is beyond the scope of this chapter. K-type files and reamers are still widely
used because of their strength and flexibility. H-type Hedstrom files are quite
popular because of their aggressive ability to cut dentin. S-files are highly efficient
for cutting dentin on the withdrawal stroke and for filing and reaming. Flex-it files
are a new modification with a noncutting tip design. This design allows guidance
of the tip through curvatures and reduces the risk of ledging, perforation, and
transportation of the apex. For an excellent discussion of instrumentation devices
and techniques, the reader is referred to Cohen 5, Burns RC (eds): Pathways of
the Pulp, 6th ed. St. Louis, Mosby, 1994.
31. What is the current status on acceptability of root canal obturation
materials?
Gutta percha remains the most popular and accepted filling material for root
canals. Numerous studies have demonstrated that it is the least tissue-irritating
and most biocompatible material available. Although differences occur among
manufacturers, gutta percha contains transpolyisoprene, barium sulfate, and zinc
oxide, which provide an inert, compactible, dimensionally stable material that can
adapt to the root canal walls.
N-2 pastes and other paraformaldehyde-containing pastes are not approved
by the Food and Drug Administration (FDA). Several studies have shown
conclusively that such root-filling pastes are highly cytotoxic in tissue culture;
reactions to bone include chronic inflammation, necrosis, and bone sequestration.
Compared with gutta percha, the pastes are highly antigenic and perpetuate
inflammatory lesions. For these reasons they are not considered the standard of
endodontic care.
32. What is the proper apical extension of a root canal filling?
The proper apical extension of a root canal filling has been discussed
extensively for years, and the debate continues. In the past recommendations
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were made to fill a root canal to the radiographic apex in teeth that exhibited
necrosis or areas of periapical breakdown and to stop slightly short of this point in
vital teeth. Currently, however, it is generally recommended that a root canal be
filled to the dentinocementum junction, which is 0.5-2 mm from the radiographic
apex. Filling to the radiographic apex is usually overfilling or overextending and
increases the chance of chronic irritation of periapical tissues.
33. Describe the walking bleacli technique.
The walking bleach technique is used to bleach nonvital teeth with roots
that have been obturated. The technique involves the placement of a thick white
paste composed of sodium perborate and Superoxol in the tooth chamber with a
temporaly restoration. Several repetitions of this procedure, along with the in-
office application of heat to Superoxol-saturated cotton pellets in the tooth
chamber, work quite well.
34. Several authors report extensive cervical resorption after bleaching
of pulpless teeth with the walking bleach technique using Superoxol,
sodium perborate, and heat. What is the cause?
In approximately 10% of all teeth, defects at the cementoenamel junction
allow dentinal tubules to communicate from the root canal system to the PDL.
These tubules remain open, without sclerosis, if the tooth becomes puipless at a
young age. It is thought that the bleaching agents may leach through the open
tubules to cause the resorption. Therefore, a barrier of some type is
recommended, such as zinc, phosphate cement, or some type of light canal
bonding agent.
Rothstein CD: Bleaching and vital discolored teeth. In Cohen S. Bums RC (eds): Pathways
of the Pulp, 7th ed. St. Louis, Mosby, 1998, pp 674—691.
35. List four useful tools in the diagnosis of a vertical crown- root
fracture.
1. Transillumination with fiberoptic light
2. Persistent periodontal defects in otherwise healthy teeth
3. Wedging and staining of defects
4. Radiographs rarely show vertical fractures but do show a radiolucent
defect laterally from sulcus to apex (which can be probed).
36. Describe the crown-down pressureless technique of root canal
instrumentation.
With the crown-down pressureless technique the canal is prepared in a
coronal toapical direction by initially instrumenting the coronal two-thirds of the
canal before any apical preparation. This technique, popularized by Marshall-
Pappin, minimizes apically extruded debris and eliminates binding of instruments
coronally, thereby making apical preparation more difficult.
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37. What is the balanced-force concept of root canal instrumentation
and preparation?
The balanced-force concept, proposed by Roane and Sabala, is based on
the idea of balancing the cutting forces over a greater area of the canal and
focusing less force on the area where the file tip engages the dentin. The
technique is done with the Flex-it file with a noncutting tip and a triangular cross-
section. By using this type of file in a counterclockwise reaming motion, ledging is
minimized, more inner canal curvature is accomplished, and less zipping of the
apex occurs.
Roane JB, Sabala C, Duncanson M: The "balanced force" concept for instrumentation of
curved canals. JEndod 11:203, 1985.
38. What is the frequency of fourth canals in mesial roots of maxillary
first molars?
In an extensive study of maxillary first molars, 51% of the mesiobuccal
roots contained either a larger buccal and smaller lingual canal or two separate
canals and foramina. This finding shows the importance of searching for a fourth
canal to ensure clinical success.
39. What is the current thinking about the manner of storage of an
avulsed permanent tooth and its relationship to postreplantation
success?
After 15—12 minutes of extraoral exposure, the cell metabolites in the
periodontal ligament have been depleted and need to be reconstituted before
replantation. Research by Cvek has shown that soaking the tooth in a physiologic
solution for 30 minutes before replanting reduces the chance of postreplant
resorption. The media of choice are Hank's balanced salt solution (found in Save-
A-Tooth) and Viaspan (used for storage of transplant organs). If neither is
available, milk or saline may be used, but not as successfully.
40. What is the current guideline for the length of time to splint an
avulsed tooth, with and without alveolar fracture?
The current recommendation is to splint an avulsed tooth for 7—14 days
(3—5 weeks with alveolar fracture). If an avulsed tooth is replanted fairly quickly
(within 1 hour) and some of the fibroblasts of the periodontal ligament (PDL) and
cementoblasts of the root surface remain viable, initial PDL repair may occur in
7—14 days.
41. When an avulsed tooth is replanted, what are the current
recommendations concerning rigid or functional splinting?
Recent studies show that early functional stimulus may improve the healing
of luxated teeth. It is advantageous to reduce the time of fixation to the rime
necessary for clinical healing of the periodontium, which may take place in a few
weeks. Andreasen has shown that prolonged rigid immobilization increases the
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risk of ankylosis; thus the splint should allow some vertical movement of the
involved teeth.
Andreasen J: Effect of masticatory stimulation on dentoalveolar ankylosis after
experimental tooth replantation. Endod Dent Traumatol 1:13—16, 1985.
Andreasen J: Periodontal healing after replantation of traumatically avulsed human teeth:
Assessment by mobility testing and radiography. Acta Odontol Scand 33:325—335, 1975.
42. What is the physiologic basis for the use of calcium hydroxide
pastes for resorptive de fects or avulsed teeth?
The theory behind the use of calcium hydroxide pastes is that areas of
resorption have an acidic pH of approximately 4.5—5. Such areas are more acidic
than normal tissue because of the effects of inflammatory mediators and tissue
breakdown products. The basic pH of calcium hydroxide neutralizes the acidic pH,
thereby inhibiting the resorptive process of osteoclastic hydrolases.
Tronstad L, et al: pH changes in dental tissues after root canal with calcium hydroxide. J
Endod 7:17,1981.
43. What is the current thinking on the use of medicaments in
endodontic practice?
Formerly, medicaments were in wide use in endodontics to kill bacteria in
the canal. However, current thinking stresses thorough debridement of canals and
the use of irrigating solutions to clean canals. Medicaments are not stressed,
because all have been shown to be cytotoxic in tissue culture. In addition, several
medicaments have been shown to elicit immunologic reactions in animal studies.
Mechanical canal cleaning sufficiently lowers microbial levels to allow the local
defense mechanisms to heal endodontic periapical lesions.
44. Discuss the variations of postoperative pain in one-visit vs. two-
visit endodontic procedures.
Several studies show no difference in postoperative pain in one-visit vs.
two-visit endodontic procedures. In fact, one study found that single-visit therapy
resulted in postoperative pain approximately one-half as often as multiple-visit
therapy.
45. What is the treatment of choice for an intruded maxillary central
incisor with a fully formed apex?
Repositioning or surgical extrusion should be done immediately with
splinting for 7—10 days. Because pupal necrosis is the usual outcome, pulpectomy
within 2 weeks and placement of calcium hydroxide are recommended. Close
observation every few months is needed.
46. What is the desired shape of the endodontic cavity (root canal) for
obturation in both lateral and vertical condensation techniques?
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The canal should be instrumented and shaped so that it has a continuously
tapering funnel shape. The narrowest diameter should be at the dentinocemental
junction (0.5—1 mm from apex) and the widest diameter at the canal opening.
47. Are electronic measuring devices for root canal of any clinical value
in everyday endodontic practice?
Yes. Electronic measuring devices have been shown by several investigators
to be quite accurate. In general, they work by measuring gradients in electrical
resistance when a file passes from dentin (insulator) to conductive apical tissues.
They are quite useful when the apex is obscured on a radiograph by sinus
superimposition, other roots, or osseous structures.
48. What is the accepted material of choice for pulp-capping
procedures?
The literature has reports of many drugs, medicaments, and
antiinflammatory agents used for pulp capping, but the material of choice remains
calcium hydroxide. Calcium hydroxide, applied to the pulp tissue, seems to cause
necrosis of the underlying tissue, but the continuous tissue often forms calcific
bridges.
49. Describe the process of apexification.
Apexification involves the placement of agents in the pulpless permanent
tooth, with an incompletely formed apex, to stimulate continued apical closure.
Calcium hydroxide pastes are the accepted agents for use in the canals.
50. What is the accepted treatment for carious exposures in primary
teeth?
For carious exposures in primary teeth in which the tissue appears vital and
the inflammation is only in the coronal pulp, the formocresol pulpotomy is still
widely accepted. When a carious exposure shows total pulpal degeneration
(necrosis), full pulpectomy is indicated with placement of a resorbable zinc oxide-
eugenol (ZOE) paste.
51. What is the role of sealer-cements in root canal obturation?
Sealer-cements are still widely recommended for use with a semisolid
6blurating material (gutta percha). The sealers fill discrepancies between the root
filling and canal wall, act as a lubricant, help to seat cones of gutta percha, and fill
accessory canals and/or foramina apically.
52. What biologic property is shared by all sealer- cements used in
endodontics?
Studies of biocompatability have shown that all sealer-cements are highly
toxic when freshly mixed, but the toxicity is reduced on setting. Chronic
inflammatory responses, which usually persist for several days, are often cited as
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a reason not to avoid apical overextension of the sealer. Several studies have
recommended the use of sealers that are more biocompatible, such as AH-26 and
the newer calcium hydroxide-based sealers (Sealapex and CRCS).
53. In using Cavit as an interappointment temporary seal, what
precautions must be taken?
Cavit, which is a hygroscopic single paste containing zinc oxide, calcium and
zinc phosphate, polyvinyl and chloride acetate, and triethanolamine, requires
placement of at least 3 mm of material to ensure a proper seal and fracture
resistance.
54. What materials or devices are of use in removing gutta percha for
retreatment?
Initial removal should be done with endodontic drills (Gates-Glidden or
Peezo) or by using a heated plugger to remove the coronal portion of the gutta
percha. This procedure allows space in the canal for placement of solvents to
dissolve remaining material. Solvents include chloroform, xylene, methyl
chloroform, and eucalyptol. Chloroform is the most effective, although it has been
used less because of reported carcinogenic potential. Xylene and eucalyptol are
the least effective. Once the remaining gutta percha has been softened, it often
can be removed by files or reamers.
Wennberg A, Orstavik D: Evaluation of alternatives to chloroform in endodontic practice.
Endod Dent Traumatol 5:234,1989.
55. What are the cause, histologic characteristics, and treatment for
internal resorption?
The exact cause is unknown, but internal resorption is often seen after
trauma that results in hemorrhage of vessels in the pulp and infiltration of chronic
inflammatory cells. Macrophages have been shown to differentiate into
dentinoclastic-type cells. With this proliferation of granulation tissue, resorption
can occur. Treatment is to remove the pulpal tissues as soon as possible so that
tooth structure is not perforated.
56. Does preparation of the post immediately on obturation have a
different effect on the apical seal of a root canal filling from delayed
preparation?
Dye leakage studies have shown no difference and no effect on the apical
seal whether post preparation is immediate or delayed.
r>1adison S, Zakariasen K: Linear and volumetric analysis of apical leakage in teeth
prepared for posts. J Endod 10:422-427,1984.
57. What temperature and immersion time are needed to sterilize
endodontic files in a bead sterilizer?
At the proper temperature of 220°C (428°F) in the bead sterilizer, an
endodontic file should be immersed for 15 seconds. However, because of the
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potential for a wide variation of temperatures in the transfer medium (beads or
salt), this technique should be secondary to other, more reliable techniques of
sterilization.
58. What is the best and easiest technique for sterilization of gutta
percha cones?
Immersion of the cone in a 5.25% solution of sodium hypochlorite for 1
minute is quite effective in killing spores and vegetative organisms.
Senia SE, et al: Rapid sterilization of gutta percha cones with 5.25% sodium hypochlorite.
J Endod 1:136, 1975.
59. What simple techniques should be used to avoid apical ledging and
perforation?
Overly aggressive force should not be used in the apical area. A light touch
with a precurved file to negotiate apical curvature is necessary to maintain proper
canal curvature.
60. Which type of file is the strongest and cuts least aggressively?
K-files are the strongest of all files. Because they cut the least aggressively,
they can be used with quarter-turn pulling motion, rasping, or clockwise-
counterclockwise motions.
61. List four criteria that must be met before obturation of a canal.
1. The patient must be asymptomatic; the tooth in question must not be
sensitive to percussion or palpation.
2. No foul odor should emanate from the tooth.
3. The canal should not produce exudate.
4. The temporary restoration should be intact, i.e., no leakage has
contaminated the canal.
62. How does preparation of the canal for filling techniques that use
injection of gutta percha differ from that for conventional techniques?
All injection techniques require a more flared canal body and a definite
apical constriction to prevent flow of softened gutta percha into periapical tissues.
63. What is the treatment of choice for a primary endodontic lesion in a
mandibular molar with secondary periodontal involvement (includii
furcation lucency) in a periodontal ly healthy mouth?
Treatment generally consists solely of endodontic therapy. Necrotic pulpal
tissue that causes furcation and lateral root or apical breakdown also may cause
periodontal pockets through the sulcus, but these are actually fistulas rather than
true pockets. Endodontic therapy alone often heals this secondary periodontal
involvement.
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64. What is the current thinking on the prognosis of pulp capping and
partial pulpectomy procedures on traumatically exposed pulps?
In a study of traumatically exposed pulps, including both mature teeth and
teeth with immature apices, Cvek found that pulp capping or partial pulpectomy
procedures were successful in 96% of cases. In all teeth the superficial pulp in the
traumatized area was carefully excised. Cvek and others agree that such
procedures are generally more successful in vital teeth with immature root
formation.
Cvek M, Lundberg M: et al: Histological appearance of puips after exposure by a crown
fracture: Partial pulpotomy and clinical diagnosis of healing. J Endod 9:8—11, 1983.
65. What is the current thinking on ideal treatment for carious
exposure of a mature permanent tooth?
There is general agreement that carious exposure of a mature permanent
tooth generally requires endodontic therapy. Carious exposure generally implies
bacterial invasion of the pulp, with toxic products involving much of the pulp.
However, partial pulpotomy and pulp capping of a carious exposure in a tooth with
an immature apex have a higher chance of working.
66. You have elected to perform partial pulpotomy and to place a
calcium hydroxide cap on a maxillary permanentcentral incisor with
blunderbuss apex in a young boy. What follow-up is necessary?
Close monitoring of the tooth is necessary. First, it is important to see
whether any pathology develops. If necrosis occurs with apical pathology,
extirpation with apexification is needed. On the other hand, if vitality is maintained
in such teeth, root formation continues, along with dystrophic calcification.
67. What is the recommended technique for the access opening in
endodontic therapy for maxillary primary incisors?
A facial approach is generally recommended for such teeth, which need
pulpectomy with a filling of zinc oxide-eugenol paste. Because of esthetic
problems and the difficulty in bleaching, endodontic therapy is followed by
composite facial restoration.
68. Can infections of deciduous teeth cause odontogenesis of the
permanent teeth?
In one study, local infections of deciduous teeth for up to 6 weeks did not
influence odontogenesis of the permanent central incisors. However, longstanding
infections may have a profound effect on permanent teeth buds because of direct
communication between the pulpal and periodontal vasculature of the deciduous
tooth and the plexus surrounding the developing permanent tooth.
69. Describe the characteristics of the Profile Rotary I nstrumentation
Series.
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This series of nicl<el-titanium rotary files has a rounded, guided tip and a
U-shaped flute for collecting debris. It is available in a .04 and .06 taper series;
the .06 taper is used in a sequential series, allowing for a crown-down
preparation.
70. Thermafil endodontic obturators are now widely used. What is the
basic methodology?
Prenotched stainless steel files coated with alpha-phase gutta percha are
used to obturate the canal. Selection of the Thermafil device depends on the last
carrier and condenser for the thermally plasticized alpha-phase gutta percha.
Alpha-phase rather than the more common betaphase gutta percha is used
because, when heated, it has superior flow properties and adheres well to the
metal barrier.
71. What is the major difference between the two main
thermoplasticized gutta percha techniques on the market?
In the Obtara II system, gutta percha heated to 160°C is injected through a
silver needle tip at a temperature of about 65°C. The Ultrafil system is a low-
temperature technique that heats the gutta percha to 70°C for injection. Both
techniques stress the importance of maintaining constriction at the
cementodentinal junction to prevent flow of gutta percha beyond the apex.
72. What is the "dentin-chips apical-plug filling technique'7
This technique consists of filling the last 1—2 mm of the apex of the canal
with dentin chips to seal the apical foremen. Above this is placed a seal of gutta
percha. This so-called biologic seal of dentin chips should be made only after
proper debridement of the canal to avoid apical placement of infected chips. The
efficacy of this technique is controversial.
73. I n treating a maxillary lateral incisor, what particular care must be
taken in instrumenting the apical portion?
The apical root portion usually curves toward the distal palatal space; this
configuration must be negotiated carefully.
74. Should the smeared layer of dentinal debris be removed from canal
walls?
Yes. Removal of the smeared layer is recommended because of the
possibility that it harbors bacteria.
75. What is considered the most reliable technique to remove the
smeared layer of organic and inorganic dentinal debris from canal walls?
The recommended technique is the use of a chelating agent, such as EDTA
with sodium hypochlorite, during instrumentation.
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76. What is the single most important factor in determining the degree
and severity of the pulpal response to a tooth preparation (cutting)
procedure?
Research has shown that the remaining dentin thickness between the floor
of the cavity preparation and the pulp chamber is the most crucial determinant of
the pulpal response. In general, a 2-mm thickness of dentin provides a sufficient
degree of protection from the trauma of high-speed drills and restorative
materials. With a thickness less than 2 mm, the inflammatory response in the pulp
seems to increase dramatically. Neither age nor tooth size has as significant an
effect.
Swerdlow H, Stanley HR: Reaction of human dental pulp to cavity preparation. J Prosthet
Dent 9:121, 1959.
77. In restoring a tooth with a deep carious lesion, clinicians often
excavate the caries and place a temporary sedative restoration to allow
symptoms to subside. What is the rationale behind this procedure in
relation to pulpal physiology?
A deep carious lesion produces an inflammatory response in the pulp tissue
adjacent to the dentinal tubules in the area of the caries. Removal of the irritation
to the pulp and placement of a sedative filling allow new odontoblasts to
differentiate and to produce a reparative dentin in the involved area. This process
usually requires approximately 20 days for odontoplastic regeneration and 80 days
for reparative dentin formation.
Stanley HR: The rate of tertiary dentin formation in the human tooth. Oral Surg 21: 100,
1966.
78. What is the most common reason for failure of root canals?
Although an endodontically treated tooth may fail for various reasons,
including fracture, periodontal disease, or prosthetic complication leading to one of
the above, the most common cause of failure is incompletely and inadequately
debrided and disinfected root canals. The timehonored saying that what you take
out of the canal is not as important as what you put in has much merit. The
chemomechanical debridemdnt of the root canal system, which is necessary to
remove all irritants to the surrounding apical and periodontal tissues, is still the
crucial aspect of root canal treatment.
PULP AND PERIAPICAL BIOLOGY
79. What is the dental pulp? Describe in a brief paragraph the
ultrastructural characteristics of this remarkable tissue.
The dental pulp is a matrix composed of ground substance, connective cells
and fibers, nerves, a microcirculatory system, and a highly specialized and
differentiated cell called the odontoblast. The dental pulp is similar to other
connective tissues in the body, but its ability to deal with injury and inflammatory
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reactions is severely limited by the mineralized walls that surround it. Therefore,
its ability to increase blood supply during vasodilation is impaired.
80. The odontoblast is a remarkable and unique cell. Briefly describe its
major characteristics.
The odontoblast is a highly differentiated cell that forms a pseudostratified
layer of cells along the periphery of the pulp chamber. It is a highly polarized cell
with synthesizing activity in its cell body and secretory activity in the odontoblastic
process, which forms the predentin matrix. Because it is the main cell for dentin
formation, injury by caries or restorative procedures may affect this activity.
81. Give a brief description of the most accepted theory about the
mechanism of dentin sensitivity.
The most plausible theories are based on the fact that the dentinal tubule
acts as a capillary tube. The tubule contains fluid, or a pulpal transudate, that is
displaced easily by air, heat, cold, and explorer tips. This rapid inward or outward
movement of fluid in tubules may excite odontoblastic processes, which have been
shown to travel within the tubules, or sensory receptors in the underlying pulp.
Brannstrom M, Astrom A: The hydrodynamics of the dentine: Its possible relationship to
dentinal pain, mt Dent J 22:219—227, 1972.
82. A 45-year-old woman presents for consultation. She is
asymptomatic. Radiographs reveal a radiolucent lesion apical to teeth
24 and 25 with no swelling or buccal plate expansion. The dentist
diagnosed periapical cemental dysplasia. How is this diagnosis
confirmed?
Periapical cemental dysplasia or cementoma presents as a radiolucent lesion
in its early stages. It is a fibroosseous lesion developing from cells in the
periodontal ligament space. The teeth involved respond normally to vitality testing.
83. What is the effect of orthodontic tooth movement on the pulp?
In progressive, slow orthodontic movement, the minor circulatory changes
and inflammatory reactions are reversible. However, with excessively severe
orthodontic forces, disruption of pulpal vascularity may be irreversible, leading to
disruption of odontoblasts and fibroblasts and possible pulpal necrosis. Rupture of
blood vessels in the periodontal ligament also may affect pulpal vascularity. In
addition, orthodontic tooth movement is associated with excessive root resorption
and blunted roots, both of which may occur with continued vitality.
84. I nflammatory mediators cause vasodilation of blood vessels. How
does vasodilation in the pulp differ from that in other tissues?
Vasodilation in all tissues is a defense mechanism, controlled by various
inflammatory mediators, to allow tissue survival during inflammation. The pulp
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responds differently, with an increase in blood flow followed by a sustained
decrease. This secondary vasoconstriction often leads to the demise of the pulp.
Kim S: Regulatio of blood flow of the dental pulp. J Endod 15(9): 1989.
85. Is it possible to differentiate a periapical cyst from a periapical
granuloma on the basis of radiographic appearance alone?
No. Radiographic appearance is not diagnostic. Often a sclerotic border may
be present, but its absence does not preclude cystic formation. An exhaustive
study indicates that lesions greater than 200 mm are usually cystic in nature.
Natkin B, Oswald RJ, Carnes LI: The relationship of lesion size to diagnosis, incidence and
treatment of periapical cysts and granulomas. Oral Surg Oral l^ed Oral Pathol 57:82-94, 1984.
86. A patient presents with a maxillary central incisor that has a history
of trauma. The patient is asymptomatic, and the radiograph is normal.
Because the tooth gives no response to an electric pulp tester, you elect
to do endodontic therapy without anesthesia. However, with access and
instrumentation the patient feels everything. Explain the inconsistency.
The electric pulp tester excites the A8 fibers in the tooth. The pulp contains
A8 and C nociceptive fibers; the A8 fibers have a lower stimulation threshold than
the C fibers. The C fibers are more resistant to hypoxia and can function long after
the AS fibers are inactivated by injury to pulp tissue. The electric pulp tester does
not stimulate C fibers.
87. List six normal changes in pulp tissue due to age.
(1) Decrease in size and volume of pulp, (2) increase in number of collagen
fibers, (3) decreased number of odontoblasts (4) decrease in number and quality
of nerves, (5) decreased vascularity, and (6) overall increase in cellularity.
Bernicl< 5: Effect of aging on the nerve supply to human teeth. J Dent Res 46:694, 1967.
88. What is the meaning of the term dentinal pairR
Dentinal pain is due to the outflow of fluid in dentinal tubules that
stimulates free nerve endings, most likely A8 fibers. Dentinal pain is usually
associated with cracked teeth (into the dentin), defective fillings, or hypersensitive
dentin. The pain produced by such stimulation does not usually signify that the
pulp is inflamed or the tissue injured, whereas pulpal pain is due to true tissue
injury associated with stimulation of C fibers.
89. Do the odontoblastic processes extend all the way through the
dentin?
This controversial topic has been studied extensively by several
investigators. The process is basically an extension of the cell body of the
odontoblast. It is the secretory portion of the odontoblast and contains large
amounts of microtubules and microfilaments. Light microscopic studies have
generally shown odontoblastic processes only in the inner one-third of dentin; this
finding agrees with scanning electron microscope studies and transmission
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electron microscope studies, which showed processes mainly in the inner one-third
of dentin. However, one series of studies suggested that processes go all the way
through dentin. More elaborate techniques with immunofluorescent antibody
labeling against microtubules also showed staining the entire length of the dentin,
suggesting that the processes extend the entire length of the dentinal tubule.
Brannstrom M: The dentinal tubules and the odontoblast processes. Acta Odontol Scand
30:291, 1972.
Gunji T. et al: Distribution and organization of odontoblast processes in human dentin.
Arch Histol Jpn 46:213, 1983.
Sigal MJ: The odontoblast process extends to the dentinoenamel junction: An
immunocytochemical study of rat dentine. J Histochem Cytochem 32:872. 1984.
Thomas HF: The extent of the odontoblast process in human dentin. J Dent Res 58:2207,
1979.
90. Describe briefly the circulatory system of the dental pulp.
The pulp contains a true microcirculatory system. The major vessels are
arterioles, venules, and capillaries. The capillary network in the pulp is extensive,
especially in the subodontoblastic region, where the important functions of
transporting nutrients and oxygen to pulpal cells occurs and waste products are
removed. The pulpal microcirculation is under neural control and also under the
influence of chemical agents, such as catecholamines, that exert their effects at
the alpha and beta r found in pulpal arterioles.
Cohen S, Burns RC (eds): Pathways of the Pulp, 6th ed. St. Louis, Mosby, 1994.
91. Have immunoglobulins and immunocompetent cells been found in
the dental pulp?
Yes. Numerous studies have demonstrated that the pulp and penapical
tissues are able to mount an immune response against injury to the pulp and
apical tissues. All classes of im munoglobulins have been identified in the dental
pulp, and microscopic examination of damaged pulpal tissue reveals the presence
of leukocytes, macrophages, plasma cells, lymphocytes, giant cells, and mast cells.
MICROBIOLOGY AND PHARMACOLOGY
92. What types of bacteria are the predominant pathogens in
endodontic- periapical infections?
Many well-done studies have shown definitively the predominant role of
gram-negative obligate anaerobic bacteria in endodontic-periapical infections.
Earlier studies generally implicated facultative organisms (streptococci,
enterococci, lactobacilli), but improved culturing techniques established the
predominance of obligate anaerobes. A recent study further demonstrated the
important role of Porphyromonas endodontalis (formerly Bacteroides endodontalis)
in endodontic infections.
Van Winkelhoff, et al: Porphyromonas endodontalis: Its role in endodontic infections. J
Endod 18:431, 1992.
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93. What is considered tlie antibiotic of clioice in treatment of orofacial
infections of endodontic origin?
In light of all the new microbiologic research implicating the predominance
of obligate anaerobes, drug sensitivity tests still show the penicillins to be the
drugs of choice. Penicillin is highly effective against most of the obligate
anaerobes in endodontic infections, and because the infections are of a mixed
nature with strict substrate interrelationships among various bacteria, the death of
several strains has a profound effect on the overall population of an endodontic-
periapical infection.
94. Wliat antibiotics are considered most effective in treatment of
orofacial infections of endodontic origin that do not respond to the
penicillins?
For infections not responding to the penicillins, clindamycin is often
recofflThended. It produces high bone levels and is highly effective against
anaerobic bacteria, but it must be used with caution because of the potential for
pseudomembranous colitis. A second choice is metronidazole, which also is quite
effective against gram-negative obligate anaerobes.
95. What is the current status of culturing and sensitivity testing for
endodontic.periapical infections?
Culturing and sensitivity testing have been a controversial topic in
endodontic practice for years. According to current thinking, if the proper clinical
guidelines are followed, including use of rubber dam, proper chemomechanical
cleaning of the root canal system, and proper use of correct antibiotics as
indicated, culturing and sensitivity testing are not required. Proper culturing for
both facultative and anaerobic bacteria is expensive, time-consuming, and not
cost-effective, given the high success rate of properly done endodontic therapy.
96. The role of gram- negative anaerobic bacteria is an established fact
in the pathogenesis of endodontic lesions. What role does the bacterial
endotoxin play?
Endotoxins are highly potent lipopolysaccharides released from the cell walls
of gram-negative bacteria. They are able to resorb bone via stimulation of
osteoclastic activity, activation of complement cascades, and stimulation of
lymphocytes and macrophages. Various studies have demonstrated their presence
in pulpless teeth (with necrotic tissue) and apical lesions.
97. What roles do nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) have
in endodontic practice?
NSAIDs have a significant role in endodontic practice. Many patients require
postoperative medication to control pericementitis, which can be quite painful
after pulpectomy and may persist for several days. The NSAIDs are quite
effective; their mechanism of action is to inhibit synthesis of prostaglandins. One
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study showed that ibuprofen, when given preoperatively to symptomatic and
asymptomatic patients, significantly reduces postoperative pericementitis.
Dionne RA, et al: Suppression of postoperative pain by preoperative administration of
ibuprofen in comparison to placebo, acetaminophen and acetaminophen plus codeine. J Clin
Pharmacol 23:37—43, 1983.
98. What is the latest thinking on the role of black- pigmented
anaerobic rods in the etiology of infected root canals and periapical
infection?
Black-pigmented anaerobic rods have been shown to play an essential role
in the etiology of endodontic infections when present in anaerobic mixed
infections. The most strongly implicated organism is Porphyromonas endodontalis,
which, because of its need for various growth factors, is directly related to the
presence of acute periapical inflammation, pain, and exudation.
99. A patient presents with swelling, in obvious need of endodontic
therapy. His medical history is significant for penicillin allergy and
asthma, for which he is taking Theo-Dur. What precautions should you
exercise?
By no means should erythromycin be used as an alternative to penicillin.
Theo-Dur is a form of theophylline used for chronic reversible bronchospasm
associated with bronchial asthma, and erythromycin has been shown to elevate
significantly serum levels of theophylline.
100. For years it was taught that any bacteria left behind in an
obturated canal would die and therefore cause no problems. What are
the latest findings about this controversy?
The most recent electron micrograph studies have shown persistence of
bacteria in the apical portion of roots in therapy-resistant lesions. The result is
persistent periapical pathosis.
101. What efficacy do the cephalosporins have in treating acute pulpal-
periapical infections?
Although the cephalosporins are broad-spectrum antibiotics, their activity is
limited in pulpal-periapical infections, which are mixed infections predominantly
due to obligate anaerobic bacteria. The cephalosporins are not highly effective
against such bacteria and actually have less activity against many anaerobes than
penicillin. For serious infections that are penicillin or erythromycin-resistant,
clindamycin is much more effective because of its activity against the obligate and
facultative organisms in pulpal-periapical infections.
102. What precautions should be taken in prescribing antibiotics to a
female patient who takes birth control pills?
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The dentist should warn the patient that oral antibiotics may decrease the
effectiveness of birth control pills and that they nnay be ineffective during the
course of antibiotic therapy. The most often implicated antibiotic is the penicillin
class, although erythromycin, cephalosporin, tetracyclines, and metronidazole also
have been implicated.
103. The quinolone class of antibiotics, which includes ciprofloxacin,
are becoming quite popular. Do they have any role in treating alveolar
infections?
Very little, if any. Most anaerobes implicated in endodontic-alveolar
abscesses are resistant to the quinolones.
ANESTHESIA
104. What is the physiologic basis of the difficulty in achieving proper
pulpal anesthesia in the presence of inflammation or infection?
Attaining effective pulpal anesthesia in the presence of pulpal-alveolar
infection or inflammation is bften quite difficult because of changes in tissue pH.
The normal tissue pH of 7.4 decreases to 4.5—5.5. This change in pH due to
pulpal-periapical pathology favors a shift to a cationic form of the local anesthesia
molecule, which cannot diffuse through the lipoprotein neural sheath. Therefore,
anesthesia is ineffective.
105. What is the significance of the mylohyoid nerve in successful
anesthesia of the mandibular first molar?
The mylohyoid nerve is often implicated in unsuccessful anesthesia of the
first molar. This nerve branches off the inferior alveolar nerve above its entry into
the mandibular foremen. The mylohyoid nerve then travels in the mylohyoid
groove in the lingual border of the mandible to the digastric and mylohyoid
muscles. However, because it often carries sensory fibers to the mesial root of the
first molar, lingual anesthetic infiltration may be required to block it.
106. What is the method of action of injection into the periodontal
ligament?
Injection into the periodontal ligament is not a pressure-dependent
technique. The local anesthetic works by traveling down the periodontal ligament
space and shutting off the pulpal microcirculation. To be effective, this technique
requires the use of a local anesthetic with a vasoconstrictor.
107. The Gow-Gates block is an effective alternative to the inferior
alveolar block. When is it indicated? Briefly describe how it works.
In patients in whom the traditional inferior alveolar block is ineffective or
impossible to perform because of infection or inflammation, the Gow-Gates block
has a high success rate. It is a true mandibular block that anesthetizes all of the
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sensory portions of the mandibular nerve. The injection site is the lateral side of
the necl< of the mandibular condyle; thus, it is effective when intraoral swelling
contraindicates the inferior alveolar block.
108. What is the reason for attempting to anesthetize the mylohyoid
nerve for endodontic treatment of a symptomatic lower first molar?
The mylohyoid nerve has been shown to supply sensory innervation to
mandibular molars, especially the mesial root of first molars. Infiltration of this
nerve as it courses along the medial surface of the mandible is often helpful.
109. A drug salesman has convinced you to use propoxycaine
hydrochloride as a local anesthetic. Is there any true or absolute
contraindication to use of an esteriiiesthetic?
Yes. Patients who have a hereditary trait known as atypical
pseudocholinesterase have an inability to hydrolyze ester-type local anesthetics.
Therefore, toxic reactions may result. Only amide anesthetics should be used.
110. A patient presents with an extremely painful lower molar
requiring endodontic therapy. You have already used six cartridges of
lidocaine with epinephrine to achieve anesthesia. The patient begins to
react differently. I n brief, what are the signs of local anesthetic toxicity?
Local anesthetic toxicity depends on the blood level and the patients status.
In general, a mild toxic reaction manifests as agitation, talkativeness, and
increased vital parameters (blood pressure, heart rate, and respiration). A massive
reaction manifests as seizures, generalized collapse of the central nervous system,
and possible myocardial depression and vasodilation.
SURGICAL ENDODONTICS
111. What is the purpose of the apicoectomy procedure in surgical
endodontics?
Perpetuation of apical inflanmrntion or infection often is due to poorly
obturated canals, tissue left in the canal, or quite often an apical delta of
accessory foramina containing remnants of necrotic tissue. The removal of this
apical segment via apicoectomy usually removes the nidus of infection.
112. A patient presents for apicoectomy on a maxillary central incisor
with failed endodontic therapy. A well-done porcelain-to-gold crown is
present, with the gold margin placed in the gingival sulcus for esthetic
purposes. What flap design is most appropriate?
A full mucoperiosteal flap involving the marginal and interdental gingival
tissues may potentially cause loss of soft-tissue attachments and crestal bone
height, thereby causing an esthetic problem with the gold margin of the crown.
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Instead, a submarginal rectangular (Luebke-Ochsenbein) flap that preserves the
marginal and interdental gingiva, is recommended.
113. What is the material of choice for root end fillings in surgical
endodontics?
Histologic studies have compared several materials, including amalgam, EBA
cement, resins, polycarboxylate cements, glass ionomers, and gold foils. Although
no study has shown a definitive superiority of one over another, the most
commonly used today are amalgam and EBA cements. The type of material is
properly secondary in importance to the root resection technique, apical
preparation, curettage of the lesion, and technique in placement.
114. What type of scalpel is best used for intraoral incision and
drainage of an endodontic abscess?
A pointed no. 11 or no. 12 blade is preferred over a rounded no. 15 blade.
115. In performing apical surgery on the mesial root of maxillary
molars, what mistake is commonly made?
It is important to look for unfilled mesiolingual canals in such roots.
Therefore, a proper long bevel is necessary to expose this commonly unfilled
fourth canal.
116. Numerous studies have addressed the success rates of endodontic
surgery. Most agree, however, on certain basic conclusions. Can you
name the most common conclusions?
All of the success studies share certain basic conclusions. First, the success
of endodontic surgery is closely related to the standard of treatment of the root
canal. Second, orthograde (conventional) root fills are preferred, if possible.
Thirdly, the success rate is about 20% lower for retrograde fills than for properly
done orthograde fills.
Andreasen JO, Rud J: A multivariate analysis of various factors upon healing after
endodontic surgery. Int) Oral Surg 1:258—271, 1972.
Rud J, Andreasen JO: Radiographic criteria for the assessment of healing after endodontic
surgery, mt J Oral Surg 1:195—214, 1972.
117. What is the recommended surgical approach for apical surgery on
palatal roots of maxillary molars?
The palatal approach is recommended; with proper flap design and size,
proper reflection is not a difficult procedure. The buccal approach is potentially too
damaging to supporting bone of the molar and may actually cause more risk of
postoperative sinus problems.
118. Why is a "slot preparation" often recommended in preparation of
root end filling for mesial roots of maxillary or mandibular roots?
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The slot preparation is a trough-type preparation that extends from one
canal orifice to another canal orifice in the same root. This procedure is
accomplished with undercuts in the adjacent walls. The slot preparation allows not
only sealing of the canal orifices but also small anastomoses between the main
canals.
119. Has the ideal retrosurgical material been developed?
No. Many research studies have been published about a myriad of materials.
However, the ideal is not yet determined. Most likely the material itself is not as
important as the surgical preparation, the depth of the preparation, and how it is
placed.
120. After root end resection during endodontic surgery, many
practitioners apply citric acid to the exposed dentin surface. What is the
rationale behind this practice?
A desired result of root end surgery (apicoectomy) is to achieve, if possible,
a functional apical dentoalveolar apparatus with cementum deposition on the root
end. However, the resected root end is covered with a smeared layer of dentin
from the high-speed bur, which does not allow reattachment of newly deposited
cementum. Applying citric acid for 2 or 3 minutes dissolves the smear layer and
causes a small degree of demineralization of dentin. This, in turn, exposes
collagen fibrils of the dentinal organic matrix and allows a proper area for
attachment of collagen fibrils from newly formed cementum.
Poison AM, et al: The production of a root surface smear layer by instrumentation and its
removal by citric acid. J Periodontol 55:443-446, 1984.
121. Several studies have shown that resected mandibular molars fail
twice as often as resected maxillary molars. What are the major
etiologic reasons for failure?
The most common cause of failure is root fracture, followed in order by
cement washouts around restorations, undermining caries, and recurrent
periodontal pathoses around remaining roots.
Langer B, Wagenberg B: An evaluation of root resections: A ten-year study. J Periodontol
52:719-722,
1981.
Erpensten H: A 3-year study of hemisectioned molars. J Clin Periodontol 10:1-10, 1983.
122. I n performing apical surgery, what is the current thinking about
the angle of the apical bevel during apicoectomy and how it relates to
depth of retrograde fillings?
Recent studies have shown that increasing the angle of the apical bevel
increases the potential for apical leaking due to exposure of more dentinal tubules.
A bevel as close to zero degrees as possible is ideal. In addition, increasing the
depth of retrograde preparation and filling decreases apical leaking by sealing
more dentinal tubules.
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123. Why, in the past, have the mesial roots of maxillary first molars
and mandibular first molars failed so commonly after endodontic
surgery?
Before the advent of enhanced illumination and magnification with surgical
loupes and the operating microscope, the isthmus between the mesial canals was
commonly not prepared. The isthmus may contain necrotic tissue that can
perpetuate the apical lesion.
124. Why are ultrasonic techniques becoming the most popular
instruments for retropreparation during apical surgery?
The ultrasonic systems available today are a huge improvement over
techniques in the past. They allow retropreparations that align properly with the
long axis of the tooth, d they can be sufficiently deep to conform to the true shape
of the apical root canal system.
125. During apical surgery in the past, teeth with extensive periodontal
defects were extracted because of the poor prognosis. Today, however,
guided tissue regeneration can save many of these teeth. How does it
work?
An inert barrier is placed over the periodontal defects. These membranes
allow proliferation of undifferentiated cells of the PDL and surrounding bone to
grow across the wound, potentially forming a new attachment, and prevent the
downgrowth of epithelial cells to form a junctional epithelium.
126. What is the ultimate goal of apical surgery?
The goal is to eliminate the source of periapical irritation emanating from
the root canal, which perpetuates apical infection. In addition, it is important to
allow reformation of cementum around the apex, to reestablish a functioning PDL,
and to allow alveolar bone repair. If these goals are not possible, we aim at least
to allow repair scar tissue, which is less than ideal but still a form of repair.
BIBLIOGRAPHY
1. Cohen S, Burns RC (eds): Pathways of the Pulp, 7th ed. St. Louis, Mosby,
1998.
2. Guttman J, Harrison J: Surgical Endodontics. Cambridge, MA, Blackwell
Scientific Publications, 1991.
3. Journal of Endodontics.
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8. RESTORATI VE DENTI STRY
Elliot V. Feldbau, D.M.D., and Steven A. MIgllorlnl, D.M.D.
1. What are three major categories of dental caries?
1. Smooth surface enamel caries (class II, III, and V)
2. Pit and fissure areas (class I)
3. Root surface caries (class V)
2. What organisms are responsible for caries formation?
Streptococcus mutans is the most cariogenic with contributions from
S.sanguis and S. salivarious. These organisms metabolize sucrose to form acidic
byproducts destructive to enamel surfaces. Root surface caries are initiated by
Actinomyces v/scus on accumulated plaque deposits.
3. How may caries be diagnosed?
Caries may be detected by a combination of techniques. First is direct
inspection of pits and fissures, root surfaces, and interfaces of restorations and
tooth with a sharp explorer, air-drying, and magnification. Direct inspection is
supplemented by evaluating properly angulated bitewing and periapical
radiographs. Finally, the use of transillumination from a visible light curing wand
can reveal shadowing and discoloration on occlusal and interproximal tooth
surfaces.
4. Describe two classifications of carious dentin.
Carious dentin consists of an outermost layer of effected (infected) dentin
containing large amounts of bacteria and an underlying layer of affected (\ey\\i\y\
containing little or no bacteria.
5. Clinically, how are the two different types of carious dentin treated?
All infected dentin must be removed for successful tooth restoration.
Because affected dentin has undergone only early demineralization, removal may
not be necessary. Topical bonded dentin sealants containing fluoride effect a
barrier under restorations.
6. What are caries detector solutions?
These materials (Caries Detector, J Morita USA, Tustin, CA) clinically
differentiate the two layers of carious dentin by staining the outer carious layer
scarlet red, yet not staining the inner affected layer or normal dentin. This carious
layer is thus easily identified for removal. The composition is typically a red food
dye in a propylene glycol base.
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7. Describe the concept of "hidden caries."
Hidden caries refers to class I carious lesions that appear to be small and
localized to one area of a pit or fissure but are much more extensive lesions and
include a significant amount of internal coronal structure.
8. Describe a possible mechanism of hidden caries.
It has been suggested that intrinsic and topical fluoride exposure make
enamel so resistant to bacterial acids that intracoronal caries can progress
substantially before detection, given the sound-appearing nature of this enamel.
9. Explain why incipient caries may not require restorative
intervention.
Incipient caries involves lesions in enamel that have not progressed to the
dentin layer. Such lesions are the result of demineralization. With good home care,
fluoride supplements and lowered sugar dietary intake, remineralization may take
place and arrest the demineralization process.
10. How does fluoride prevent decay?
1. Incorporation into tooth surface structure as fluroappite to make the
tooth structure less acid-soluble
2. Remineralization of areas of dissolution of enamel
3. Possible action on dental plaque, reducing bacterial acid production
Enamel becomes more resistant to dental caries throughout life as the
uptake of fluoride and other minerals makes the surface less acid-soluble. Pit and
fissure areas, because of their anatomy, require dental sealants to provide life-
long protection.
11. What are some supplemental sources of topical fluoride for caries
prevention?
Public water supplies: 0.7 ppm sodium fluoride (NaF)
Toothpaste: Over-the-counter regular brands contain 0.10—0.15% NaF
Prescription: PreviDent 5000 Plus contains 1.1% NaF
Mouth rinses: Act, FluoriGuard, and Prevident Rinse contain 0.2—0.5% NaF
Brush-on gels/fluoride trays: Prevident 1.1% NaF neutral pH
12. What is a contraindication in the use of acidulated or stannous
fluoride preparations?
0.4% Stannous fluoride (pH 3.0) = 0.2% NaF (pH 7.0). Acidulated fluoride
(APF) solutions and topical 0.4% stannous gels (Gel-Kam, Colgate) remove the
glaze from porcelain, glass ionomer, and composite restorations. It is best to use
neutral pH supplements if these restorations are present. Always check the
product specifications.
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13. What are some indications for fluoride gel applications using a
custom tray?
Patients who exhibit high caries incidence, root caries, or cervical caries and
who may fit into one or more of the following groups:
• High consumption of carbonated beverages (pH 3.2—3.5) or citric fruits
(e.g., lemons, limes)
• Bulimic patients (10% female adolescents)
• Elderly and nursing home patients
• Gastric reflux patients
• Chemotherapy and radiation-treated patients
14. What is erosion? What are the possible causes?
Erosion is the loss of tooth structure by a chemical process that does not
involve bacterial action. It is generally caused by the consumption of foods that
contain phosphoric or citric acid such as fruits, fruit juices, and carbonated or
acidic beverages. Excessive exposure to gastric acids due to vomiting also
contributes.
15. What is tooth attrition?
Attrition is the physiologic wear of tooth structure resulting from normal
tooth-to-tooth contact over a period of time.
16. What is the theory of tooth abfraction?
Abfraction is defined as the pathologic loss of tooth substance caused by
biomechanical loading forces. The loss of structure is usually seen as
wedged-shaped cervical lesions at the dentinoenamel junction (DEJ) that may not
be carious. This theory is used as an alternative explanation for areas that have
been attributed to toothbrush abrasion.
17. What is the structural nature of dentinal tubules?
Dentinal tubules resemble inverted cones. The smallest diameter is at the
outer surface or at the DEJ; the tubule increases in diameter as it progresses to
the pulp. At the enamel junction the surface area of dentin tubules is only about
1%, whereas at the pulp it increases to about 22%.
Dentin bonding systems can vary according to the depth of the dentin; the
deeper the dentin, the greater the water content in the tubules. The most
successful bonding systems can bond equally well to wet and dry dentin.
18. Explain the hydrodynamic mechanism as it relates to the causes of
dentin hypersensitivity.
As postulated, a stimulating irritant that comes in contact with exposed
dentin causes the sudden movement of fluid in the dentinal tubules. If the flow of
this fluid is rapid enough, the mechanosensitive nerve fibers at the pulp-dentin
interface will fire, causing sharp pain in the tooth. The stimulus may be mechanical
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from biting pressure, a high osmotic gradient like sucrose contact, or even
touching with an instrument.
19. What are the generally accepted principles for cavity preparation?
1. Cavity preparations should be governed by tooth anatomy, tooth position
in the dental arch, extent of the carious lesion, and physical properties of the
filling material.
2. Gingival margins should be ended on enamel whenever possible.
3. Cavity preparation margins should be supragingival whenever possible.
4. Margins of posterior cavity preparations should not end directly in
occlusal contact areas. Contact areas should be composed of one material to allow
for even wear. Uneven wear results if two materials meet at the contact area,
thereby producing open margins.
5. Weakened and unsupported tooth structure should be removed.
6. Maintaining a dry work field with the use of a rubber dam is without
equal and will always enhance the consistent quality of restorations.
20. Describe the principles of cavity preparation for composite resins
and amalgam alloy.
The classic cavity preparations, according to Black's principles, are generally
not needed for contemporary bonded retained composite and amalgam
restorations. Dovetails, retention grooves, and extension into uninvolved occlusal
grooves are generally not needed. Maximizing the tooth structure dominates the
design, with sealants replacing groove extensions.
21. What is the tunnel preparation?
The tunnel preparation is a conservative approach to restoring class II caries
in teeth with relatively small interproximal lesions. It conserves the proximal
marginal enamel by using only the occlusal or a buccal or lingual access and then
angulating either mesially or distally until the external tooth enamel is perforated.
Usually prior application of a matrix band protects the adjacent tooth wall. The
tooth cavity is then packed from the access dimension.
Evacuation of caries
22. What is microair abrasion? What are its major applications?
This technique uses pressurized delivery of abrasive powders (aluminum
oxide) to prepare teeth for restoration. Particle sizes are 10—50 microns. The
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claimed advantages are that microair abrasion is less traumatic, less invasive, and
heatless, often not requiring local anesthesia. It is ideally suited for pit and fissure
sealant preparations and conservative class I and 5 preparations using flowable
composites. Disadvantages include the need for special high-speed evacuation
equipment and high cost of the units.
23. What are the most common methods to lighten vital teeth?
Generally most tooth whitening is done with home bleaching kits using
custom tray fabrication. Office techniques are suitable for some patients based on
type and intensity of stain and the temperament and desire of the patient. Home
treatment requires compliance and patience, whereas chairside techniques are
faster but considerably more costly.
Direct composite or laboratory porcelain veneers are the next most
conservative approach and may be used when bleaching does not produce
satisfactory results. Veneers are also useful when the shape, size, or arrangements
of teeth are esthetically unacceptable. Finally, full coverage porcelain and
porcelain fused to metal crowns are the most invasive approaches, reserved for
cases in which there is a need to replace damaged or missing tooth structure.
24. What are the major expectations of present bleaching techniques?
1. Natural teeth generally darken with age. Patients over 50 accumulate
brown, orange, and yellow stains that are decreased by bleaching. Light yellow or
brown shades lighten better than gray shades. External stains respond better than
deeper internal stains, such as those from tetracycline staining or staining due to
endodontic events.
2. Teeth lighten visibly regardless of the system used, in office or home
methods.
3. The degree of lightening is a function of the concentration of active
ingredient and time of contact. In-office techniques use higher concentrations
applied for several hours on isolated teeth, whereas at-home methods use lower
concentrations applied over several weeks in custommolded trays constructed with
reservoirs on the facial surfaces.
4. Generally, few side effects are reported, and they tend to be transient.
5. Teeth retain color for up to several years, although some patients request
touchups at 6—12 month intervals. Patients with high consumption of coffee, tea,
cola, or similar beverages may require more frequent applications.
6. All current tooth-lightening products are generally similar when adjusted
for contact time, concentration, pH, and viscosity of reagent. Changes of 2—3
points on the vital shade scale may be anticipated.
25. What are the active ingredients in bleaching systems?
Hydrogen peroxide (H2O2) is the active ingredient in all bleaching systems.
In carbamide peroxide formulations, the H2O2 is stabilized by urea and appears to
be more stable and to produce fewer side effects than when used alone. A 10%
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carbamide peroxide solution contains 7% urea and 3% H2O2 Formulations are
presently available containing 3—50% H2O2 Formulations are based in viscous gels
to avoid side effects and to maximize the retention to teeth. They are buffered to
near neutral pH.
26. What is the mechanism of action of IH in lightening teeth?
H2O2 oxidizes and removes interprismatic organic matter within the tooth to
lighten the shade.
27. What "energized" in-office methods help to speed the lightening of
teeth?
The application of heat, curing light, or laser shortens the lightening
process; roughly 2 hours in office equal 2 weeks at home. The quicker action is
due to much higher peroxide concentrations delivered on rubber dam isolated
teeth and does not seem to be due to the type of energizing.
28. Which method of bleaching produces the best results?
Split-arch comparisons seem to indicate that no discernible differences in
lightening are achieved by any single energized method; the effect is a function
only of concentration and time.
29. What are the possible side effects of bleaching? What are some
solutions?
Some patients report tooth sensitivity. Sensitivity is more common with
energized forms of application and higher solution concentrations. The use of a
prescription-strength fluoride dentifrice, such as Prevident 5000 Plus (Colgate),
alleviates this problem. Using well-contoured mouth guard application trays can
minimize soft tissue irritation. Sore throats can be avoided by using the minimal
quantity of bleach in the tray to avoid overflow. Shorter daily contact intervals are
generally as effective as overnight use of trays. Most all products lose reagent
activity to < 25% by 2—3 hours so that longer daily use may cause only soft
tissue irritation.
30. How effective are whitening toothpastes?
Generally they have minimal effect but may prolong the effect of direct
bleaching.
31. How are endodontically treated teeth bleached?
Most discoloration of pulpal degeneration is internal and/or due to remnants
of endodontic paste fillers. Such teeth generally require bleaching from the access
cavity. The sooner the bleaching is started after the endodontic event, the more
successful the lightening. Often access chambers are packed with a mixture of
H2O2 and sodium perborate, the so-called "walking bleach."
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32. Describe the technique of enamel microabrasion.
Microabrasion is the controlled removal of discolored enamel using a rubber
cup and a mixture of pumice and an acid, usually hydrochloric acid. This technique
is effective for treating superficial enamel discoloration (white or brown spots)
caused by and often seen after orthodontic treatment.
33. What are helpful aids in choosing colors for anterior teeth?
Choose the color with color-corrected or natural light. Match teeth that are
moist. Liquid coatings (saliva) alter reflected light. Place a cotton roll behind
adjacent teeth to study changes in color, and note incisal shade changes that
occur with light and dark backgrounds.
34. When is the optimal time to bleach in the treatment- planning
sequence?
In general, the optimal time is before beginning the final restorative phase.
Bleaching lightens tooth color. Colors of crowns and composites need to be
matched to the final tooth color, because composite and porcelain restorations will
not change color and will be mismatched if subsequent bleaching is performed.
35. What are the major applications for direct bonded restorations in
anterior teeth?
• Small chips, fractures, cracks or caries of a single tooth
• Closing small spaces between teeth and correcting minor malpositions
• Color correction of small spots and enamel dysplasias
• Correcting esthetic problems in children and young adults
36. Which clinical variables determine the choice among direct bonding
via composite resins, porcelain veneers, or full coverage crowns?
1. Amount of remaining tooth structure. More than 50% tooth loss
requires full coverage. Small discrepancies and tooth structure loss are bondable
with composite resins. -
2. Financial consideration. In general, full coverage is the most
expensive and direct bonding is the least expensive. Porcelain veneers are
moderately priced.
3. Age of the patient. Bonding, which is flexible and easy to change as the
situation may require, may be best in younger patients.
4. Occlusal variables. Full coverage crowns have the greatest strength.
5. Periodontal considerations. Unstable periodontal maintenance and
unknown outcomes or prognosis generally suggest provisional reconstruction.
6. Correction of color discrepancy. Darkly stained teeth are best masked
with porcelain. Tooth reduction is necessary to allow room for opaquers and to
mask stain properly without overcontouring.
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7. Maintenance requirements. Bonding requires the most maintenance,
porcelain the least. Porcelain is more color-stable in heavy smokers and in drinkers
of alcohol, coffee, and tea.
8. Tooth reduction issues. With porcelain, tooth reduction is always
needed. Bonding may need little to no reduction.
9. Esthetic color issues. For single or few color changes, bonding is
esthetic in low-light conditions and with flash photography. Porcelain has poor
metamerism (reflection characteristics) when mixed with natural teeth or
composites.
10. Correction of failures. Porcelain veneers can fracture or debond.
When the natural life expectancy expires, more aggressive treatment is necessary.
Direct bonded restorations are relatively easy to correct and repair when failures
occur.
37. What are acid etchants?
To create bonding to tooth substrate, enamel, or dentin, dilute acids of
phosphoric, citric, maleic or polyacrylic compounds are applied. They create
microporosity in the enamel prism layer and remove the surface smear layer of
dentin.
38. What is the composition of the smear layer?
The smear layer is a film of microcrystalline debris that remains on dentin
after it is cut with rotary instruments.
39. What is the meaning of total etch?
This term refers to the simultaneous etch of dentin and enamel prior to
resin bonding.
40. What is the function of the addition of benzalkonium chloride (BAG)
to etchant gels?
BAG is an antibacterial compound that helps to eliminate microorganisms
from the cavity preparation during etching.
41. What are typical etch times for enamel etchant?
It is important to verify the produce manufacturer's specification sheet for
representative times, but typically the following times apply:
10% etchants: 30 sec
20% etchants: 20 sec
37% etchants: 15 sec
42. Describe enamel/ dentin- bonding systems.
Dentin-bonding agents are complex and multistep systems. Some products
remove the smear layer, whereas others do not. Examples of products are
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One-Step (BISCO), Scotchbond (3M), and Prime&Bond (Caulk). The components
of each system include:
1. The etchant: phosphoric acid, nitric acid, or another agent that is used to
etch enamel and/or precondition the dentin. There may be other dentin
conditioners, such as ethylenediamine tetraacetic acid (EDTA) to remove the
smear layer.
2. The primer: a hydrophylic monomer in solvent, such as
hydroxymethalmethacrylate (HEIMA). The primer is applied in several coatings to
moist dentin and air-dried to remove solvent. It acts as a wetting agent and
provides micromechanical and chemical bonding to dentin.
3. The unfilled resin is then applied and light or dual-cured. This layer can
now bond to composite, pretreated porcelain luted with composite, or amalgam in
some products.
43. What are the major differences between bonding to enamel and
bonding to dentin?
Both enamel and dentin bonding involve micromechanical retention. The
conditioned or
acid-treated surface has porosity to receive the low viscosity resins that
interlock as they solidify. Acid-etched enamel, however, is more uniform, and
bonding strengths are more predictable than dentin bonding, due, in part, to the
varying composition of different types of dentin (i.e., normal or sclerotic, primary
and secondary dentin, coronal or root dentin). The higher water and protein
content of this vital tissue makes the bonding process much more complex.
44. What is the effect on pulpal biology from the etching of vital
dentin?
In recent years more information has elucidated the effect of acid on pulp
histology. Current knowledge indicates no apparent consequences from vital
dentin etching.
45. What is the effect of vital etching on pulpal sensitivity?
When dentin is etched, the smear layer is removed. This results in removal
of the tissue plugs in dentin tubules with the potential for fluid flow and
subsequent neurostimulation of the pulp.
46. How may tubular flow stimulation be minimized?
By following a proper protocol for sealing the dentin tubules, any potential
pulpal sensitivity may be minimized.
47. How are dentin tubular structures best sealed?
Current fifth-generation dentin-bonding systems afford the greatest sealing
capacity and offer high-strength bonding to dentin.
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48. What potential problem may cause an incomplete seal of dentin
tubules?
Incomplete placement of the bonding reagents may result in an increase in
postoperative pulpal sensitivity. There may be incomplete wetting in application of
the primer agent or incomplete curing of the bonding agent. One must be sure to
place incremental layers of wetting agent until a glossy appearance is observed on
gentle air dispersion. A well-calibrated curing light must be used for sufficient
exposure times.
49. What factors contribute to increased pulpal sensitivity even with
proper sealing protocols?
If the dentin is dried too completely, air einboli may enter the dentin tubules
and the dentinbonding layer may seal over the layer of air. The layer of air creates
a potential for mechanical masticatory stresses and a resultant sensitivity in biting
on the tooth-restoration unit. To best avoid this problem, one must leave the
dentin moist by gentle air dispersion, /7c>f drying. Then the hydrophilic primers will
follow fluid down the tubules and fill both intertubular dentin and tubules with
resin.
50. What happens when acid etchants come near pulpal tissue?
Studies confirm that healing and dentin bridge formation occur directly
adjacent to acidic materials. However, overetching, improper rinsing, or improper
placement of materials may lead to postoperative sensitivity. Use the correct
procedure protocols for etch time, washing, and resin placement.
51. What guidelines apply to etching?
Etching is a function of time and concentration. The most common etchant
is phosphoric acid at 20—40%, which may be used as a 15— 20-second total etch
and produces an excellent enamel etch. It is important to keep a clean surface
free of contaminants and to rinse the etched surface for a period about equal to
the etch time. Be careful not to overdry the dentin surface— leave it moist.
52. What is the hybrid layei?
The hybrid layer is a multilayered zone of composite resin, dentin, and
collagen. After removing the organic and inorganic debris of the smear layer by
etching and some hydroxyapatite from the intertubular dentin down to 2—5 1.1, a
plate of moist collagen remains on the dentin floor. Priming agents penetrate this
moist collagen substrate and migrate into the tubules, lateral canals and all areas
of peritubular dentin. This process promotes hybridization as the dentin, collagen,
and hydroxyapatite crystals become totally impregnated with bonding resin. The
resin further penetrates into the dentin tubules. Light curing produces a
mechanically and chemically bonded surface that can polymerize to composite
restoratives.
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53. What is essential for successful hybrid layer formation?
Supersatu ration of the dentin substrate with primer or wetting agent is
essential. If the etchant time is 15 seconds, the wash should be at least as long.
The water is then dispersed to leave the dentin moist. Multiple coats of priming
agent are applied to achieve a glossy surface on air dispersion. Resin is then
applied and cured.
54. List criteria for successful dentin and enamel bonding.
1. Isolate and maintain a clean field free of saliva and hemorrhage.
2. Etch and rinse for equal times.
3. Dentin should not be overdried; leave it moist. Excessive air-drying may
create air emboli in dentin tubules, preventing the penetration of primer.
4. Apply multiple layers of primer to dentin.
5. Air-dry enamel and dentin. Dentin should appear glossy, and enamel
should appear dull and chalky.
6. Apply resin. Do not air-disperse excessively. Too thin of an adhesive film
may result in a weak bond— better to have a little too much.
7. Fully cure the bonding agent before placing the composite resin to ensure
a good hybrid layer formation. Otherwise the composite may pull off the bonding
agent and weaken the seal.
8. Check the output of the curing light regularly. A weak light will result in
insufficient curing.
9. Apply composite incrementally— not over 2 mm per layer.
10. Initiate cure through the tooth margins as composite is drawn toward
the curing source.
55. What are typical bond strengths for fifth- generation bonding
systems?
The formation of the hybrid layer can achieve a breakage rate of 25—28
MPa, which actually exceeds the breakage rate of dentin itself (22—24 MPa).
56. Discuss current concepts of pulpal protection.
Former concepts advocated a thermal liner or base under amalgam
restorations. If 1—3 mm of dentin remains under the cavity preparation, sufficient
thermal protection is present. Sealing dentin tubules is considered important to
minimize postoperative pulpal sensitivity and to prevent bacterial contamination by
microleakage. Microleakage can wash out such liners as calcium hydroxide. Sealing
dentin tubules by bonding protects the pulp from postoperative sensitivity and
offers long-term protection against bacterial contamination from microleakage.
57. What can be said about the classic role of calcium hydroxide?
Calcium hydroxide compounds have a long tradition of providing pulpal
protection as a liner under restorative materials. It serves as an insulator, a
stimulator of dentin repair via bridge formation, and a bactericidal agent (because
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of its high pH). However, it does not bond to dentin, does not seal tubules, and is
prone to wash out if microleal<age occurs.
58. What compounds stimulate dentin bridging?
• Calcium hydroxide
• Zinc phosphate cements
• Resin composite systems
Eugenol and amalgam compounds do nots\\o\N bridge formation.
59. What is the recommended treatment for a direct vital pulp
exposure?
1. Control hemorrhage using irrigation with saline or sodium hypochlorite.
2. Apply a calcium hydroxide capping agent (Dycal).
3. Cover with a layer of glass ionomer cement (Vitrabond).
4. Etch, bond, and restore.
5. Alternatively, some authorities advocate direct etching, priming, and
bonding after hemorrhage control as a direct cap procedure.
60. Summarize the guidelines for preparing dentin.
1. Total etching is advantageous to remove debris from tubules.
2. Rinse for a time at least equal to the etch time.
3. Air-disperse liquids on dentin. Do not desiccate or overdry to avoid air
eniboli.
4. Prime with multiple repetitive coats to saturate dentin.
5. Apply bonding resin and air-disperse (these steps may be combined if a
single-step agent is used.)
6. Cure with a light that is regularly calibrated.
7. Fill the restoration with amalgam, compomers, composite, or other
restorative materials.
This bonding of dentin ensures maximal sealing of dentjn tubules and
minimizes postoperative sensitivity while ensuring protection from microleakage.
61. What were some of the pitfalls of early dentin- bonding materials?
First- and second- generation dentin- bonding systems used the
smear layer to achieve strengths of 4—5 MPa but could not manage the 1 5-MPa
stresses created during polymerization shrinkage of the filling resin materials.
Postoperative sensitivities and recurrent decay under composite restorations
without full enamel surround for bonding resulted primarily from microleakage due
to the incomplete bond to dentin.
Third-generation systems achieved bond strengths up to 10 MPa by
using two-component primer and adhesive systems (Prisma Bond, ScotchBond II).
These agents had hydrophilic wetting primers and used total etching to achieve
micromechanical retention in dentin tubules.
Fourth-generation systems formed a hybrid zone of both intertubular
and tubular dentin to increase bond strengths to 18 MPa. Intertubular dentin
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bonding greatly increased the surface area. Characteristics of these systems were
total etch, moist dentin applications, and multiple chemical components (Bisco: All-
Bond; 3M: Scotchbond MP). These systems have been used for direct posterior
composite restorations.
Current fifth- generation systems are characterized by single-component
priming and bonding. Dentin bond strengths are 25—28 MPa, and postoperative
sensitivity is well controlled. Some materials can be used without etching dentin,
and most incorporate fluoride. One system contains elastomeric components to
improve marginal integrity (examples: Bisco: One-Step; 3M: Single Bond; C
Prime&Bond 2.1).
62. What is the clinical significance of newer product claims about
retention and microleakage?
Clinical evidence clearly shows improved in vitro performance of newer
products. But older restorative materials, such as gold inlays seated with zinc
phosphate, often have useful service exceeding 30 years, despite higher rates of
microleakage.
63. Summarize the difference between enamel and dentin bonding.
Bonding to enamel is due primarily to resin tags that mechanically lock into
the acid-etched enamel surface. Resin bonding to dentin is obtained mechanically
and chemic
64. Can primers aftect resin bonding to enamel?
No. Original second-, third-, and fourth-generation resin-bonding agents are
not affected by primers applied to etched enamel during the dentin application
phase.
65. Can one apply too much or too little adhesive resin to dentin?
Enamel?
Application of too little resin to dentin may result in a permeable layer with
incomplete seal of the dentin tubules. An adequate layer (glossy appearance) is
best. Too much sealant on the cavosurface margin (interface between composite
resin and enamel) may result in a margin of lower wear resistance. It is best to
lightly air-disperse the resin layer.
66. Define direct resin, indirect resin, and indirect- direct resin
restorations.
Direct resin restorations are the placement of composite resins into class
1, 2, 3, and 5 preparations directly at chairside. They are the most commonly
performed restorations.
Indirect resin procedures involve tooth preparation, impressions, and
temporization as a first visit. Laboratory fabrication of onlays or inlays of resin or
ceramic restorations are cemented on a second visit.
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I ndirect- direct resin restorations are a single-visit technique using fast-
setting die stones that allow preparation, impression-taking, chairside fabrication
of the restoration, and delivery of the final inlay or onlay.
67. Wliat are the chemical components of composite resins?
• Principal and diluent monomers • Polymerization initiators
• Coupling agents • Radiation absorbers
68. Describe the function of each monomer component.
Principal monomers are high-molecular-weight compounds that can undergo
free radical addition polymerization to create rigid cross-linked polymers. The most
common monomer is BISGMA (an aromatic dimethacrylate that is the addition
product of bisphenol A and glycidal methacrylate [GMA]). An alternative monomer
is urethane dimethacrylate.
Diluent monomers are low-molecular-weight compounds used to reduce the
viscosity of the unpolymerized resins to enable better physical properties and
handling. There are two types: monofunctional (methyl methacrylate) and
difunctional (ethylene glycol dimethacrylate or triethylene glycol). The latter are
used most often because they form harder and stronger cross-linked composite
structures due to a lower coefficient of thermal expansion. They also have less
polymerization shrinkage, are less volatile, and have less water absorption.
69. What are the filler particles?
Inorganic filler particles used in composite resins include quartz, glass, and
colloidal silica together with additions of lithium, barium, or strontium to enhance
optical properties. These fillers are coated with a silane coupling agent
(organosilane) to bond adhesively to the organic resin matrix. Silane bonds to the
quartz, glass, and silica particles, whereas the organic end bonds to the resin
matrix.
70. What is the mechanism of silane coupling?
During free radical polymerization of organic BIS-GMA, covalent bonds are
formed between this polymer matrix and the silane coupling agent, commonly
gamma methacryloxypropyltrimethoxy. The coupling agent, which coats the filler
particles at the silane end, thus holds the inorganic and organic phases together.
This further prevents water absorption.
71. What is the mechanism of polymerization in composite resin
systems?
Benzoyl peroxide and aromatic tertiary amines are used to initiate
polymerization reactions by supplying free radicals. This process is induced by
photoactivation with visible light in the 420^50-nm range, using alpha-diketones
and a reducing agent, often a tertiary aliphatic amine. The diketone absorbs light
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to form a excited triplet state, which, together with the amine, produces ion
radicals to initiate polymerization.
72. Describe the function of polymerization inhibitors.
Inhibitors are necessary to provide shelf life and delay the polymerization
reaction, thus allowing clinical placement of composite materials. The
dimethylacrylate monomers spontaneously polymerize in the presence of
atmospheric oxygen. To this end monomethyl ethers of hydroquinone are used as
inhibitors.
73. What are radiation absorbers?
Ultraviolet absorbers provide color stability to composite resins and thus
limit discoloration.
74. IHow are composites classified?
In general, classification systems are based on filler particle size and how
the fillers are distributed:
Particle size
• Large particle (conventional) composites): 20—50 pm in diameter
• Intermediate: 1—5 pm
• Hybrids or blends: 0.8—1.0 pm
• Fine particle and minifilled: 0.1—0.5 pm
• Microfilled: 0.05—0.1 pm
Distribution of fillers
• Homogenous microfilled: organic matrix and directly admixed microfiller
particles
• Heterogeneous microfilled: organic matrix, directly admixed microfiller
particles, and microfiller-based complexes
75. Which are presently the most commonly used composite blends?
The microfilled and hybrid composites.
76. What are the desirable properties of each type?
Microfills: more esthetic, with better depth of color and more lifelike
reflective properties. They polish to a high gloss and are ideal for anterior esthetics
and nearly invisible repairs.
Hybrids: greater strength and more opaque. They may be used as the sole
restorative for both anterior and posterior restorations.
77. How are hybrids and microfilled composites used together to
maximize strength and esthetics (the so-called sandwich technique)?
1. The sandwich technique is a layering of materials to create the optimal
combination of desirable properties in a restoration. In a class IV anterior
restoration of an incisal angle, for example, first using a hybrid composite to build
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up the body of underlying dentin provides strength and dentinlil<e opacity. Then
overlaying the final tooth structure with a microfilled composite provides incisal
translucency, desired reflective characteristics, and the high polishability of a
microfill.
2. A layer of hybrid, together with opaquers, may block out undesirable
colors before using a microfill.
3. All posterior restorations, as well as porcelain repairs and periodontal
splinting, benefit from the superior strength of a hybrid.
78. What are composite opaquers or tints? IHow may they be used?
Opaquers and tints are light-cured, low-viscosity, highly shaded composites
used to add esthetic characteristics to restorations. They often match the Vita
Shade System and can be brushed on in layers to create lifelike matches to natural
teeth. They may be applied on a bonded tooth, between layers of the sandwich
build-up, or even on the surface to characterize the restoration (example: Renamel
Creative Color, Cosmedent).
79. What are the possible adverse effects of composite resin?
There have been reports of chronic soft tissue inflammation from composite
particles imbedded during operative procedures and hypersensitivity reactions to
one or more of the components in composites.
80. What are the advantages of glass ionomer restorative materials?
They bond to tooth structure, have near ideal expansion-contraction ratio
and low microleakage, and release fluoride. The light-cured materials are the
easiest to work with because they provide extended working times; have rapid,
on-demand set; and are less technique-sensitive on mixing.
81. How are glass ionomer cements (Gl C) classified?
GICs are mixed powder-liquid component systems. The powder consists of a
calcium-aluminofluorosilicate glass that reacts with polyacrylic acid to form a
cement of glass particles surrounded by a matrix of fluoride elements.
1. Hydrous types: a slower-setting material characterized by a viscous
liquid of polyacrylic acid, tartaric acid, itaconic acid, and water plus
fluoroaluminosilicate glass powder. Examples: GC Lining cement (GC America),
Chelon-Silver (Espe-America).
2. Anhydrous types: fluoroaluminosilicate glass, vacuum-dried polyacrylic
acid, itaconic acid powder, and a solution of water and tartaric acid. These
materials have better shelf life. Example: Ketac Chem (Espe-Premiere).
3. Hybrid forms: combination of anhydrous and hydrous forms of glass
ionomer powder and liquid. Example: Fuji II (GC America).
4. Light-cured glass ionomers: an acid-base setting material in a
photo-initiated liquid. These materials offer extended working times and rapid,
on-demand set-up and are less technique-sensitive on mixing. Examples:
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Vitrabond (3M) and XR lonomer (Kerr).
82. What are metal- reinforced Gl Cs?
Metallic silver particles of up to 40% of weight are added to GICs to
increase the strength and to speed the setting time. Metal-reinforced GICs may be
used (1) for core build-ups when at least 50% of tooth structure remains (GICs
alone do not have the strength to be a total core); (2) as a temporary filling
material; and (3) as a filler or base/liner for undercuts in any cavity preparation.
An example is KetecSilver (Espe-Premiere).
83. What are compomers?
Compomers are a single light-cured component made by adding glass
ionomer particles to acidic polymerizable monomers in a resin matrix. The material
is flowable, adheres to dentin with bonding resin, releases fluoride, and promises
good esthetics. It is indicated for class V and I restorations and may be used
under amalgams or composite resins as a base or liner due to its lower viscosity
(examples: Dyract [Caulk/Dentsply], Hytack [ESPE]). Compomers are used with
fifthgeneration single-component primer-adhesives and claim to bond to dentin
without acid etching.
84. What are flowable composites? What are their applications?
Flowable composites are low-viscosity, visible light-cured, radiopaque,
hybrid composite resins, often containing fluoride. They are dispensed by syringe
directly into cavity preparations and have 37—53% filler by volume (compared
with 60% in conventional composites). They are claimed to be easy to deliver via
a narrow syringe tip, offer flexibility for class 5 preparations, and are able to
access small areas. They may be used as a base material under class I and II
restorations. Although long-term performance is not known, they seem well suited
for the long channels of air abrasion preparations, cementing veneers, dental
sealants, margin repairs of all types, inner layer in sandwich techniques, porcelain
repairs, and sealing the head of implants. Examples are Aeliteflo (BISCO),
Floresore (DenMat), Revolution (Kerr), and Ultraseal XT Plus (Ultradent).
85. What are the advantages of all-purpose composite resins?
Products such as Geristore (Den-Mat) are termed multipurpose products.
They are smallparticle fluoride-releasing, self- or dual-curing composites and have
high compressive strengths and low viscosity. They have applications as cements,
bases and liners, or pediatric restoratives. They bond to dentin, enamel porcelain,
amalgam, precious and semiprecious metals, and moist surfaces. They function as
luting materials for crowns (with dentin-bonding systems) and are suitable for
Maryland bridge bonding.
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86. What are resin surface sealants?
Resin surface sealants are light-cured, thin-viscosity, unfilled resin
compounds placed on the surface of direct resin restorations after final finishing
and polishing. Their primary function is to enhance the marginal seal of the
restoration. Example: Fortify (BISCO).
87. What are glass ionomer resin cements?
Resin-modified glass ionomers (RMGI) improve the properties of glass
ionomers significantly:
1. They are easy to mix and place.
2. They are equal or higher in fluoride release.
3. They have higher retention, higher strength, lower solubility, and lower
postoperative sensitivity than glass ionomer or zinc phosphate cements.
Current brands are Vitremere (3M), Advance (CaulklDentsply), and Fuji Duet (GC).
Clinical Comparison of Popular Resin-Modified Glass Ionomer (RMGI) Cements
BRAND AND COMPANY
PRIMER/
CONDITIONER
EASE OF
MIX
VISCOSITY
SET CEMENT
REMOVAL
Advance
Caulk/Dentsply
(800) 532-2855
FAX: (800)422-3591
Duet
G.C. America Inc.
(800) 323-7063
FAX: (708) 371-5103
Vitremer luting cement
3M Dental Products
(800) 634-2249
FAX (612) 733-2481
Elective dentin-
bonding
agent
Dentin
conditioner
Excellent
Excellent
None
Excellent
High flow
High flow
Mousse-like,
high flow
Difficult
Moderately
difficult
Easy
BRAND AND COMPANY
POSTOPERATIVE
SENSITIVITY
OXYGEN
INHIBITION
RECOMMENDATIONS
AND OBSERVATIONS
Advance
Caulk/Dentsply
(800) 532-2855
FAX: (800)422-3591
Duet
G.C. America Inc.
(800) 323-7063
FAX: (708) 371-5103
Vitremer luting cement
3M Dental Products
(800) 634-2249
FAX (612) 733-2481
None
None
None
Present-
Leave excess
before debris
removal.
Present-
Leave excess
before debris
removal.
Present-
Leave excess
before debris
removal.
strongest RMGI, excellent for
short crowns or low retention
fixed prostheses
Elective increase in retention
when primer is used
Debris removal requires more
time than other RMGIs.
Intermediate strength
Excellent for routine crown and
fixed prosthesis cementation
Debris more difficult to remove
than Vitremer
Easiest RMGI to use
Weakest RMGLbut still stronger
than traditional cements
Excellent for routine crown and
fixed prosthesis cementation
Adapted from CRA Newsletter 20(2): 1. 1996, with permission.
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197
88. What are resin cements?
Resin cements are two-part, autocuring adhesives for single crowns,
l^aryland bridges, and fixed prosthetics. There are two categories: resin [ (C&B
IMetabond, Parke!!), and resin [ (Paniva 21, J. i^orita). They provide some of the
highest bond strengths to metal and tooth and the greatest retention.
89. What are the indications and contraindications for the use of direct
placement compos ite resins in class 2 restorations?
I ndications
1. The best use is for narrow-slot restorations and smaller restorations of
one-quarter to one-third of intercuspal distance.
2. If used in larger, greater than one-third intercuspal distance, weak cusps
must be covered; longevity is not considered long-term.
Contraindications
1. Patients with known amalgam allergies and patients who wish to avoid
metal restorations.
2. Bruxers, clenchers, and patients with extensive tooth loss that would
place resin margins in occlusal contact.
90. Discuss the major challenges of the class 2 composite restoration.
1. All current resins wear significantly more than silver amalgam. To
minimize wear, sufficient light-curing is suggested: 30— 40-second cures on facial,
occlusal, and lingual surfaces with a calibrated light source.
2. Class 2 composite restorations are generally time- and technique-
sensitive. Contact areas are harder to establish, and finishing is time-consuming.
Use magnification to view. Thin, dead, soft-matrix bands should be well burnished
against the proximal tooth and held tightly with one instrument as the second
instrument places composite against the band and curing occurs. Finish dry, using
sharp, 12-bladed burrs and a light touch.
3. Sufficiently light-cure primer and bonding resins before placing composite
to avoid postoperative tooth sensitivity. Apply composite in small 2-mm
increments.
91. What are optimal characteristics of visible curing lights?
1. High-intensity output (> 300 mW/cm^)
2. 12-mm, 60° light wand; changeable
3. Built-in radiometer
4. Continuous on feature with overheating
5. Timer with audible beeps every 10 seconds
92. How can one achieve a tight interproximal contact in direct class 2
posterior composite restorations?
1. Use a thin burnished band, well-adapted and wedged.
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2. Apply force proximally to the band with an instrument while curing the
composite. This technique holds the restoration tightly against the band and
provides optimal contact.
93. What are the major considerations in repairing older composite
restoration?
As composites age, it is harder to bond chemically to the surface. There are
fewer reactive sites on the resin surface, and impregnated proteins and debris
limit the bonding capacity. It is necessary to remove the outer surface with a burr
to remove contaminants and increase the surface area. Pumice followed by
etching proceeds as usual. Coating with silane allows better bonding to the silica
particles. Final application of unfilled resin and curing before placement of the
composite should result in predictable bonding.
94. IHow is a fractured porcelain restoration repaired?
The first step is to determine the cause. Is it a structural weakness or
perhaps an occlusal stress-related fracture? Try to resolve any causative factors
first. The next step is to create some mechanical hold wherever possible. Roughen
and bevel around the defect, because the restorative cannot bond to a glazed
surface. Microetch when possible with a microetcher or a porcelain acid etchant
such as 10—12% hydrofluoric acid gel. Then silenate and apply bonding resin,
opaquers, and, finally, the appropriate color of composite restorative.
95. How does bonding to a metal surface differ from the porcelain
repair?
The principal steps of bonding are similar, but the preparation of the metal
surface may include air abrasion of the nonprecious metal (with a microetcher)
and tin-plating of the precious metal. The bond strengths of resin cements are
greatly enhanced.
96. Summarize the technique for an indirect- direct single-visit
composite resin restoration.
1. Prepare a class 2 inlay/onlay restoration without undercuts.
2. Take an alginate impression.
3. Inject Mach-2 Die Silicone (Parkell) into alginate impression (sets in
minutes).
4. Mai a base for the die by placing silicone impression material over the
Mach-2/alginate impression.
5. Trim the Mach-2 die with a sharp blade.
6. Make the composite restoration on the die. Cure with visible curing light.
7. Remove, trim grossly, and seat on tooth. Adjust, finish, and polish the
proximal contacts.
8. Seat the restoration using a bonded resin cement; fine finish and polish.
The major advantages of this technique are as follows: (1) polymerization
shrinkage occurs on the die, not on the tooth, giving a better seal; (2) any size
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restoration may be constructed; and (3) this single-visit procedure requires no
provisional restoration and a minimal amount of time.
97. What clinical procedures should be avoided because they may
injure pulps of teeth?
1. Dull burrs and diamonds may result in increased heat production.
2. Noncentric handpieces traumatize teeth like minijackhammers.
3. Inadequate water delivery causes heat and dehydration.
4. Overdrying of tooth preparations dehydrates the pulp, causing sensitivity.
5. The acidity of astringent materials such as Hemodent (pH 1.9) may cause
injury if left in dentin or root contact. Use only minimally on cord or in sulcus.
6. Temporary resin exothermic reactions for provisional restorations may be
harmful. Cool with water often during exothermal period.
7. Poor fitting temporary restorations may result in leakage that injures
pulps. Margins should fit well.
8. Overcontoured restorations may result in trauma from occlusion. Carefully
adjust occlusion, and check in all excursions.
98. What is the composition of dental amalgam?
Dental amalgam is an alloy composed of silver, tin, copper, and mercury.
The basic setting reaction involves the mixing of the alloy complex of silver (Ag)
and tin (Sn) with mercury (Hg) to form the so-called gamma phase alloy (original
silver/tin) surrounded by secondary phases called gamma-i (silver/mercury) and
gamma-2 (tin/mercury). The weakest component is the gamma-2 phase, which is
less resistant to corrosion.
AGzSn -I- Hg ^- AgsSn -i- Ag2Hg3 -i- SnsHg
Gamma Gamma-1 Gamma-2
Alloys are manufactured as filings or spherical particles; dispersed alio are
mixtures of both. Smaller particle size results in higher strength, lower flow, and
better carvability. Spherical amalgams high in copper usually have the best tensile
and compressive characteristics.
99. What is the functional advantage of a high copper content in dental
amalgam?
Copper contents over 6% eliminate the gamma-2 phase and result in alloys
of much better marginal stability.
100. How can one tell when an amalgam is properly triturated?
A properly triturated amalgam mix appears smooth and homogenous. No
granular appearance or porosity should be evident. An overtritu rated mix is
preferable to an undermixed preparation.
101. What are the common types of amalgam alloys used today?
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Alloys are supplied in different particle shapes and sizes to influence the
handling and setting properties. The blended alloy is a mixture of fine-cut and
spherical particles, whereas all spherical alloys are composed of spherical particles
(Dispersalloy, Caulk). Because spherical alloys are fast-setting, they are
particularly suitable for core build-ups and impression taking in one visit. A new
breed of non— mercury-containing alloy uses gallium and silver (Galloy, Southern
Dental Industries). This alloy requires a moisture-free environment on setting and
is best as a bonded restoration.
102. Should all amalgams be bonded?
State-of-the-art technique says yes. Amalgam bonding effectively seals
dentin tubules, nearly eliminating postoperative sensitivity. It has the added
benefits of retention of the restorative and a stronger total cohesive mass to
support all remaining cuspal segments of the tooth.
103. What is the mechanism of bonding amalgams?
The use of a self-curing resin liner (Amalgambond, Parkell, or All Bond 2,
BISCO) provides a bond to tooth substrate and amalgam. As the amalgam is
condensed into the unpolymerized resin, a micromechanical bond is formed.
104. What is considered the most important requisite for successful
adhesive dentistry?
The formation of maximal strength bonding requires a clean operating field
free of debris and contamination. Whenever possible, this is best achieved with a
rubber dam.
105. What factors help to retain alloy restorations?
Optimal retention warrants the use of pins, groves, channels, or holes
placed in sound tooth areas.
106. What are the guidelines for use of pins to retain dental amalgams?
1. Pins should extend 2 mm into tooth structure.
2. Pins should be placed fully in dentin. If they are too close to the
dentoenamel junction, the enamel may fracture from the tooth. In general, they
should be placed at the line angles where the root mass is the greatest.
3. Pins should extend 2 mm into amalgam; further extension only weakens
the tensile and shear strength of the amalgam.
4. Pins should be aligned parallel to the radicular emergence profile or to
the nearest external enamel wall. Additional angulations may be used when there
is no danger of pulpal or periodontal ligament perforation.
5. If the tooth structure is flat, the small retentive channels cut into the
tooth structure pre vent potential torsional and lateral stress.
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107. What are the potential complications of the use of pins to retain
restorations?
Pin placement may result in pulpal exposure, perforation through the
periodontal ligament, and fracture of a tooth. In addition, pins may weaken an
amalgam if they extend farther than 2 mm into the mass. The use of a
dentin-bonded resin liner helps to seal potential fracture lines, but placement
requires skill and expert technique.
108. What should be done if accidental exposure of the pulp or
perforation of the periodontal ligament occurs during pin placement?
If the pulp is exposed by the pinhole, allow the bleeding to stop, dry with a
sterile paper point, and place calcium hydroxide in the hole. Do not place a pin in
the hole. Usually the pulp will heal. If a penetration of the gingival sulcus or
periodontal ligament space occurs, clean, dry, and place the pin to the measured
depth of the external tooth surface to seal the opening.
109. What is the purpose of finishing and polishing amalgam
restorations?
Amalgam restorations should be finished and polished for three main
reasons: (1) to reduce marginal discrepancies and create a more hygienic
restoration; (2) to reduce marginal breakdown and recurrent decay; and (3) to
prevent tarnishing and increase the quality of appearance of the restoration.
Polishing is often a neglected part of treatment, either for lack of opportunity to
recall or from the feeling of not being compensated for the added service.
However, polishing a restoration or two at each recall may define the state-of-the-
art dental practice.
110. What is the sequence for polishing amalgams?
Begin gross contouring with multifluted finishing burrs usually at least one
day after insertion. Burrs come in a val of shapes— round, pear, flame, and bullet-
nosed— and allow anatomic contouring. Shufu-type brownie and greenie points
may be used to create a high luster. Final pumicing with rubber cups completes
the finishing.
111. What is the purpose of a cavity varnish?
Classically, cavity varnishes, such as Copalite, were used to seal dentin
tubules without adding bulk and to protect pulpal tissue from the phosphoric acid
in zinc phosphate cements. Current fifth generation dentin-bonding systems, such
as One-Step (3M) and Prime&Bond (Caulk/Dentsply), fulfill the concept of a cavity
varnish more ideally. Thus the use of copal varnishes is diminishing.
112. What is a cavity liner? What are the indications for its use?
A cavity liner is a relatively thin coating over exposed dentin. It may be self-
hardening or light-cured, and it is usually nonirritating to pulpal tissues. The
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purpose is to create a barrier between dentin and pulpally irritating agents or to
stimulate the formation of reparative, secondary dentin. Calcium hydroxide has
traditionally been placed on dentin with a thickness of 0.5 mm as a pulpal
protective agent. Contemporary practice uses newer dentin-bonding agents for
liner materials. These agents not only provide a barrier to pulpally toxic agents but
also seal the dentin tubules from bacterial microleakage and provide a bondable
surface to increase the retention of the restoration. Glass ionomer cements and
dentin-bonding systems have become the standard liner materials in restorative
dentistry.
113. What is a base? What are the indications for use?
Generally, cements that are thicker than 2—4 mm are termed bases and as
such function to replace lost dentin structure beneath restorations. A base may be
used to provide thermal protection under metallic restorations, to increase the
resistance to forces of condensation of amalgam, or to block out undercuts in
taking impressions for cast restorations. A base should not be used unnecessarily.
Pulpal thermal protection requires a thickness of a least 1 mm, but covering the
entire dentin floor with a base is not thought to be necessary. Generally, the
following guidelines may be used:
1. For deep caries with frank or near exposures or with <0.5 mm of dentin,
apply calcium hydroxide.
2. Under a metal restoration, a hard base may be applied (over the calc
hydroxide) up to 2.0mm in thickness to increase resistance to forces of
condensation.
3. If> 2 mm of dentin is present, usually no base is needed under amalgam;
a liner may be used under composite.
4. Use of a dentin-bonding agent that seals the dentin tubules and bonds to
the restorative material is desirable.
114. What is the function of a post and core?
The post and core links the missing coronal portion of the tooth with the
remaining root structure, allowing retention of the crown.
115. Does a post strengthen endodontically treated teeth?
Contrary to former thought, posts do not reinforce teeth, and they may
weaken some root structures. Widening a canal space for a larger post can
weaken a root. Long posts are more retentive, but too much length may perforate
a root or cause compromise in the apical seal. A good guide is to make the length
about one-half of the bone-supported root length, to allow at least 1 mm of dentin
lateral to the apical end of the post and to leave at least 3—5 mm of apical gutta
purcha filling.
116. Which canals are generally chosen for post space?
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Generally the largest canal is chosen: the palatal canal in maxillary molars
and the distal canal in mandibular molars. Two-rooted bicuspids with minimal
tooth structure may require one post in each canal.
117. How may vertical fractures develop in roots?
1. Wedged or tight-fitting posts may cause fractures.
2. Overpreparation of the internal canal space may weaken a root and cause
fractures.
118. When are posts indicated? When are they not needed?
I ndicated
1. If more than one-half of the coronal tooth structure is missing, place a
post to attach the core material to the root structure.
2. If all of the coronal tooth structure is missing, a post is needed to retain
the core material and to provide antirotational features.
Not needed
1. If minimal coronal tooth structure is missing, as when an access cavity is
made centrally with no caries on the proximal wall, no post is required. Placement
of a bonded filling material to the level of bone will adequately restore the
endodontic access preparation.
2. Up to one-half of coronal tooth structure missing may not need a post
except for teeth with high lateral stresses such as cuspids with cuspid rise
occlusion. Place a bonded crown build-up.
119. How are antirotational features created?
1. Cast cores can be placed in anterior teeth with recessed boxes to limit
rotation.
2. Small cut boxes or channels I-IV2 mm deep and about the width of a
no. 330 burr may be placed into remaining tooth structure.
3. An accessory pin (Minium or Minikin) may be placed nonparallel to the
posts.
120. When a crown preparation is made, where should the finish line
be placed?
The gingival margin should be 1-172 mm apical to the core build-up material
and on the root surface for optimal retention and antirotational resistance. If a
ferrule post and core is used, the crown margin may be placed on the core
material.
121. What are the characteristics for ideal posts?
• The post space must provide adequate retention and support for the core,
and the core must provide adequate support for the fixed restoration.
• Passive fitting is best.
• Resin-bonded posts transmit less force to the root and increase the
structural by bonding the post to the root.
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122. What are the indications for a cast post?
For build-up of single-rooted teeth with little supragingival structure, a cast
post and core with an inset lock preparation and ferrule design will strengthen the
root significantly and prevent rotation.
123. What is the best post design for thin-walled roots?
A cast post incorporating a circumferential ferrule that embraces the root
with a full bevel may be used. The post is abraded and bonded to the tooth root.
124. Of what materials are prefabricated posts constructed?
The most common are stainless steel (nickel, chrome), but titanium alloys
and carbonfiber are gaining popularity.
125. What type of core material is best for prefabricated posts?
Bonded amalgam and bonded composite are equally strong. However,
composites are faster and generally easier.
126. Outline the clinical steps in resin-bonding casts or prefabricated
posts.
1. Prepare the canal space with a hot instrument to remove gutter purcha to
a depth of onehalf of the bone-supported root length, or as governed by root
shape.
2. Refine the canal preparation with Parapost drills or diamonds.
3. Cleanse the canal of debris with H2O2 with a syringe.
4. Treat with etchant 37% for 15 seconds or with 17% EDTA for one minute
to remove the smear layer.
5. Rinse well with water and lightly dry.
6. Microetch the post with air abrasion.
7. Apply resin cement primers and resins to the pbst and the canal
according to product directions.
8. Mix the resin cement and inject into the canal quickly, seating the post.
9. Wipe the excessive cement with a brush dipped in resin while holding the
post until the cement has set.
127. Summarize the guidelines for fillers, build-ups and post and cores.
For full-crown preparations, all old restorative material should be removed
after preliminary tooth preparation. Small areas or missing tooth can be replaced
with a bonded filler (compomer or reinforced glass ionomer); larger sections of
missing tooth should be replaced with a build-up (bonded composite or amalgam);
and an endodontically treated tooth with more than one-half missing coronal
structure should have a titanium alloy post and core with a bonded amalgam or
composite build-up.
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128. What is the current status of the use of amalgam?
Dental amalgam continues to be the most common material worldwide for
the restoration of carious teeth. To date there are no epidemiologic links to its use
and ill health. Countries such as Sweden and Germany have suspended or limited
its use primarily to lower environmental mercury levels by eliminating mercury in
manufacturing. As newer materials that are durable and cost-effective evolve, it is
likely that mercury-containing restorations will be phased out. Until that time, it is
the opinion of world health agencies, medical and dental societies, and the
scientific community at large that amalgam is a safe, durable, and cost-effective
restorative material.
129. What should a dentist know to respond to a patient's inquiry
about amalgam restorations and safety?
A clinician must know all of the related facts about amalgam, health-related
sensitivities, ethics of replacements, and alternative restorative choices.
130. What consideration should be given to a patient's concern about
sensitivity to dental alloys?
It is important to differentiate the type of inquiry:
1. A real allergy or hypersensitivity (as differentiated from toxicity) to dental
alloys and metals is not uncommon. Approximately 3% of the population has some
type of metal sensitivity.
Health questionnaires should pose questions about skin reactions to jewelry
andlor known metal sensitivities. Allergy testing can confirm these sensitivities.
2. Some patients have esthetic concerns and do not wish to have non—
tooth-colored restorations.
3. Some patients have phobias about the alleged toxicity of various dental
materials.
4. Some patients have chronic diseases, such as multiple sclerosis, and are
looking for some causative agent and a miracle cure.
Each group of patients requires appropriate information from dental and
medical sources to help them make informative choices about their dental health.
131. What dental materials are reported to be the most allergenic?
What are the manifestations of these exposures?
Allergic reactions have been reported to involve chromium, cobalt, copper,
and nickel, which has the highest allergic potential; palladium, tin, zinc, silver, and
gold/platinum have the lowest. The symptoms may range from localized chronic
inflammation around restorations and crowns to more generalized oral lichen
planus, geographic glossitis, angular cheilitis, and plicated tongue.
132. Are certain people hypersensitive to mercury?
Yes. But according to the North American Contact Dermatitis Group, true
sensitivity to mercury in subtoxic doses is rare. Studies show that 3% of people
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respond to a 1% mercury patch test. Of these, <0.6% have any clinical
manifestations of mercury sensitivity allergy.
133. Are there any known harmful effects from the mercury content of
dental amalgam?
As a restorative material, silver amalgam has been used in dentistry for over
150 years. The safety of this material has been studied throughout this period,
and no epidemiologic evidence associates general health problems with silver
amalgam. Many health groups around the world have reviewed and contributed to
this conclusion. The World Health Organization, the Swedish Medical Research
Council and the Swedish National Board of Health and Welfare (1994), the British
Dental Association (1995), and U.S. Public Health Service (1993), the National
Institutes of Health and the Institutes of Dental Research, the Food and Drug
Administration (1991), and even Consumer Reports (1991) attest that dental
amalgam fillings are safe to use and that no beneficial health benefits will result
from removal of existing restorations. Organizations such as the National Multiple
Sclerosis Society characterize claims of recovery after removal of dental amalgams
as unsubstantiated, unscientific, and a "cruel hoax." A recent study on aging and
Alzheimer's disease found no evidence that amalgams reduced cognitive functions
in a group of 129 Roman Catholic nuns between the ages of 75 and 102 years.
In conclusion, repeated studies in humans with and without amalgam
restorations show no significant difference in any organ system. Comparisons of
immune cells show no difference in function. Furthermore, no recoveries or
remissions from any chronic diseases after removal of amalgams has been
scientifically demonstrated.
134. What are the physical pathways for mercury to enter the body?
Elemental mercury is abundant in the earth's environment. It exists in the
soil, ocean, and air. The burning of fossil fuels and even volcanic eruptions have
contributed to its widespread dissemination. The use of mercury in manufacturing
through the centuries has led to much of the environmental contamination. In high
enough doses, mercury is neurotoxic. The questions of exposure to mercury from
dental amalgams require clinical elucidation.
Dental amalgam fillings contain 40—45% mercury and elements of silver,
tin, and copper, bound into a metallic complex from which the mercury is not free.
Small amounts of mercury vaporize from the surface with function, pass into the
air, and are exhaled. The amount that is absorbed into the body as a function of
the number of amalgam surfaces is largely excreted by the kidneys into the urine.
The smaller amount that may accumulate in other organs has caused concern.
There are accumulations in the brain, lungs, liver, and GI tract. The ultimate
question is what percentage of a person's total exposure to mercury from all
sources comes from dental amalgams.
The daily intake of mercury attributable to dental amalgams, as measured
by blood levels of mercury, is reported to be only one-seventh (14%) of the
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amount measured from eating one seafood meal per week. The total daily intake
from 8—12 amalgam surfaces is about 1—2 |jg— again, seven times lower than
the intake from one seafood meal per week and only about 10—20% of the
average total exposure (9 [jg/day) from all environmental sources. Clearly the
general environment exposure is much more of a concern. Sweden and Germany
have eliminated dental amalgam manufacturing and use as part of the solution.
Clearly there should be an overall effort to lower environmental mercury. As
newer substi tutes for silver amalgam prove to be as durable, simple to use, and
cost-effective, we may see the gradual phasing out of mercury.
135. What has contributed to "amalgam phobia'7
Because it is well known that elemental mercury is an environmentally toxic
waste, and because hundreds of millions of people have dental amalgams
containing mercury, it is only natural to question the safety to human health. In
what has become a disservice to many, the media have used sensationalism in
reporting stories related to health and dental amalgam in much the same distorted
way that fluoride has been reported to be harmful as a water additive for caries
prevention. Furthermore, as scientific efforts continue to describe the
biocompatibility of mercury, various animal models have been extrapolated to
humans without scientific validity (e.g., studies of the absorption of elemental
mercury for different species require adjustment for the fact that sheep absorb
18—25 times more mercury than humans). Even the dental profession was
implicated when analytical mercury vapor detectors found distortedly high levels of
mercury vapor over amalgam restorations because their calibrations were
inaccurate. The sampling rate of the intake manifolds of the vapor analyzers was
much greater than the rates of human inspiration, and the air intake calculated for
humans was in error by as much as sixteen times. The use of such detectors left
many a responsible dental clinician with erroneous conclusions.
Finally, the reports of many people who experienced a health improvement
when their amalgams are replaced or removed must be viewed carefully before
assuming causal links. A few weeks of monitoring the newsgroup
AMALGAM@Listserv.gme.de on the World Wide Web will show hundreds of cases
of people who experience better health after amalgam removal. Many
psychodynamic issues can be observed in people who report such changes, and
direct links to the amalgam contribution need scientific scrutiny. After all, some
people have genuine allergies to certain materials. From observation of human
experience we as a profession learn to ask the questions that lead to productive
clinical research.
136. What are the ethical issues related to removing a patient's
amalgams?
According to the ADA's Advisory Opinion in the Principles of Ethics and Code
of Professional Practice, it is considered improper and unethical to remove
amalgam restorations from a nonallergic patient for the alleged purpose of
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removing toxic substances from the body when such treatment is solely at the
recommendation of the dentist. If a dentist indicates that such dental treatment
has the capacity to cure or alleviate systemic disease, when no scientific evidence
or knowledge supports such a claim, the dentists' action is consid unethical.
However, a dentist may remove amalgams at a patient's request, as long as no
inference is made about improving the patient's health. A dentist also may
ethically decline to remove the amalgam if there is no sound medical reason.
137. What options are available for amalgam restorations?
Cast gold
Cast, fired, and pressed ceramics
Direct, direct-indirect, indirect placement composite resins
CAD-CAM and mechanically milled restorations
138. What are the major uses of the stainless steel crown (SSC) in
adult dentition?
1. Extensive decay in the dentition of young adults may leave a vital tooth
with limited structure that requires a crown. If a permanent cast or ceramic
restoration is not feasible, one may use the SSC in conjunction with a pin/bonded
composite core build-up to stabilize the tooth until a permanent crown is
constructed. A typical restoration involves the following steps: (1) complete
excavation; (2) application of a glass ionomer liner or dentin bonding; (3)
placement of pins at the four corner line angles; (4) beveling of the cervical
enamel or dentin margin; (5) trial fitting of the SSC with careful adaptation of the
cervical margins and checking for occlusal clearance; (6) etching of the cervical
bevel; (7) application of a bonding resin; (8) filling of a well-adapted SSC with self-
curing composite core material; and (9) seating of the crown. Removal of
excessive and expressed composite leaves a well-sealed re that may serve for
many years. When it is time to prepare the tooth for the permanent crown, slitting
the SSC leaves the core build-up ready for final preparation.
2. SSCs may be used to stabilize rampant decay at any age.
3. SSCs may be used as a substitute for the copper band to stabilize a tooth
before endodontic treatment. The SSC is more hygienic and kinder to the
periodontium when it has been well adapted. Traditional access is through the
occlusal dimension.
4. SSCs may be used as a temporary crown when lined with acrylic.
139. What techniques may be used to achieve marginal exposure and
to control hemorrhage in a class V cavity preparation?
If the preparation is < 2 mm below the gingival sulcus, an impregnated
retraction cord with a gingival retraction rubber-dam clamp may be effective. If
the defect approaches 3 mm or greater, hemostasis and margin exposure often
require surgical exposure (crown lengthening) or excision via electrosurgery.
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140. Outline the major design criteria for closing spaces in the anterior
dentition.
1. Most commonly, composite bonding and/or porcelain veneers may close
the maxillary central diastema. Careful space analysis with calipers allows the most
esthetic result. The width of each central incisor is measured, along with the
diastema space. One-half the dimension of the diastema space is normally added
to each crown unless the central incisors are unequal. Then adjustment is made to
create equal central incisors.
2. If the central incisors appear too wide esthetically, one can reduce the
distal incisal to narrow the tooth and bond it over to seal any exposed dentin. One
then adds to the mesial incisal of the lateral incisor to effect closure of space.
3. A tooth in the palatal crossbite may even be transformed into a two-
cuspid tooth by building up the facial to the buccal profile. This bicuspidization is
reasonably durable and esthetically pleasing.
4. Peg laterals and congenitally absent laterals replaced by cuspids may
similarly be transformed with bonding and/or porcelain veneers. Reduction of
protrusive contours, followed by addition to mesial and distal incisal areas,
establishes esthetic results.
141. List the indications for the porcelain veneer restoration.
1. Stained teeth or teeth in which color changes are desired
2. Enamel defects
3. Ma I posed teeth
4. Malformed teeth
5. Replacement for multisurfaced composite restoration when adequate
tooth structure remains (at least 30%)
Each patient must be evaluated on an individual basis. A general
requirement is excellent periodontal health and good hygiene practices. In the
case of stained teeth, prior bleaching (either at home or in office) helps to ensure
better color esthetics.
142. Describe the basic tooth preparation for the porcelain veneer
restoration on anterior teeth.
1. Vital bleaching (optional)
2. Preparation. Enamel reduction of at least 0.5 mm, which may extend to
0.7 mm at the cervical line angles, is necessary to avoid overcontouring. The only
exception may be a tooth with a very flat labial contour and slight linguoversion.
Chamfer-type labial preparations can be achieved with bullet-type diamonds, and
the use of self-limiting 0.3-, 0.5-, 0.7-mm diamond burrs is essential for consistent
depth of preparation. The gingival cavosurface margin should be level with the
free gingival crest. The mesial and distal proximal margins are immediately labial
to the proximal contact area. The contacts are not broken but may be relaxed with
fine separating strips. This allows placement of smooth metal matrix strips. The
incisal margin is placed at the crest of the incisal ridge. Placing retraction cord into
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the gingival sulcus before preparing the gingival cavosurface margin helps in the
atraumatic completion of the preparation.
3. Impressions. Standard impression techniques use vinyl polysiloxane
materials.
4. Temporization, if at all possible, should be limited in use; it may be
time-consuming and add to the expense of the procedure. One should use fine
discs on the labial enamel surface for polishing the rough surface of the diamond-
cut preparation to limit the accumulation of stain and debris. If it is necessary to
temporize, preconstructed laboratory composite veneers or chairside direct
temporization may be used. The techniques are similar. Spot-etch two or three
internal enamel areas on the labial preparation. Apply unfilled resin and tack-bond
the veneer, or place light-cured composite on the tooth and spread it with a
gloved finger dipped in unfilled resin to a smooth finish. The preparation should be
light-cured, and one should be able to lift it off relatively easily at the unetched
areas and polish down the etched spots.
143. Describe the technique for insertion of porcelain veneers.
1. After isolation, pumicing, and washing, the fragile porcelain veneers are
tried on the chamfer-prepared tooth. First, the inside surface of the veneer is
wetted with water to increase the adhesion. Margins are then carefully evaluated.
2. Next, try-in pastes are used to determine the correct color-matching.
Water-soluble pastes are the easiest to use. The try-in pastes closely match the
final resin cements but are not light-activated.
3. The porcelain veneers are prepared for bonding. Apply a 30-second
phosphoric acid etchant for cleaning. Wash and dry. Apply a silane coupling agent,
and air-dry. Apply the unfilled light-cured bonding resin, and cure for 20 seconds.
4. To bond the porcelain veneer to the tooth, first clear interproximal areas
with fine strips. Pumice and wash thoroughly. Place strips of dead, soft
interproximal matrix, and etch the enamel for 30 seconds. Wash for 60 seconds
and dry. Apply the bonding resin. Any known dentin areas should be primed (with
dentin primer materials) before applying the bonding resin. Any opaquers or shade
tints may now be applied. The light-cured resin luting cement is now applied to
tooth and veneer. The veneer is carefully placed into position, and gross excessive
composite is removed. Precure at the incisal edge for 10 seconds, and remove any
partially polymerized material gingivally and proximally. Light-cure fully for 30—60
seconds. Finish the margins with strips, discs, and finishing burst. Check for
protrusive excursions. Apply the central incisors first, then the laterals and cuspids.
144. What are the technical considerations for posterior cast- porcelain,
partial-coverage restorations?
1. Remove all old restorative material, and excavate any caries.
2. Cavosurface margins are butt-jointed at 90°; otherwise, a fine porcelain
flange is prone to fracture.
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3. Hard-setting calcium hydroxide may be placed at the pulpal floor area
when dentin thickness is estimated to be 0.5 mm or less.
4. Glass ionomer cement is placed on all exposed dentin, and any undercuts
are blocked out accordingly to create an ideal inlay form. The result is a fully
bondable surface.
5. Impressions are taken, and temporization is performed with acrylic resin
and cemented with noneugenol temporary cement.
6. The porcelain inlay received from the laboratory is trial-fitted, but
occlusion is not adjusted at this time because of possible fracture.
7. The porcelain and the tooth are prepared in the usual manner for
bonding.
8. Cementation with a composite luting cement, preferably with a dual-
cured material, allows better polymerization, especially at interproximal areas.
9. Finishing and final occlusal adjustment are done in the usual manner.
145. List advantages of the porcelain inlay/ onlay.
• The restoration is highly esthetic. • Polymerization shrinkage is
• The restoration is highly wear- negligible.
resistant. • Marginal adaptation is excellent.
• As a fully bonded restoration, • Postoperative sensitivities are rare
adjacent tooth structure is
strengthened.
146. What are the benefits of cast gold inlays and onlays?
1. Low restoration wear
2. Low wear of opposing teeth
3. Lack of breakage
4. Burnishable and malleable restoration
5. Proven long-term service
6. Bonded cast gold restoration improves their main weakness (the
cementing media).
147. What are the indications for light-cured, dual-cured, and
autocured composite resin cements?
Light-cured resin cements are generally used for cementation of porcelain
veneers. Dual-cured resins may be used for veneers, but color stability may
change with continued polymerization of the cement. Therefore, dual-cured
cements are usually reserved for cementation of porcelain and composite inlays
and onlays. In these cases the dentist can light-cure the material at the margins,
and the autocure feature enables the cement to penetrate deeper within the
restoration, where light is excluded, and to set properly. Auto- or self-cure
cements are used when the curing light is completely excluded, such as for post
and core cementation or the luting of porcelain/gold and full gold crowns.
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148. What is cracked tooth syndrome?
Cracked tooth syndrome is generally described as an incomplete fracture of
a tooth. The patient typically complains of sharp pain with biting hard food; the
pain is often upon the release of biting. The pain goes away immediately, and
usually the tooth does not hurt otherwise. Occasionally, there is some temperature
sensitivity, but the inability to bite food on the tooth is the primary complaint.
149. If a patient presents with tooth sensitivity on biting and to cold in
a clinically normal- appearing molar with an MOD amalgam, what is the
differential diagnosis? What is the suggested treatment?
First attempt to duplicate the symptoms with cold spray and biting on a wet
cotton roll to confirm the specific tooth. Take a radiograph to rule Out recurrent
decay, periapical pathology, or periodontal involvement. If there are no positive
radiographic findings, we may consider a cracked tooth, or a pulp that is
hyperemic and may or may not be approaching irreversible change. The best first
treatment is to remove all old amalgam and explore the tooth for cracks or decay.
Placing a bonded, nonmetallic restoration allows observation to see if the pulp can
resolve. If symptoms subside within 3—6 weeks, a permanent restoration (full
coverage crown or onlay) may be placed. If symptoms persist or at any time
worsen, endodontic treatment should begin. If endodontic treatment does not
resolve the pain, one may conclude that the fracture proceeds subgingivally or
through the furcation. At this time extraction must be considered.
150. What is the biologic width? Explain its relationship to restorative
dentistry.
The biologic width is an area that ideally is approximately 3 mm wide from
the crest of bone to the gingival margin. It consists of approximately 1 mm of
connective tissue, 1 mm of epithelial attachment, and 1 mm of sulcus. If a
restorative procedure violates this zone, there is a higher likelihood that
periodontal inflammation will ensue, causing the attachment apparatus to move
apically.
151. When it becomes necessary for restorative reasons to impinge on
the biologic width, what steps can be taken before final restoration to
create a maintainable periodontal environment?
Crown lengthening and orthodontic extrusion are the two most common
ways to deal with this problem. Crown lengthening exposes more tooth structure
surgically and is in effect surgical repositioning of the biologic width. Orthodontic
extrusion is done when crown lengthening would unduly compromise the
periodontal health of the adjacent teeth or create an unfavorable esthetic
situation, as often occurs in the anterior maxilla.
152. Describe the options for treatment of root surface sensitivity.
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Root sensitivity is a common problem and can be adequately resolved in
many instances by modifying the patient's toothbrushing technique and having
patients use a desensitizing toothpaste such as Sensodyne or fluoride gels. Other
desensitizing agents, such as Protect by Butler, use oxalate precipitates to occlude
the dentin tubules. Dentin-bonding systems also work well to reduce sensitivity.
Others advocate iontophoresis to apply fluoride to the sensitive surface.
BIBLIOGRAPHY
1. Barnes DB: A clinical evaluation of a resin-modified glass ionomer restorative
material. JAm Dent Assoc 126:1245—1253, 1995.
2. Bonner P: Update on dentin bonding. Dent Today March:42— 47, 1997.
3. Charlton D: Dentin bonding: Past and present. J Acad Gen Dent 44:498—
507, 1996.
4. Christensen GL: When to use fillers, build-ups, or post and cores. JAm Dent
Assoc 127:1397—1398, 1996.
5. Clinical Research Associates Newsletter. Provo, UT, 1998. Web Site:
http://www.cranews.com.
6. Cox CF. Suzuki S, Suzuki SH: Biocompatibility of dental adhesives. J Calif
Dent Assoc 23(8):35-4 1, 1995.
7. Cox CF: Effects of adhesive resins and various dental cements on the pulp.
Oper Dent SuppI 5:165—176, 1992.
8. Dental Materials Digest. Eastlake, OH, Odontos Publishing, 1998.
9. Freedman G, McLaughlin G: A buyers' guide to fifth generation adhesives.
Dent Today March: 106—1 11, 1997.
10. Hardin JF (ed): Clark's Clinical Dentistry, vol 4. St. Louis, Mosby, 1997.
11. Lutz FU, Krejci I, Oddera M: Advanced adhesive restorations: The post
amalgam age. Pract Periodont Aesthet Dent 8:385—394, 1996.
12. McComb D: Adhesive luting cements— Classes, criteria, and usage.
Compend Contin Educ Dent 17:759— 762, 1996.
13. Miyazaki M, Oshida Y, Xirouchaki L: Dentin bonding system. Part I:
Literature review. Biomed Mater Eng6:l5— 31, 1996.
14. Mormann WH, Bindl A: The new creativity in ceramic restorations: Dental
CAD-CIM. Quinessence Int:821— 828, 1996.
15. Nadarajah V, Neiders ME, Cohen RE: Local inflammatory effects of
composite resins. Compend Contin Educ Dent 18:367—374, 1997.
16. Saxe SR. et al: Dental amalgam and cognitive functions in older women.
Findings from the nun study. J AmDentAssoc 126:1494—1501, 1995.
17. Seltzer 5, Boston D: Hypersensitivity and pain induced by operative
procedures and the cracked tooth syndrome. J Acad Gen Dent 45:149—
159, 1997.
18. Spreafico R: Direct and semi-direct posterior composite restorations. Pract
Periodont Aesthet Dent 9:703—712, 1996.
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19. Swift El: Restorative considerations with vital tooth bleaching. JAm Dent
Assoc l28(Suppl):60S-64S, 1997.
20. Truono EJ: Special report on dental amalgam issues. JAm Dent Assoc
122(Suppl):l-6, 1991.
21. Turp JC: The cracked tooth syndrome: An elusive diagnosis. JAm DentAssoc
127:1502-1507, 1996.
22. Walshaw PR, McComb Dr Clinical considerations for optimal dentinal
bonding. Quintessence Int 27:619—625, 1996.
23. White KC, Cox CF. Kanka J. et al: Pulpal response to adhesive resin systems
applied to acid etched vital dentin: Damp versus dry primer application.
Quintessence Int 25(4): 259— 268, 1994.
24. Wiltshire WA, Ferreira MR. Ligthehn A: Allergies to dental materials.
Quintessence Int 27:513—520, 1996.
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9. PROSTHODONTI CS
Ralph B. Sozio, D.M.D.
Fixed Prosthodontics
1. What is the definition of "fit" for a full-crown restoration? What is
the clinical acceptance of the fit of a full-crown restoration?
The fit of a full-ciown restoration is normally measured in relationship to two
reference areas: (1) the occlusal'seat and (2) the marginal seal. The two areas are
interrelated and affect each other. The ideal fit of a full crown (marginal
discrepancy) is related to the film thickness of the cementing medium (normally
10—30 p). The clinical acceptance of marginal discrepancy is approximately 80 p.
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Fit is a relationship between occiusal seal and marignal seal.
2. What is the best marginal tooth preparation?
There is no ideal marginal tooth preparation. The selection of the marginal
design depends on many factors, including:
1. The material used in construction of the full crown:
• All-ceramic restoration— shoulder or deep chamfer
• Metal-ceramic with porcelain extended to marginal edge— shoulder or
deep chamfer
• Metal-ceramic with metal collars— shoulder with bevel or chamfer
• Full gold crown— feathered edge, bevel, or chamfer
2. The amount of retention needed: beveled or feathered edge affords the
most retention.
3. Seating resistance: shoulder preparation affords the least resistance.
4. Sealing capability: beveled or feathered edge affords the best seal.
5. Pulpal consideration: more tooth reduction is necessary with a shoulder
preparation than with a chamfer; the feathered edge requires the least reduction.
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216
3. How does one determine the number of abutments to be used?
There is no rigid rule. Determining factors include:
1. The greater the number of pontics, the greater the increase in loading
forces on the abutments.
2. The position of the pontics affects the loading forces of the abutments:
the more posterior the pontics, the greater the loading forces on the abutments.
3. The crown-to-root ratio of the abutments (bone support): a periodontally
compromised mouth increases the abutment-to-pontic ratio.
4. Roots of the abutments that are parallel to each other distribute the
loading forces down the long axis of the teeth. When the loading forces do not fall
within the long axis of the tooth, the lateral forces on the abutments are
increased. This situation necessitates the use of additional abutments.
4. I n periodontally compromised patients, is splinting the entire dental
arch with a onepiece, "round-house" fixed bridge the treatment of
choice?
Splinting an entire dental arch with a round-house fixed bridge is far from
the treatment of choice because it is fraught with potential problems:
1. All tooth preparations must be parallel to each other.
2. Impression taking and die construction are extremely difficult.
3. Accuracy of fit for the one-piece unit is extremely difficult.
4. Premature setting of the cement is a major risk, because total seating of
the fixed bridge onto the abutments is made extremely difficult by the mobility of
the existing teeth.
5. If one of the abutments fails, it may be necessary to replace the entire
prosthesis.
It is better to split up the prosthesis in some fashion than to construct a
one-piece unit.
5. 1 s the cantilever fixed bridge a sound treatment?
A cantilever fixed bridge places more torquing forces on terminal abutments
than desirable. Certain guidelines should be followed if a cantilever is used:
1. Cantilever pontics are limited to one per fixed bridge.
2. If the cantilever is replacing a molar, the size of the pontic should be the
same as for a bicuspid, and at least one more abutment unit should be
incorporated than in a conventional bridge. In addition, there should be no lateral
occlusal contact on the pontic, and the bridge should be cemented with a rigid
medium.
3. If the cantilever pontic is anterior to the abutments, the mesial aspect of
the pontic should be designed to allow some interlocking effect.
6. Can a three-quarter crown be used as an abutment for a fixed
bridge?
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A three-quarter crown can be used successfully as an abutment for a fixed
bridge if certain guidelines are followed:
1. Because there is less tooth reduction than with a full crown, retention
may be compromised. Internal modifications, such as grooves or pins, must be
used to compensate for potential loss of retention.
2. Proper tooth coverage is necessary for a three-quarter crown abutment:
• Anterior: linguoincisal
• Posterior/upper: linguoocclusal
• Posterior/lower: linguoocclusal plus coverage over the buccal cusp tips
3. A three-quarter crown should be made only of metal; therefore, esthetics
may be compromised.
7. Must a post and core be constructed for an endodontically treated
tooth that is to be used in a fixed bridge?
An endodontically treated tooth is generally more brittle than a vital tooth.
Because of the tooth reduction for the full-crown restoration and preparation of
the access cavity for the endodontic procedure, the remaining coronal tooth
structure is likely to be small. Therefore, a post and core is more likely to be
necessary in the anterior and bicuspid region. If the access cavity is small and
sufficient tooth structure remains after tooth preparation in the molar region, a
post and core may not be necessary. In this instance, the coronal chamber should
be filled, preferably with a bonded material.
8. What is the proper length for the post? Should a post be made for
each canal in a multirooted tooth?
In general, the length of a post should be such that the fulcrum point,
determined from measuring the height of the core to the apex of the tooth, is in
bone. This guideline normally places the post approximately two-thirds into the
root length. Improper length allows a potential for root fracture. It is not
necessary to construct a post for each canal in a multirooted tooth, provided that
the dominant root (i.e., palatal root of maxillary molar) is used and proper length
has been established. If proper length cannot be obtained, it is necessary to place
posts in at least one of the other remaining roots.
9. Can one use the preformed, single-step post and core in place of the
two-step cast post and core?
A preformed, single-step post and core can be used in fixed prosthodontics,
but the potential for failure is greater with many of the single-step systems than
with a cast-gold post and core for the following reasons:
1. The canal preparation must be shaped to the configuration of the
preformed post. This requirement may lead to overprepa ration of the canal and
potential root perforation. In contrast, a cast post is made to fit the existing
configuration of the canal.
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2. A screw-type post has the greatest retentive value, but it also has the
greatest stress forces during insertion.
3. The core build-up of the single-step post and core may not be as stable
as a cast-gold core.
4. If the single-step post is metal, the modulus of elasticity is normally much
higher than that of the root. This may lead to root fracture during loading. In
contrast, a type-three cast-gold post has a modulus of elasticity similar to that of
the root.
10. Where should a crown margin be placed in relationship to the
gingiva: supragingivally, equigingivally, or subgingivally?
It is better for gingival health to place a crown margin supragingivally, 1—2
mm above the gingival crest, or equigingivally at the gingival crest. Such
positioning is quite often not possible because of esthetic or caries considerations.
Subsequently, the margin must be placed
subgingivally. The question then becomes
whether the subgingival margin ends slightly
below the gingival crest, in the middle of the
sulcular depth, or at the base of the sulcus. In
preparing a subgingival margin, the major
concern is not to extend the preparation into
the attachment apparatus. If the margin of the
subsequent crown is extended into the
attachment apparatus, a constant gingival
irritant has been constructed. Therefore, for
clinical simplicity, when a margin is to be placed
subgingivally. it is desirable to end the tooth
preparation slightly below the gingival crest.
The subgingival margin should not
impinge into the attachment apparatus.
MATERIALS
1 1 . What materials are employed in the construction of a full crown?
Gold alloy Composite resin
Nongold alloy Composite resin with a metal alloy
Acrylic resin Ceramic with a metal alloy
Acrylic resin with a metal alloy All ceramic
12. Are the same materials used in the construction of a fixed bridge?
In general, a fixed bridge needs a metal support for strength. The veneer
coating may be acrylic, composite, or ceramic. Newer ceramic materials, including
alumina and zirconium, have increased strength that in some cases may eliminate
the metal substructure.
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13. What are the major advantages and disadvantages of the metal-
ceramic crown?
In general, the metal-ceramic crown combines certain favorable properties
of metal in its substructure and of ceramic in its veneer coating.
Advantages
1. The metal substructure gives high strength that allows the materials to be
used in fixed bridgework and for splinting teeth.
2. The fit of a metal casting can also be achieved with the metal-ceramic crown.
3. Esthetics can be achieved by the proper application of the ceramic veneer.
Disadvantages
1. To allow enough space for the metal-ceramic materials, adequate tooth
reduction is necessary (1.5 mm or more). The marginal tooth preparation is critical
in relation to the design of the metal with the ceramic.
2. The fabrication technique is complex. The longer the span of bridgework, the
greater the potential for metal distortion and/or porcelain problems.
14. What tooth preparation is necessary for the metal-ceramic crown?
The amount of tooth reduction necessary for the metal-ceramic crown
depends on the metal and ceramic thickness. The necessary thickness of the
metal is 0.5 mm, whereas the minimal ceramic thickness is 1.0—1.5 mm.
Therefore, the tooth reduction is approximately 1.5—2.0 mm. With this porcelain-
metal sandwich, a shoulder preparation is generally necessary for adequate tooth
reduction.
15. What happens if tooth preparation or reduction is inadequate in the
marginal area?
If the tooth reduction is < 1.5 mm at the marginal area, only metal can be
present in that area. If porcelain is applied on metal that has been reduced in
thickness because of lack of space, marginal metal distortion is likely during the
firing cycle. If the porcelain thickness is reduced to compensate for the reduced
space, the opaque porcelain layer is likely to be exposed or to dominate, leading
to an unesthetic result. If both the porcelain and metal have adequate thickness,
then the crown is overcontoured.
Margin tooth reduction (1.0—1.5 mm) is necessary for acceptance of
porcelain to cover metal.
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16. Can the marginal area of a metal-ceramic
crown be constructed in porcelain without metal?
There are many techniques with which to construct
a porcelain margin with optimal esthetics, proper fit, and
correct contour (emergence profile).
17. 1 f the tooth preparation is sufficient to accept
the porcelain edge of the metal without distortion,
why is it necessary to construct a margin in
porcelain solely for esthetic reasons?
It is possible to cover the metal correctly with
porcelain in the marginal area, but most often the
esthetic results fall short of expectation in the most
critical area. Incident light that transmits through the
porcelain and reflects from the metal often creates a shadowing effect. If
porcelain is present only at this marginal area, light transmission and reflection
through the porcelain and the tooth create the proper blend between the marginal
aspect of the crown and the tooth.
18. For a successful porcelain marginal construction, how far should
the metal extend in relation to the shoulder?
Originally the metal was finished slightly shy of the edge of the shoulder,
with porcelain extending to the edge. Another technique finished the metal at the
axiocaval line angle of the preparation, creating a porcelain margin that totally
covers the horizontal shoulder. With both techniques, however, shadowing was
still present. To create proper light transmission and reflection of the
porcelain/tooth interface, the metal should be finished to about 1—2 mm above
the axiocaval line angle of the shoulder.
19. What are noble alloys?
Noble alloys in general do not oxidize on casting. This feature is important
in a metal substrate so that oxidation at the metal-porcelain interface can be
controlled by the addition of trace oxidizing elements. If oxidation cannot be
controlled on repeated firings, porcelain color may be contaminated and the bond
strength may be weakened. Noble alloys are gold, platinum, and palladium. A
silver alloy that oxidizes is considered semiprecious.
20. What is a base metal alloy? Can it be used in the construction of a
metal-ceramic crown?
The base metal or nonprecious alloys most often used in the construction of
a metal-ceramic crown are nickel and chromium. Because such alloys readily
oxidize at elevated temperatures, they create porcelain-to-metal interface
problems. The oxidation must be controlled by a metal- coating treatment, which
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is somewhat unpredictable. Casting and fitting are also difficult. Authorities agree
that a noble alloy is preferable.
21. What are the criteria for selecting a specific alloy?
1. Connpatibility of the coefficient of thermal expansion with the selected
porcelains
2. Controllability of oxidation at interface
3. Ease in casting and fabrication
4. Fit potential
5. High yield of strength
6. High modulus of elasticity (stiffness) to avoid stress in the porcelain
22. How does porcelain bond to the alloy?
Ceramic adheres to metal primarily by chemical bond. A covalent bond is
established by sharing O2 in the elements in the porcelain and the metal alloy.
These elements include silicon dioxide (SiOz in the porcelain and oxidizing
elements such as silicon, indium, and iridium in the metal alloy.
23. How is a porcelain selected?
The criteria for selecting a specific porcelain include:
1. Compatibility with the metal used in regard to their respective coefficients
of thermal expansion (of prime importance)
2. Stability of controlled shrinkage with multiple firings
3. Color stability with multiple firings
4. Capability of matching shade selection with various thicknesses of
porcelain
5. Ease of handling (technique-sensitive)
6. Full range of shades and modifiers
24. How many layers or different porcelains can be applied in the
buildup of a metal-ceramic crown?
1. Shoulder 5. Incisal
2. Opaque 6. Translucent
3. Opacious dentin 7. Modifiers in every layer
4. Body 8. External colorants
25. What is the function of the opaque layer?
The elements in the opaque layer create the chemical bond of the porcelain
to the metal substrate. The opaque layer masks the color of the metal and is the
core color in determining the final shade of the crown.
26. What is opacious dentin?
Opacious dentin is an intermediary modifying porcelain that affords better
light transmission than the opaque layer, in part because of its optical properties.
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Opacious dentin is less opaque than the opaque layer but less translucent than the
body (dentin) porcelain. It is also used for color shifts or effect properties.
27. What differentiates shoulder porcelain from dentin (body)
porcelain?
The principal difference between shoulder and body porcelain is the firing
temperature. Because the shoulder porcelain is established before the general
build-up, its color and dimen sion must remain stable during subsequent firings.
Therefore, the shoulder porcelain matures at a higher temperature than the
subsequent body porcelain firings.
28. What is segmental build-up in the construction of the metal-
ceramic crown?
Segmental build-up refers to the method of applying the porcelain powders
in incremental portions horizontally. Each increment differs from the others in
either opacity and translucency or hue, value, or chrome. This technique is used to
construct a crown that attempts to mimic the optical properties of a natural tooth.
(See figure, top of next page.)
29. What is the coefficient of thermal expansion? What is its
importance in prosthodontics?
The coefficient of thermal expansion is the exponential expansion of a
material as it is subjected to heat. The coefficient is extremely important during
joint firing of two dissimilar materials. For example, the coefficient of thermal
expansion should be slightly higher (rather than the same) for the metal substrate
than for the porcelain coating. This slight difference results in compression of the
fired porcelain coating, which gives it greater strength.
¥■"
Segmental build-up to Construct a porcelain crown.
30. What is the proper coping design for the metal-ceramic
restoration?
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The purpose of the metal coping is to ensure the fit of the crown and to
maximize the strength of the porcelain veneer. The metal must have the proper
thickness so as not to distort during the firing. The coping should be reinforced in
load-bearing areas, such as the interproximal space, and can be strengthened in
areas where metal exists alone, such as the lingual collar. To maximize the
strength potential of the porcelain, uniform thickness should be attempted in the
final restoration. This thickness can be obtained by designing the wax-up of the
framework to accommodate the porcelain layer.
31. How does the marginal tooth preparation affect the design of the
metal-ceramic crown?
The marginal tooth preparation determines the marginal configuration of the
metal-ceramic crown. The three options are:
1. Beveled or feathered edge: the preparation is covered only in metal.
2. Chamfer: if the depth of the chamfer is at least 1 mm, the porcelain can
extend over the metal and a supported porcelain margin can be constructed.
3. Shoulder: the preparation must be 1 mm for the porcelain to cover the
metal.
32. I s the design of the metal framework of a fixed bridge different
from the design of a single unit?
The design of the metal framework must incorporate four basic
interrelationships: strength, esthetics, contour, and occlusion. In fixed bridgework,
however, strength of the substrate plays the dominant role. Therefore, greater
attention must be paid to reinforcement of the framework than of a single unit.
33. How do design problems of the metal framework influence the
function of the metal- ceramic restorations?
1. The color of the porcelain is compromised between abutments and
pontics if the thickness of the porcelain varies.
2. If the porcelain veneer is too thick (> 2 mm) because of improper
framework design, much of the strength of the interface bond is lost.
3. If the porcelain veneer is too thin (< 0.75 mm), the esthetic effect is
compromised.
4. The metal framework is designed to resist deformation. If strut-type
connector design is not used in the fixed bridgework, the bridge may flex and
result in porcelain fracture.
34. What is metamerism? How does it affect the metal-ceramic
restoration?
Metamerism is the optical property by which two objects with the same
color but different spectral reflectance curves do not match. This property is
important in matching the shade of the metal-ceramic restoration to the natural
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tooth. Even if the colors are the same, different reflectance curves create the "just
noticeable" difference.
35. What is the importance of fluorescence in porcelain?
Fluorescence is the optical property by which a material reflects ultraviolet
radiation. Fluorescence reflects different hues. Natural teeth can fluoresce yellow-
white to blue-white hues. Fluorescence in porcelain is important to minimize
metamerism of porcelain to natural teeth in varying light conditions.
36. What are hue, value, and chroma? What is their importance in
dentistry?
Color consists of three properties:
1. Hue refers to color families (e.g., red, green).
2. Value refers to lightness or darkness as related to a scale from black to
white.
3. Chroma refers to the saturation of a color at any given value level.
The properties have a practical use in ordering color.
37 What is opalescence?
Opalescence is the optical property seen in an opal during light transmission
and light reflection. During transmission, the opal takes on an orange-white hue,
whereas during reflection it takes on a bluish-white hue. This phenomenon also
occurs in the natural tooth as a result of light scattering through the crystalline
structure of the opal. The structure size is in the submicron range (0.2—0.5 II). A
porcelain restoration can demonstrate the opal effect by incorporating submicron
particles of porcelain into the enamel (incisal) layer.
38. How do you select a shade to match the natural teeth?
There is no truly scientific method to analyze the shade of a natural tooth
and to apply this information to the selection of porcelain and fabrication of the
crown. Attempts to establish such a technique have met with limited success. At
present, shade determination is designed to match natural teeth with a man-made
replication (shade guide) that results in a range of acceptability rather than an
absolute match.
39. Can you change a shade with external stains?
External stains or colorants are frequently used to minimize the differences
between natural and ceramic teeth. They should be used rationally rather than
empirically. An understanding of the color phenomenon is necessary in all aspects
of shade control and is essential if extrinsic colorants are to be used correctly.
Extrinsic colorants follow the physical laws of substractive color.
40. What guidelines derived from the color phenomenon apply to the
use of external colorants?
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The understanding of hue, value, and chroma and their effect on external staining
of a crown are essential. The major guidelines are as follow:
Hue: drastic change of the shade of the ceramic restoration by use of
external colorants is quite often impossible. Slight changes in shade may be
accomplished (e.g., orange to orange- brown).
Value: external colorants can be used to lower the value of the ceramic.
The complementary color of the shade to be altered may have a darkening effect.
It is almost impossible to increase the value or shade of the ceramic.
Chroma: chroma can be successfully increased by external colorants, most
frequently in the gingival or interproximal areas.
41. What effects can be created with surface stains?
1. Separation and individualization with interproximal staining
2. Coloration of a cervical area to emulate root surface and to produce the
illusion of change of form
3. Coloration of hypocalcified areas
4. Coloration of check lines
5. Coloration of stain lines
6. Neutralization of hue for increase of apparent translucency (usually
violet)
7. Highlighting and shadowing
8. Incisal edge modifications— emulated opacities, high cifrome areas, stain
areas
9. Synthetic restorations
10. Aging
42. Are external colorants stable in the oral cavity?
External colorants are metallic oxides that fuse to the ceramic unit during a
predetermined firing cycle. Although quite stable in an air environment, they are
susceptible to corrosion when subjected to certain oral environments. Depending
on the stain and the pH of the oral fluids, external colorants may be lost from the
ceramic unit over a long period of time.
43 What is the most important factor in determining the strength of a
ceramic?
The most important factor in the strength of a ceramic material is control of
small flaws or microcracks, which often are present both at the surface and
internally. In most cases, the strength of the ceramic depends on surface flaws
rather than porosity within the normal range.
44. Should porcelain be used on the occlusal surface of a metal-ceramic
crown?
In general, the surface hardness of dental porcelains is greater than that of
tooth structure, metal alloys, and all other restorative materials. This may lead to
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excessive wear of the opposing dentition if certain occiusal guidelines are not
followed. In the best scenario, the opposing material is porcelain, but results are
good if the occlusal loads have good force distribution. Porcelain is contraindicated
in patients who indulge in bruxism or parafunctional activities in which occlusal
overloading may occur.
45. Can a porcelain fracture of a metal ceramic restoration be repaired?
It is now possible to bond composite or ceramic materials to a fractured
restoration. The bond, which may occur on porcelain or on the metal substrate, is
sufficiently strong to be resistant in a non— or low stress-bearing area. However,
if the fracture occurs in a stress-bearing area, the probability of a successful repair
is low.
46. On what basis do you choose between an all-ceramic or a metal-
ceramic crown?
In recent times all-ceramic crowns have been frequently used. As with their
predecessor, the porcelain jacket crown, which was introduced at the turn of the
century, the main reason for their use is superior esthetics. Unlike the metal-
ceramic crown, which is hindere substrate, the all-ceramic crown has the
capability to mimic the optical properties of the natural tooth. However, all other
factors— including strength, fit, ease of fabrication, and tooth selection and
preparation— may inhibit its use.
47. Is tooth preparation the same for an all-ceramic crown and a
metal-ceramic restoration?
The same amount of overall tooth reduction is needed for a metal-ceramic
restoration as for an all-ceramic crown (1 .0—1.5 mm labially, lingually, and
interproximally). However, unlike the metal-ceramic restoration, which will accept
any marginal design, marginal tooth preparation for the all-ceramic crown must be
a shoulder or deep chamfer (minimum of 1.0 mm tooth reduction). (See figure,
below.)
Tooth preparation for an all-ceramic crown.
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48. Can the newer all-ceramic materials with high strength values be
used in place of metal-ceramic restorations?
Some manufacturers claim that the newer ceramic materials with high
theoretical strength values can be used in place of metal-ceramic restorations for
any tooth and for small-unit, anterior fixed bridges. However, the guidelines for
usage, such as tooth preparation, are more critical and in general more
complicated than for metal-ceramic restorations. It is advisable, therefore, to use
the all-ceramic crown in the anterior segment, where esthetics is the dominant
factor.
All-ceramic crowns on maxillary anterior segment (teeth 6—11).
49. What are the different types of all-ceramic crowns?
All-ceramic crowns may be categorized by composition and method of
fabrication:
Composition
1. Feldspathic porcelain, such as a conventional porcelain jacket crown.
2. Aluminous porcelain: Vitadur, Hyceram, Cerestore, Procera, Inceram
3. Mica glass: Dicor, Cerapearl
4. Crystalline-reinforced glass; Optec, Empress
Method of fabrication
1. Refractory die technique: Optec, Mirage, Hyceram, Inceram
2. Casting: Dicor
3. Press technique: Cerestore, Procera, Empress
50. What is crystal line- reinforced glass?
A crystalline-reinforced glass is a glass in which a crystalline substance such
as leucite is dispersed. This composition is used in the Optec or Empress systems.
Strength is derived from the crystalline microstructure within the glass matrix. The
higher concentration of leucite crystals in the matrix limits the progress of
microcracks within the ceramic.
51. What is the importance of alumina in an all-ceramic restoration?
Alumina (AI2O3) is a truly crystalline ceramic, the hardest and probably the
strongest oxide known. Alumina is used to reinforce glass (as in Hyceram). The
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strength is determined by the amount of alumina reinforcement. Alumina is also
used in total crystalline compositions (Cerestore, Procera, Inceram), which may
serve as the substructure much like metal coping. With this technique, the ceramic
has high strength.
52. Is the cementing of an all-ceramic crown different from the
cementing of a metal-ceramic crown?
The major difference is that a trial cement is not recommended for the all-
ceramic crown, which obtains much of its strength from the underlying support of
the tooth. If the cement washes out, the unsupported crown is susceptible to
fracture. In general, all rigid cements can be used, but a bonded resin cement is
highly recommended to maximize the underlying support.
53. Can all of the all-ceramic materials be bonded to the tooth
preparation?
It is important that the ceramic material be chemically etched for bonding to
a tooth. If the ceramic material cannot be properly etched, alumina is used in the
substrate.
Ceramic veneer (tooth 10) bonded to tooth.
54. What is the significance of the refractory die?
A refractory die is used in many techniques for the construction of different
types of all-ceramic crowns and veneers. Basically it is a secondary die obtained
by duplicating the master die. The ceramic material is applied on the refractory die
for the firing cycles. Once the cycles have been completed, the refractory die is
removed, and the ceramic piece is returned to the master die. Refractory die
material must have the following properties:
1. Compatibility with impression materials
2. Dimensional stability for measurements
3. Tolerance of high-heat firing cycles
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4. Compatible coefficient of thermal expansion with the ceramic material
used
5. Easy removal from the ceramic piece
55. What determines the design of the pontic?
The design of the pontic is dictated by the special bouhdaries of (1)
edentulous ridge, (2) opposing occlusal surface, and (3) musculature of tongue,
cheeks, or lips. The task is to design within these boundaries a tooth substitute
that favorably compares in form, function, and appearance with the tooth it
replaces. The tooth substitute must provide comfort and support to the adjacent
musculature, conformity to the food-flow pattern, convenient contours for
hygiene, and cosmetic value, if indicated.
56. How should the contact area of the pontic on the edentulous ridge
be designed?
Three concepts in pontic design are currently popular:
1. The sanitary pontic design leaves space between poetic and ridge.
2. The saddle pontic design covers the ridge labiolingually. Total coronal
width is usually concave.
3. The modified ridge design uses a ridge lap for minimal ridge contact.
Labial contact is usually to height of the ridge contour (straight emergence
profile).
The selection of the design depends on the following factors:
1. Spatial boundaries
2. Shape of edentulous ridge (normal, blunted, or excessive resorption)
3. Maxillary or mandibular posterior arch (in contrast to the mandibular
posterior pontic, the maxillary edentulous ridge is usually broad and blunted and
has superior cosmetic effects)
4. Anterior pontic (the overriding cosmetic requirement is that form and
shape reproduce the facial characteristics of the natural tooth)
57. What is the emergence profile? What is its importance?
The emergence profile is the shape of the marginal aspect of a tooth or a
restoration and relates to the angulation of the tooth or restoration as it emerges
from the gingiva. This gingival contour is extremely important for tissue health
after placement of a crown.
The most obvious error of the emergence profile of a crown is
overcontouring, which creates abnormal pressure of the gungival cuff and leads to
inflammation in the presence of bacteria. Overcontouring and poor emergence
profile are due primarily to (1) inadequate tooth preparation, (2) improper
handling of materials, and/or (3) inadequate communication between the dentist
and the technician.
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58. AFter periodontal therapy, when can the dentist complete the
marginal tooth preparation?
A certain waiting time is necessary between completion of periodontal
therapy and completion of the marginal tooth preparation both to establish and to
stabilize the attachment apparatus on the root surface. If this waiting time is not
observed, impingement of the restoration into the attachment apparatus quite
frequently occurs. The result is an iatrogenic gungival inflammation. The amount
of waiting time necessary depends on the aggressiveness of the gingival
procedure. A reasonable guideline, however, is to wait at least 6 weeks for tissue
resolution.
59. What is a biologically compatible material?
A biologically compatible material elicits no adverse response either in the
tissue or systemically. Adverse tissue response may be due to any of the
following:
1. Allergic reaction
2. Toxic response
3. Mechanical irritation
4. Promotion of bacterial colonization
In general, highly polished noble alloys and highly glazed porcelains are the
most biologically compatible materials.
60. Is any material used to construct crowns suspected of biologic
incompatibility?
In general, most materials used in the construction of crowns are
biologically compatible. Adverse reactions have occurred to some materials,
primarily because of unpolished metal or unglazed porcelain surfaces. However,
reports in the literature indicate that nickel-chrome alloys used in castings may be
biologically incompatible. An allergic response may occur in 10% of women and
5% of men.
REMOVABLE PARTIAL DENTURES
61. What is the most important factor in determining the success of a
bilateral, free-end mandibular removable partial denture (RPD)?
The most important factor in determining success is proper coverage over
the residual ridge. Coverage should extend over the retromolar pad to create
stability of the RPD and to minimize the torquing forces on the abutment teeth.
62. When clasps are to be used on the abutment teeth, what important
factors must be considered?
When clasps are used, it is important to design the prosthesis so that the
path of insertion is parallel to the abutment teeth. This factor is important in
eliminating torquung forces on the abutment teeth during insertion and removal of
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the partial denture. If the planes are not parallel, then the abutment teeth must
be adjusted. The abutment teeth also must be evaluated for placement of the
retentive clasps and the reciprocal bracing arm. The abutment teeth are then
shaped to accept the clasps. The proper positioning of occlusal rests on the
abutment teeth is extremely important, and the teeth are prepared to optimize
positioning.
63. What are the advantages and disadvantages of the cingulum bar as
a connector?
Advantages
1. Space problems for bar placement seldom exist unless anterior teeth
have been worn down by attrition.
2. No pressure is exerted on the gingival tissues with movement of the RPD.
3. The major connector forms a single unit with the anterior teeth, thus
contributing to comfort of the RPD.
4. Indirect retention is provided.
5. Repair of the RPD is simple when natural anterior teeth are lost.
Disadvantages
1. The metal bar situated on the lingual surface of the anterior teeth is
relatT bulky, especially where crowding is present.
2. Esthetics are compromised if spacing exists.
3. Marked lingual inclination of the anterior teeth precludes use of the bar.
64. What laboratory requirements should be implemented when a
cingulum bar is used?
1. For sufficient rigidity, a minimal height of 4 mi and a thickness of 2.5 mm
are necessary. These dimensions should be increased when the cingulum bar
traverses more natural teeth.
2. No notches should be made in the metal to stimulate tooth contour
because they weaken the bar. In the presence of reduced height, the bar is placed
more gingivally and made thicker to provide rigidity.
3. The junction of the bar to the denture base must be sufficiently strong.
The bar can cover the lingual surfaces of premolars, if present. The contour of the
teeth should be adapted to the path of insertion of the RPD.
65. Are indirect retainers necessary in the construction of an RPD? if
so, where should they be placed?
The function of an indirect retainer is to prevent dislodgement of the RPD
toward the occlusal plane. In a total tooth-bearing RPD, it is unnecessary to
include indirect retainers. However, when the RPD has a free-end saddle portion,
it is advisable to include indirect retention to prevent vertical dislodgement.
The ideal positioning of the indirect retainer is at the furthest point from the
distal border of the free-end saddle. For example, if the free-end saddle is on the
lower right quadrant, the indirect retainer is placed on the lower left canine.
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66. Is it advantageous to place stress- breaking attachments adjacent
to a free-end saddle in an RPD?
The advantage of constructing a stress-breaking attachment next to a free-
end saddle is to re lieve torquing forces on abutment teeth that have been
periodontally compromised. However, further displacement of the free-end saddle
toward the underlying ridge may cause an acceleration of resorption of the
residual ridge. It is preferable, therefore, to compensate for torquing forces on the
abutment teeth by the proper extension of the saddle area.
67. 1 s it necessary to use clasps around abutment teeth in a RPD?
Clasps may be eliminated around abutment teeth if the teeth are restored
with a partial or full crown containing some form of attachment that replaces the
functions of the clasps. These functions include:
1. Guide planes for the RPD
2. Prevention of vertical displacement toward the ridge by the occlusal and
cingular rest
3. Retentive function from the retentive arm
4. Bracing function from the reciprocal arm
Depending on the type of attachment, all or part of these functions may be
replaced. With partial replacement, the remaining functions are incorporated into
the RPD.
68. What is the difference between a precision and a semiprecision
attachment?
A precision attachment is preconstructed with male and female portions
that fit together in a precise fashion with little tolerance. Normally, there is no
stress, and retention can be adjusted within the attachment. The attachment
parts, constructed of a metal that can be placed into the crown and the RPD,
normally are joined by solder. In general, no other clasps are necessary.
A semiprecision attachment is cast into the crown and the RPD. The
female portion is normally made of preformed plastic that is positioned into the
wax form and then cast. The male portion is cast with the RPD framework. The
female and male parts fit together with much more tolerance than in the precision
attachment, resulting in less retention. Secondary retentive clasping is necessary.
Less torque is induced on the abutments with a semiprecision than with a
precision attachment.
69. Do unlike metals in the male and female portions of the
semiprecision attachment pose a problem?
The female portion of the attachment is cast with the crown and is made of
the same metal as the crown. The male portion is cast into the RPD. The male
portion is made of a harder metal than the female portion, which thus is subjected
to greater wear. The wear pattern normally occurs on the vertical walls rather
than on the occlusal seat. This creates a loosening of the attachment but no
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significant vertical displacement of the RPD. The result is the need for an
adjustable retentive clasp.
70. What is the difference between an intracoronal and an extracoronal
attachment?
An intracoronal attachment is placed within the body of the crown, whereas
the extracoronal attachment is attached to the outer portion. The selection of one
over the other depends on many factors; if designed properly, both types can be
used successfully.
71. What are the advantages and disadvantages of an intracoronal
attachment?
Advantages
1. Placement of torquing forces near the long access of the tooth, thus
minimizing these forces
2. Elimination of clasps
3. Parallel guide planes for proper RPD insertion
4. Capability to establish proper contour at the abutment-RPD interface
Disadvantages
1. More tooth reduction
2. Need for adequate coronal length
3. Lack of stress-bearing capability
4. Difficulty in performing repairs
72. What are the advantages and disadvantages of an extracoronal
attachment?
Advantages
1. Same amount of reduction of the abutment tooth and conventional
restoration
2. Elimination of clasps
3. Incorporation of stress-breaking into attachment
4. Ease of replacing parts
5. Improved esthetics
Disadvantages
1. The attachment is positioned away from the long axis of the tooth,
creating a potential for torquing forces on the abutment tooth.
2. Adequate vertical space is necessary for placement of the attachment.
3. Interproximal contour at the crown-attachment interface is difficult to
establish correctly.
73. 1 s the unilateral RPD an acceptable treatment modality?
In general, a unilateral RPD is not an ideal treatment modality because
cross-arch stabilization is necessary for success. A unilateral RPD may be used.
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however, when a single tooth is replaced and abutment teeth are on either side of
the replacement tooth (Nesbitt appliance).
FULL DENTURES
74. What is the best material for talcing a full-denture impression?
In taking a full-denture impression, it is important to understand that the
topography of an edentulous arch includes soft, displaceable tissue with undercut
areas. An impression material must not distort the tissues. Therefore, the material
must be low in viscosity and elastomeric so that it can rebound in the undercut
areas.
75. 1 s border molding necessary for a full lower denture?
Unlike a full upper denture, a lower denture does not rely on a peripheral
seal for retention. Thus one may assume that border molding is an unnecessary
procedure during impression taking. This assumption is incorrect because
inadvertent overextension can greatly reduce denture stability as well as irritate
tissue. Underextension of the peripheral border decreases tissue-bearing surfaces,
thereby affecting denture stability.
76. What is the importance of the posterior palatal seal? How is its
position determined?
The posterior palatal seal is an important component because it completes
the entire peripheral sealing aspect of a maxillary denture. Anatomically, the seal
is located at the juncture of the hard and the soft palate and joins the right and
left hamular notches. If the seal is positioned more posteriorly, then tissue
irritation, gagging reflex, and decreased retention can result. If the seal is
positioned more anteriorly, tissue irritation and decreased retention can result.
Manual palpation and phonetics (the "ah" sound) are the best ways to determine
the anatomic position for the palatal seal.
77. What are the critical areas in the border- molding procedure of
taking impressions for a maxillary arch?
The most critical area to capture in an impression is the mucogingival fold
above the maxillary tuberosity area. Proper three-dimensional extension of the
final prosthesis is extremely important for maximal retention. Other critical areas
are the labial frena in the midline and the frena in the bicuspid area.
Overextension in these areas often leads to decreased retention and tissue
irritation.
78. Should an impression be taken under functional load or passively at
one static moment?
The answer to this question has been debated for years. Soft tissue
constantly changes, and a static impression captures the tissue at one point in
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time. On the other hand, a functional impression is tal<en with abnormal
masticatory loads. Therefore, there is no absolute method of taking the
impression. Denture stability with occlusal forces and periodic tissue evaluation,
however, are critical with both methods.
79. What are the critical areas to capture in an impression of a
mandibular arch?
Mandibular dentures do not rely on suction from a peripheral seal for
retention but rather on denture stability in covering as much basal bone as
possible without impinging on the muscle attachments. Movement of the tongue,
lips, and cheeks greatly affects the amount of tissue-bearing area. Therefore,
apart from identifying and covering the retromolar areas, the active border
molding performed by the lip, cheeks, and tongue determines the peripheral areas
of a mandibular arch, thus establishing maximal basal bone coverage.
80. How do you determine the peripheral extent of a denture?
For a peripheral border impression, a moldable material should be used
around a well-fitting tray. The material should have moderate or low viscosity so
as not to displace tissue and should set in a brief period of time. The lips, cheeks,
and tongue dictate the extent of the peripheral impression. The impression is
captured by exaggerated movements of the anatomic structures made by the
patient or manipulated by the dentist.
81. if an impression does not capture everything that is intended, can
you realign the exist ing impression?
One must always bear in mind that an edentulous ridge has soft,
displaceable tissue. Thus it is important to relieve the pressure before relining an
existing impression. If this is not done, tissue is compressed, and dimensional
stability of the final impression is compromised. This inevitability leads to an
undersized, ill-fitting denture.
82. How is vertical dimension established in a totally edentulous
mouth?
Vertical dimension is established with the aid of bite rims. The most
important aspect of vertical dimension is to establish the freeway space. The
minimal opening in freeway space, which is determined phonetically (the "s"
sound), is normally 1—2 mm.
83. How are overlap and overjet established?
Overlap and overjet are established by the maxillary bite rim, which also
establishes the occlusal plane. The bite rim is adjusted by its position relative to
the lip and cheek.
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84. Is the bite registration talcen in the centric relation or centric
occlusion position?
This controversy has been argued for years and remains unresolved.
However, certain principles are generally accepted:
1. A centric relation position may be duplicated.
2. Centric relation is the same position in various openings of the vertical
dimension.
3. Centric relation should be an unstrained position.
4. Centric occlusion may be employed if the bite registration is done without
increasing the vertical dimension.
85. 1 s it necessary to take multiple bite registrations?
It is not necessary to take multiple bite registrations to capture a
maxillary/mandibular relationship. However, because tissue displacement makes it
difficult to obtain a stable bite with wax rims, a single accurate bite registration is
unlikely. It is advisable, therefore, to take multiple bite registrations throughout
the fabrication procedure and even after insertion of the final dentures.
86. What does the tooth try-in appointment accomplish?
The most obvious reason for the try-in appointment is to visualize the
esthetics of the final teeth in regard to lip line, overbite and overjet, shape, and
arrangement. The try-in appointment can also determine the fullness of the labial
flanges in relationship to the cheeks and lips. Occlusal relationship can be checked
and verified, and a new bit registration can be performed. Above all, the try-in
appointment affords both the dentist and the patient a preview of the final
completed denture.
87. How is posterior occlusion selected with regard to tooth
morphology?
Posterior occlusion can range from monoplane (flat plane) to steep
anatomic occlusal cusps. In general, the more anatomic the occlusion, the more
efficient its function. However, it is more difficult to establish balanced occlusion
with a steep anatomic denture, and lack of balance leads to denture instability. It
is, therefore, easier to establish occlusal harmony with monoplane teeth. Overbite
and overjet of the anterior teeth also affect selection of the posterior teeth.
88. How do overbite and overjet affect the selection of cuspid inclines
of the posterior teeth?
Overbite and overjet of the anterior teeth affect selection of the cuspid
inclines of the posterior teeth when balanced occlusion is to be achieved in lateral
and protrusive movements:
Steep overbite— steep cuspal incline
Small overbite— monoplane
Wide overj ct— monoplane
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Narrow overjet— steep cuspal incline
89. Of what materials are denture teeth composed? How are they
selected?
Denture teeth are made from basically three materials: porcelain, acrylic,
and composite-filled resin. All three materials afford excellent esthetic capabilities.
Porcelain teeth afford the greatest degree of hardness and best withstand
wear. However, they are brittle and difficult to change or adjust; they also have a
low mechanical, strength to the resin base.
Acrylic teeth, on the other hand, are the softest of the materials and
therefore the least resistant to wear. They are, however, easy to use, they can be
easily changed or adjusted, and they have the best bond strength to the denture
base.
Composite-filled resin teeth have hardness and strength values between
porcelain and acrylic; they bond well to denture base and can be adjusted easily.
90. What procedure should be followed for insertion of a full upper and
full lower denture?
During the processing of the denture base, the probability of dimensional
change is high. Dimensional change affects the adaptation of the base to the
tissue-bearing area and also affects the occlusion. It is advisable, therefore, to
verify the adaptation of the dentures to the tissuebearing areas. This procedure
can be accomplished by placing some type of pressure-indicating material inside
the denture. The extension of the peripheral borders, especially in the frenum
area, should be evaluated. Once the individual bases are adjusted, the occlusal
balance should be carefully checked and adjusted. A remount procedure is
recommended for this equilibration.
91. When the treatment plan calls for an immediate (transitional)
denture, what are the expectations?
If the anterior teeth are to be extracted at the time of denture insertion, the
patient should be informed that the denture teeth can be placed in the same
position as the existing teeth. However, facial appearance will change because of
the presence of the labial flange, which affects the fullness of the lip. The patient
also should be made aware of the necessary process of adaptation to the palate
and of the increase in salivary flow that over time will become normal. Finally, the
patient should be told that most people adapt well to such oral changes.
92. I s the impression procedure the same for a transitional denture as
for a conventional denture?
The impression procedure is approximately the same for establishing the
peripheral border. The major concern in taking an impression around existing
teeth and exaggerated undercut area is to select a material that has the lowest
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viscosity and is nonrigid after setting. These properties are important to avoid
damage of existing teeth during the removal of the impression.
93. How is vertical dimension established in the construction of a
transitional denture?
It is important to use the existing teeth to establish the centric occlusal
position, regardless of the amount and position of the teeth. At the bite
registration phase, a bite rim is constructed in the edentulous space adjacent to
the existing teeth, and the teeth with the wax rim are used to capture the occlusal
relationship.
94. If the master casts are altered in a transitional denture procedure
(e.g., elimination of gross tissue undercuts), how is the surgical
procedure altered?
It is necessary during the surgical procedure to know exactly how the
master cast has been altered. This knowledge is critical for successful insertion of
the transitional denture. It is advisable to construct a second denture base that is
transparent. This surgical stent is placed over the ridge after the teeth are
extracted. Pressure points and undercuts are readily visible, and surgical ridge
correction can be performed.
95. When a transitional denture is inserted, what procedures should be
followed?
It is always beneficial to have a surgical stent available to ascertain the fit of
the denture base. Because many soft-tissue undercut areas may be present, it is
critical to establish a single path of insertion of the denture. Gross removal of
areas inside the dentures may lead to poor adaptation of the denture base and
instability. In this situation an immediate soft-lining material is indicated.
96. During the healing phase, what procedures should be followed?
The patient should be instructed not to remove the denture and to return
after 24 hours. At that time, tissue irritation and occlusion are checked, and the
denture is adjusted. Then the patient is instructed about insertion and removal of
the denture and told that as the ridges heal, resorption will occur. Each case
varies, but in general resorption leads to a loosening of the denture. Therefore,
transitional soft-lining procedures should be performed throughout the healing
phase, on approximately a monthly basis. The final healing may take from 3—6
months, at which time a permanent lining in the existing denture or a new denture
is constructed.
97. is a face-bow transfer necessary in jaw registration in the full-
denture construction?
It is advisable to take a face-bow transfer in the construction of a full
denture. The purpose of the registration is to relate the maxillary bite rims to the
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temperomandibular joint and facial planes. This registration aids in determining
not only esthetic factors but also the type of occlusal plane.
98. Is it necessary to take eccentric bite registrations in the
construction of full dentures?
Although eccentric bite registrations are not essential, they aid in
establishing a balanced occlusion. A stable occlusion is important for the retention
and stability of dentures as well as for functional efficiency.
99. What is the neutral zone? How does it relate to the alveolar ridge?
The neutral zone is the potential space between the lips and cheeks on one
side and the tongue on the other. Natural or artificial teeth in this zone are subject
to equal and opposite forces from the surrounding musculature. The alveolar
ridge, which normally dictates the position of the denture teeth, may conflict with
the neutral zone. Therefore, the neutral position zone also should be considered
when denture teeth are positioned.
100. Are there any advantages to retaining roots under a denture apart
from retention properties?
Retention is a critical aspect in root-retained dentures. Of equal importance,
however, retained roots help to prevent resorption of the residual ridges. Retained
roots also afford the patient some proprioceptive sense of "naturalness" in
function of dentures.
101. What is the ideal type of attachment in a root- retained denture?
The ideal type of attachment affords maximal retentive forces for the
denture with minimal torquing forces to the roots. Because these ideal properties
cannot be totally obtained, a compromise is necessary. Many factors determine
how much retention a tooth can withstand without subjection to harmful forces,
including:
1. The amount of supportive bone around the retained roots
2. The number of existing roots
3. The type and amount of occlusal forces
4. The type of attachment (i.e., intra- or extraradicular, rigid or stress-
bearing attachments)
5. Splinting or nonsplinting of roots
102. In a root-retained denture, which is better— intraradicular or
extraradicular attachment?
Both attachments can be equally retentive, but the intraradicular
attachment places the fulcrum forces more deeply into the bone than an
extraradicular attachment and thus helps to withstand deleterious torquing forces.
The intraradicular attachments, however, are more difficult to implement because
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of (1) length of existing root, (2) width of existing root, (3) paralleling to other
roots, (4) inability to splint, and (5) difficulty in hygiene.
103. 1 s splinting a preferred treatment in a root- retained denture?
The main purpose of splinting roots in a tooth-borne denture is to dissipate
the fore thus minimizing the torque on the existing roots. Splinting does not
necessarily result in increased denture retention, but it creates a more difficult
construction procedure. Splinting should be attempted after certain aspects are
evaluated, such as (I) paralleling, (2) amount of freeway space, (3) placement of
bar to ridge, and (4) type of bar.
104. What is the difference between a rigid and a stress- brealcing
attachment?
In rigid attachment the male and female components join in a precise
fashion, allowing almost no movement between the two parts. This creates a rigid,
nonflexible attachment that affords the greatest amount of retention but also
produces the greatest amount of torque on the retained roots. A rigid attachment
is not recommended on periodontically compromised teeth.
A stress- bearing attachment affords movement between the male and
female components, thereby relieving torque. In most cases, a stress-bearing
attachment is recommended.
105. How many roots must be retained to construct a root- retained
denture?
There is no fixed rule. A root-retained denture can be constructed with only
one root. The fewer the roots, the less the retentive force that should be applied
to them. The ideal distribution of retained roots would be both cuspid regions and
bilateral molar regions.
106. Is it necessary to place attachments or to cover the roots of a
root- retai ned dentu re?
It is not always necessary to cover a root beneath an overdenture.
Retention is not the only goal of this treatment modality. Equally important is
preservation of the residual ridge by retaining the roots. However, if a root is not
covered, the exposed surfaces are highly susceptible to decay. Oral hygiene must
be stringently maintained.
107. Are the principles the same for a maxillary as for a mandibular
overdenture?
Many of the principles for root-retained dentures are the same for the
maxillary arch as for the mandible, including (1) selection of roots to be retained
with regard to position and stability, (2) types of attachments, (3) paralleling, and
(4) splinting. One aspect that may differ is related to morphologic differences of
the residual ridges. The maxillary arch has a greater probability of undercut areas
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in the anterior region above the roots. This difference is quite apparent in the
canine area. It is necessary to design the path of insertion to take the undercuts
into consideration. Therefore, attachment selection may have to be altered, and
the peripheral border of the denture may have to be reduced or eliminated.
108. Can the palate be eliminated in a root- retained maxillary denture?
If retention is adequate from the retained roots with their attachments, it is
possible to eliminate the palate. It must be remembered that the palatal area
affords the denture the greatest bearing area and also creates cross-arch
stabilization.
109. What are the causes of denture stomatitis? How can it be treated?
Denture stomatitis is caused by trauma from poorly fitting dentures, by poor
oral and denture hygiene, and by the oral fungus Candida albicans. Denture
stomatitis can be treated by using resilient denture liners that stabilize ill-fitting
dentures, thereby treating the inflamed tissue. Some liners may also inhibit fungal
growth.
IMPLANTS
110. What types of implants are most commonly used for prosthetic
replacement of the tooth?
1. Endoseal implants: blades, screws, or cylinders are implanted into the
maxilla or mandible. These implants support the dental prosthesis.
2. Subperiosteal implants: a metal framework is inserted on top of the
maxillary or mandibular bone. Vertical posts attached to the framework protrude
the soft tissue and support the dental prosthesis.
111. What is an osseointegrated implant?
An osseointegrated implant is a cylinder or screw constructed of a
biocompatible material that is precisely imbedded into the ridge of the maxilla or
mandible (see figure, top of below). The fixture is allowed to integrate with the
bone without any loading forces for a certain period. Histologically, the bone cells
grow tightly around this anchor with no membrane attachment at the interface
(unlike natural tooth-bone interface).
Osseointegrated implant. (Courtesy of NobelBlocare, Westmont, IL.)
J^-Ji-:
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W-
f
3
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242
112. Describe the components of an implant and the clinical procedures
used with each.
The technique and the biocompatible materials used in the osseointeg rated
implant were developed by Per-Ingvar Branemark, an orthopedic surgeon, more
than 50 years ago. Branemark identified the biocompatible material, titanium, and
described the following components:
1. Fixture: the anchor imbedded into the edentulous ridge. It is
constructed of titanium and may be coated with biocompatible, bone-regeneration
materal such as hydroxyapatite. The fixture is carefully imbedded into precision-
drilled holes and allowed to integrate with the bone undisturbed for 3—6 months.
2. Abutment: the transitional piece that connects the fixture to the
prosthesis. The abutment is normally attached to the fixture after a second
surgical procedure.
3. Dental prosthesis: the dental prosthesis can then be constructed and
attached to the abutment. This stage may begin a few weeks after the second
surgery.
Components of an implant. (Courtesy of NobelBiocare, West-mont, IL.)
CroLun
,; ! ^^ iRbutme nt
ifiKture
113. What is the success rate of an osseointegrated implant
prosthesis?
Many factors affect the success rate of an implant prosthesis; however,
studies for longterm predictability have demonstrated a success rate of more than
90%.
114. What factors affect the success rate of the implant?
• Careful patient selection • Integrated treatment planning
• Exacting diagnostic records • Precise clinical procedures
115. What are the important factors in patient selection?
1. Patient's general health
• Medical considerations
• Medications
• Psychiatric considerations
2. Intraoral factors
• Bone tissue site of fixture installation is free from pathologic conditions
(e.g., cysts)
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• Site free from unerupted or impacted teeth, root remnants, or any other
foreign bodies
• No open communication between the bone and oral cavity
• The mucosa must be healthy and free from ulceration
• Anatomic factors
116. What type of bone is important to osseointegration?
Good bone consists of a thicl< layer of compact bone surrounding a core of
dense trabecular bone of favorable strength. Poor bone consists of a thin layer of
cortical bone surrounding a core of low-density trabecular bone.
117. What anatomic factors are important to consider for implant
replacement?
• Transverse shape of the jaw bone
• Degree of resorption
• Maxilla— location of sinuses, nasal cavity, and incisive canal
• Mandible— mental foramen, inferior alveolar nerve, and blood vessels
118. How is the intraoral condition evaluated?
The intraoral condition is determined through radiographic evaluation:
• Intraoral radiograph of proposed site
• General view of the jaws (an orthopontomogram reveals any pathologic
processes)
• Lateral cephalometric radiograph (to show relationship between jaws)
• Tomographic records (valuable information about the width of the alveolar
crest and the location of important anatomic structures)
119. How do you plan for the proper treatment modality?
Planning the actual course of therapy is essential to success. Before the
surgery, an evaluation should be made of the desired prosthetic results. This
evaluation dictates the following:
• Type of prosthetic replacement
• Number of implants
• Placement of fixtures
• Models of the jaw mounted on an articulator, if necessary. Set-up of teeth
on these models determines the prosthesis and helps the dentist performing the
surgery to visualize the proposed prosthesis. The surgeon also may be guided for
implant placement by the use of a surgical template.
120. What are radiographic and surgical stents?
Radiographic and surgical stents are templates constructed on the
diagnostic models that aid in the position and placement of the implants. A stent
with metal markers over the proposed fixture sites should be used to aid in the
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evaluation of radiographs. A surgical sterfl is also useful when the fixtures are
implanted. The optimal position from a prosthetic point of view can be visualized.
121. What are the treatment modalities for a totally edentulous jaw?
• Overdenture supported by implants
• Fixed "high-water" prosthesis
• Conventional fixed crown and bridges using implants
122. Describe the concept of implant-supported overdenture.
An implant-supported overdenture is supported both by the implants and
the edentulous ridge covered by resilient mucosa. The surgeon must
accommodate for this resiliency in the attachments of the implants to permit small
rotational movements.
123. What are the indications for the overdenture treatment?
This treatment modality is a comparatively simple procedure with relatively
low cost and meets the demands imposed by many patients. The most common
indications are:
• Retention of denture
• Compromised hygiene skills (i.e., reduced dexterity, as with elderly
people)
• Interarch positions (difficulty ir placing proper interdental relationships
with fixed restorations)
• Phonetics/esthetics (especially in the maxilla, an overdenture may improve
esthetic and/or phonetic results compared with an implant-supported fixed
prosthesis).
124. How many implants are necessary to support the overdenture?
The number of implants ranges from a minimum of two fixtures to an ideal
of four. It is also important to consider the loading forces on the implant.
125. What is the effect of loading forces on implant-supported
overdentures?
The loading forces are important to fixture survival because overloading can
lead to implant failure. To reduce improper loading conditions, the following points
should be considered:
1. The implants should be positioned as perpendicular to the occlusal plane
as possible.
2. Shear loads and bending movements are reduced if leverages are
shortened by using short abutments and low attachments.
3. Resilient attachments reduce bending movements. Occlusal forces are
shared between fixtures and overdenture-bearing mucosa.
4. Extension bars represent a potential risk of overloading.
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126. What is the fixed "high-water" prosthesis on an edentulous arch?
The fixed prosthesis supported by implants on an edentulous arch was first
developed and investigated by Branemark in the 1960s:
• Placement of fixtures with transmucosal abutments as parallel as possible
to each other
• Cast metal frameworks that fit precisely on the abutments and support the
prosthesis
• Denture teeth and processed denture material on the metal framework
High-water prosthesis. (Courtesy of NobelBlocare, Westmont, IL.)
127. What does "high water" mean?
High water refers to the design of an implant-supported prosthesis. The
implants support the prostheses without the aid of the mucosal edentulous ridge,
which is utilized in the implant-supported overdenture. Space between the
prosthesis and the mucosa is necessary for proper hygiene, thus leading to the
descriptive term "high water."
128. What happens when the fixtures are not parallel in a fixed
prosthesis?
A precise prosthesis fit is necessary for osseointeg rated rigid fixtures;
therefore, relative paralleling is required. Lack of parelleling, however, can be
compensated with proper abutment selection. The divergence of axial fixtures can
differ up to 40°.
129. How many fixtures are necessary to support a high-water fixed
prosthesis?
Many factors determine the number of fixtures necessary to support a fixed
prosthesis, including quality of bone, placement and length of fixture, and loading
of fixtures. In general, however, 4—6 fixtures are sufficient to support a fixed
high-water prosthesis.
130. Can conventional fixed bridgework be used over implants to
restore a totally edentu bus arch?
Conventional fixed bridgework rather than the high-water prosthesis can be
used with implants to restore a totally edentulous arch. However, fixture
positioning, loading forces, and esthetic and phonetic considerations are more
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critical. In addition, more fixtures are necessary to support the prosthesis
(minimum of 6).
131. Should an implant prosthesis be considered in partially edentulous
patients?
The partially fixed implant-supported prosthesis is a viable treatment and
should be considered as the treatment of choice when the only alternatives are a
removable partial denture or a fixed bridge attached to previously untouched
teeth, or if the proposed abutments are periodontally compromised. Conventional
bridgework may be the appropriate treatment of choice when the proposed
abutment teeth are periodontally sound but need extensive restorative work.
Fixed implant-supported prosthesis. (Courtesy of
NobelBiocare, Westmont, IL.)
"T"'-
•rif
132. What aspects should be considered in selecting implant treatment
for partially edentulous patients?
1. Implant placement is limited and defined by existing edentulous space;
therefore, fixture placement may be near sensitive structures such as nerves and
blood vessels.
2. Good esthetic results may be difficult to achieve.
3. Greater horizontal loading forces place high demands on the anchorage
of the fixture.
4. Topographic conditions of the existing bone and its relationship to the
remaining teeth must be considered.
5. Occlusal considerations are essential (i.e., when canines and premolar
teeth are replaced in a cuspid-protected articulator with a deep overbite).
6. Periodontal disease on remaining teeth creates a pathologic condition
that may contraindicate implantation.
133. What factors influence abutment selection?
The abutment selection is an important prosthodontic phase of treatment
because it may determine the final prosthesis design. Factors for abutment
selection should include the following:
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1. Articulated casts with diagnostic wax-up of the proposed prosthesis aid in
size and angulation of the abutment.
2. Type of abutment depends on whether the prosthesis is to be screwed to
the implant or cement-retained.
3. Transmucosal space should be determined because it affects the height
selection of the abutment.
4. Esthetic/phonetic considerations also affectthe selection of abutment.
134. What diagnostic procedure may be used for abutment selection?
To determine the proper abutment angulation height, esthetic factors, and
occlusal considerations, it is necessary to know the position of the fixture to the
bone in relation to the gingival mucosa and interarch space between the fixture
and the opposing dentition. Fixture angulation and transmucosal height can be
measured intraorally with diagnostic gauges. However, a more precise method is
the following:
1. Obtain an impression of the arch with the fixtures.
2. Construct a cast that contains replicas of the fixtures with its relationship
to the mucosa.
3. Articulate this model to the opposing dentition. This method facilitates
proper abutment selection and fabrication.
135. What is an angulated abutment?
An angulated abutment is positioned in an angulated direction from the
axial position of the fixture. This angulation may vary up to 30°. Angulated
abutments are used when the fixtures have been installed with an unfavorable
inclination in relation to the desired position of the prosthesis.
136. 1 s an angulated abutment clinically safe?
In vitro studies have shown that as abutment increases, compressive and
tensile strains around the implant also increase. A 3-year clinical evaluation by
Balshi et al., however, showed that angulated abutments do not necessarily
promote periimplant mucosal problems. The success rate is comparable to that of
the standard abutment.
137. What is the UCLA type abutment?
The UCLA abutment is custom-fabricated on the fixture replica. Normally,
the fabrication is done so that the final abutment appears like a full-crown
preparation on which the prosthesis is cemented. It also may be screw-retained.
This customized fabrication technique allows control of angulation, transmucosal
shape and height, esthetic considerations, and interocclusal space.
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(Courtesy of NobelBiocare, Westmont, IL.)
138. Can an implant be used for single-tooth replacement?
Yes. However, careful patient selection and presurgical analysis are critical
so that function
and esthetics approximate the natural tooth.
139. Can implants and natural teeth be used together to support a final
prostheses?
Natural teeth are suspended in bone by the periodontal membrane. This
situation allows tooth movement in relationship to bone. An osseointeg rated
implant, which is fixed rigidly to the bone, allows no movement at its interface.
Joining a movable natural tooth and rigid in with a fixed prosthesis may cause
support problems that lead to failure. It is better to separate the prosthesis if
possible (implant with implant, natural tooth with natural tooth). This strategy
may not always be possible. If the prosthesis calls for joining natural teeth,
provisions should be made in the prosthesis to allow movement of the natural
tooth abutment. This goal is quite often accomplished with a nonrigid interlocking
attachment.
BIBLIOGRAPHY
1. Balshi I, Ekfeldt A, Stember T, Vrielinck L: Three-year evaluation of
Branemark implants connected to angulated abutments, mti Oral
Maxillofac Implants 12:52—58, 1997.
2. Chiche GJ, Pinault A: Esthetics of Anterior Fixed Prosthodontics. Chicago,
Quintessence, 1993.
3. Lucia VO: Treatment of the Edentulous Patient. Chicago, Quintessence,
1986.
4. Magnussen S, Nilson H, Lindh T: Branemark Systems: Restorative Dentist's
Manual. Gothenburg, Sweden, Nobel Biocare AB, 1992.
5. McLean JW: The Science and Art of Dental Ceramics, vol. I. Chicago,
Quintessence, 1979.
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6. McLean JW: The Science and Art of Dental Ceramics, vol. II. Chicago,
Quintessence, 1980.
7. IMorrow RIM, Rudd KD, Rhoads JE: Dental Laboratory Procedures: Complete
Dentures, vol. I, 2nd ed. St. Louis, Mosby, 1986.
8. Phillips R: Skinner's Science of Dental Materials, 9th ed. Philadelphia, W.B.
Saunders, 1991.
9. Rudd KD, Morrow RM, Rhoads JE: Dental Laboratory Procedures: Removable
Partial Dentures, vol. 3. St. Louis, Mosby, 1986.
10. Shillingburg HT Jr, et al: Fundamentals of Fixed Prosthodontics, 2nd ed.
Chicago, Quintessence, 1981.
11. Smith R, Kournjian J: Understanding Dental Implants. San Bruno, CA,
Kramer Communications, 1989.
12. Yamamoto M: Metal Ceramics: Principles and Methods of Makoto
Yamamoto. Tokyo, Quintessence, 1990.
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10. ORAL AND MAXI LLOFACI AL SURGERY
Stephen T. Sonis, D.M.D., D.M.Sc, and Willie L. Stephens, D.D.S.
General Topics
1. What are the elements of a SOAP note used for patient
assessment?
S = Symptoms
O = Objective findings
A = Assessment
P = Plan
2. Why should a patient be hospitalized for routine oral surgical
procedures?
The most common reason for liospitalizing a patient for routine oral surgical
procedures is behavioral management. Patients who are severely handicapped, for
example, may not be able to tolerate care in an office setting. Patients who are at
high medical risl< are often best treated in the controlled environment of the
operating room, where constant monitoring and quicl< treatment of a problem are
more easily managed. The final reason for treating a patient in the operating room
is an inability to tolerate or obtain local anesthesia.
3. What are the basic technical considerations in performing an
incision?
• Use a sharp blade of appropriate size.
• A firm, continuous stroke is preferable to short, soft, repeated strokes.
• Avoid vital structures; incising the lingual artery can ruin your morning.
• Use incisions that are perpendicular to epithelial surfaces.
• Consider the anatomy of the site in placement of the incision.
4. What factors influence the placement of incisions in the mouth?
• Anatomy and location of vital structures
• Convenience and access
5. For making an incision in an epithelial surface, how should the
scalpel blade be oriented?
To avoid bias, the incision should be made perpendicular to the epithelial
surface.
6. What are the principles of flap design?
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• Flap design should ensure adequate blood supply; the base of the flap
should be larger than the apex.
• Reflection of the flap should adequately expose the operative field.
• Flap design should permit atraumatic closure of the wound.
7. What are the most frequent causes of the tearing of mucogingival
flaps?
1. Flaps are too small to provide adequate exposure.
2. Too much force is used to elevate the flaps.
8. What are the means of promoting hemostasis?
Pressure Ligation with sutures
Thermal coagulationUse of vasoconstrictive substances
9. Describe and discuss the function of Allis forceps in oral surgery.
Allis forceps have a locking handle similar to a needle holder and small beaks
at the working end of the instruments. These beaks are useful in grasping tissue
for removal.
10. What are the indications for tooth transplantation? Which teeth are
most often transplanted?
Severe caries of the first molar is the most common indication for tooth
transplantation. The first molar is atraumatically removed, and the third molar is
placed into the socket. Success of the transplant is most predictable when the
apices of the roots of the tooth to be transplanted are one-third to one-half
formed with open apices and the bordering bony plates are intact.
11. What is genioplasty?
Genioplasty is a procedure by which the position of the chin is surgically
altered. The most common techniques are osteotomy or augmentation with
natural or synthetic materials.
12. How are facial and palatal clefts classified?
Class I Cleft lip only
Class II Cleft lip and cleft palate
Class III Cleft palate only
Class IV Facial cleft
13. What is the role of the general dentist in managing oral cancer?
The general dentist has three major roles in managing oral cancer:
1. Perhaps the most important is detection. As the primary provider of oral
health care, the dentist is in the position to detect the presence of early lesions. A
high degree of suspicion should lead to aggressive evaluation of any abnormality
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of the oral soft tissues. Biopsy of most areas of the mouth is within the realm of
the generalist.
2. Once a diagnosis of oral cancer has been established, the dentist has the
responsibility of ensuring that there are no areas of latent oral infection that may
predispose to the development of osteoradionecrosis or other complications of
therapy.
3. Because xerostomia and subsequent caries are common among patients
receiving radiation therapy to the head and neck, the generalist should educate
the patient about factors and behavior that increase the risk and should provide
the patient with trays for the self application of fluoride gels. An aggressive recall
schedule should be established.
14. What are the optimal dimensions (ratio) for an elliptical incisional
biopsy?
To ensure adequate margins for an incisional biopsy of an elliptical lesion,
the length of the ellipse should be 3 times the width.
Golden DP, Hooley JR: Oral mucosal biopsy procedures— Excisional and incisional. Dent
Clin North Am 38:279—300, 1994.
15. What are the major oral side effects of radiation to the head and
neck?
Xerostomia Caries
Mucositis Osteoradionecrosis
SUTURES: TECHNIQUES AND TYPES
16. What is the most common suture method? What are its
advantages?
The interrupted suture is the most common method. Because each suture is
independent, this procedure offers strength and flexibility in placement. Even if
one suture is lost or loosens, the integrity of the remaining sutures is not
compromised. The major disadvantage is the time required for placement.
17. What are the advantages of a continuous suture?
• Ease and speed of placement
• Distribution of tension over the whole suture line
• A more watertight closure than interrupted sutures
18. What factors determine the type of suture to be used?
Tissue type Healing process
Wound condition Expected postoperative course
19. How are sutures sized?
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Size refers to the diameter of the suture material. The smallest size that
provides the desired wound tension should be used. The higher the number, the
smaller the suture. For example, 3-0 sutures are thicker than 4-0 sutures. The
larger the diameter, the stronger the suture. In general, sutures for intraoral
wound closure are 3-0 or 4-0.
20. What are the types of resorbable sutures? Nonresorbable sutures?
Resorbable Nonresorbable
Plain gut Silk
Chromic gut Synthetic
Synthetic Nylon
Vicryl Mersilene
Dexon Prolene
21. What is the difference between monofilament and polyfilament
sutures?
Monofilament sutures consist of material made from a single strand. They
resist infection by not harboring organisms. Plain and chromic gut are examples.
Polyfilament sutures are made of multiple fibers that are either braided or twisted.
They generally have good handling properties. The most common examples used
in oral surgery are silk, Dexon, and Vicryl.
22. What are the principles of suturing technique?
• The suture should be grasped with the needle holder three-fourths of the
distance from the tip.
• The needle should be perpendicular when it enters the tissue.
• The needle should be passed through the tissue to coincide with the
shape of the needle.
• Sutures should be placed at an equal distance from the wound margin
(2—3 mm) and at equal depths.
• Sutures should be placed from mobile tissue to fixed tissue.
• Sutures should be placed from thin tissue to thick tissue.
• Sutures should not be overtightened.
• Tissues should not be closed under tension.
• Sutures should be 2—3 mm apart.
• The suture knot should be on the side of the wound.
23. When should intraoral sutures be removed?
In uncomplicated cases, sutures generally may be removed 5—7 days after
placement.
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TOOTH EXTRACTION
24. What are the components of extraction forceps?
Handle, hinge, and beaks.
25. What are the three principles of exodontia according to Shira?
1. Obtain adequate access.
2. Create an unimpeded path of removal.
3. Use controlled force.
26. What forceps are typically used for the removal of maxillary teeth?
Single-rooted teeth are usually removed with a maxillary universal forceps
(150) or a no. 1 forceps. Premolars can be extracted with the maxillary universal
forceps. To extract maxillary
Synthetic
Nylon
Mersilene
Prolene
molars, 150 forceps usually can be used. Alternatively, the upper molar
cowhorn can be used for fractured or carious teeth if care is applied.
27. What forceps are typically used for the removal of mandibular
teeth?
Ashe forceps are generally the most effective for the removal of mandibular
incisors, canines, and premolars. A lower universal forceps (151) is an alternative.
The 151 also can be used for most molars, although a mandibular cowhorn
forceps (no. 23) and no. 17 forceps are alternatives.
28. Name the indications for tooth extraction.
• Severe caries resulting in a nonrestorable tooth
• Pulpal necrosis that is not treatable with endodonti therapy
• Advanced periodontal disease resulting in severe, irreversible mobility
• Malpositioned, nonfunctional teeth
• Cracked or fractured teeth that are not amenable to conservative therapy
• Prosthetic considerations
• Impacted teeth when indicated (not all impacted teeth require extraction)
• Supernumerary teeth
• Teeth associated with a pathologic lesion, such as a tumor, that cannot be
eliminated completely without sacrificing the tooth
• Before severe myelosuppressive cancer therapy or radiation therapy, any
tooth that has a questionable prognosis or may be a potential source of infection
should be extracted.
• Teeth involved in jaw fractures
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29. What are the major contraindications for tooth extraction?
Contraindications may be either systemic or local. Systemic
contraindications are related to the patient's overall health and may include the
presence of a coagulopathy; uncontrolled diabetes mellitus; hematologic
malignancy, such as leukemia; uncontrolled cardiac disease; and certain drug
therapy. Elective extractions in pregnant patients is contraindicated. Local factors
include radiation therapy to the area, active infection, and nonlocalized infection.
The presence of a localized, dentoalveolar abscess is not an arbitrary
contraindication for extraction.
30. Give reasons for extracting third molars in a teenaged patient
rather than waiting until the patient is in his or her 40s.
Younger patients have a follicle surrounding the crown, whereas this space
is occupied by dense bone in older patients. Similarly, the periodontal ligament
space is more prominent in younger patients. Finally, whereas the roots are likely
to be incompletely formed in younger patients, they are completely formed in
older patients and may add to the complexity of extraction.
31. What factors affect the difficulty associated with tooth extraction?
• Position of the tooth in the arch. In general, anterior teeth are more easily
extracted than posterior teeth. Maxillary teeth are less difficult than mandibular
teeth.
• Condition of the crown. Carious teeth may be easily fractured, thus
complicating the extraction.
• Mobility of the tooth. Teeth that are mobile as a consequence of
periodontal disease are more easily extracted. Ankylosis or hypercementosis
increases the difficulty of tooth removal. In assessing mobility, the operator needs
to ensure that the crown is not fractured; fracture may produce a false sense of
overall tooth mobility.
• Root shape and length
• Proximity of associated vital structure
• Patient attitude and general health
32. What conditions may influence the difficulty of extraction of an
erupted tooth?
• Root form • Hypercementosis • Internal or external root resorption
• Caries • Prior endodontic therapy
33. How are cases classified according to their difficulty?
Type 1: Easy patient, easy case
Type 2: Easy patient, difficult case
Type 3: Difficult patient, easy case
Type 4: Difficult patient, difficult case
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34. What are the major forces used for tooth extraction?
Rotation and luxation are the major forces used for tooth extraction.
35. For multiple extractions, what is the appropriate order of tooth
removal?
In general, maxillary teeth are removed before mandibular teeth and
posterior teeth before anterior teeth.
36. What principles guide the use of elevators in tooth extraction?
• Elevators may be used to assess the level of anesthesia and to release the
periodontal ligament.
• The bone, not adjacent teeth, should be used as the fulcrum for elevator
assistance in tooth extraction.
• Elevators are most useful in multiple extractions.
• Elevators may assist in the removal of root tips by using a wedge
technique.
37. What are the steps in postoperative management of an extraction
site?
1. frrigate the site with sterile saline.
2. Remove tissue tags and granulation tissue from the soft tissue of the site.
3. Aggressive curettage of the socket is contraindicated. Pathologic tissue
should be removed by gentle scraping of the socket.
4. Compress the alveolar bone with finger pressure.
5. Suture if necessary at the papillae bordering the extraction site and
across the middle of
the site.
6. Review postoperative instructions with the patient.
38. What are the indications for third- molar extraction?
Pericoronitis
• Nonrestorable caries
• Advanced periodontal disease
• Position that prohibits adequate home care of the third molar or
compromises maintenance of the second molar
• Cyst formation
• Malposition
• Chronic pain
• Association with a neoplasm
• Resorption of adjacent tooth
39. Should all impacted third molars be extracted?
No. Fully impacted third molars that do not communicate with the oral ca
need not be extracted. The teeth should be followed regularly, however, to ensure
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that no pathologic process develops. No data support the suggestion that
impacted third molars contribute to crowding of anterior teeth.
40. What are the major complications of tooth extraction?
Fracture of the root or alveolar plate Infection
Displacement of a root tip Perforation of the maxillary sinus
Bleeding Paresthesia
Dry socket (localized osteitis) Soft-tissue injury
Fracture of the tuberosity
41. What is the most common complication of tooth extraction? How
can it be prevented?
The most common complication of tooth extraction is root fracture. The best
method of prevention is to expose the tooth surgically and to remove bone before
extraction.
42. Which tooth root is most likely to be displaced into an unfavorable
anatomic site during extraction?
The palatal root of the maxillary first molar is most likely to be displaced
into the maxillary sinus during extraction.
43. Describe the prevention and treatment of postoperative bleeding.
A thorough preoperative medical history helps to identify most patients at
systemic risk for postoperative bleeding. On leaving the office, patients should
receive both verbal and written instructions for postoperative wound care. Of
particular relevance regarding bleeding is the avoidance of rinsing, spitting, and
smoking during the first postoperative day. The patient should be specifically
instructed to avoid aspirin. Patients should be instructed to bite on a gauze sponge
for 30 minutes after the extraction.
A patient with postoperative bleeding should return to the office. The wound
should be cleared of residual clot or debris, and the source of the bleeding
identified. Local anesthesia should be administered, and existing sutures removed.
The wound should be irrigated copiously with saline. Residual granulation tissue
should be removed. A hemostatic agent, such as gelatin sponge, oxidized
cellulose, or oxidized regenerated cellulose, may be placed into the extraction site.
The wound margins should be reapproxi mated and carefully sutured.
44. What is a dry socket?
Dry socket is a localized osteitis of the extraction site that typically develops
between the third and fourth postoperative day. The term applies to the clinical
appearance of the socket, which is devoid of a typical clot or granulating wound.
Consequently, patients develop moderate-to-severe throbbing pain. The frequency
of dry socket after routine tooth extractions is around 2%. However, the condition
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may occur in as many as 20% of cases after extraction of impacted mandibular
third molars.
45. How can dry socket be prevented?
Prevention of dry socket is somewhat controversial. It is generally agreed
that careful technique to minimize trauma reduces the likelihood of this
complication. In addition, preoperative rinsing with chlorhexidine gluconate 0.12%
may be of benefit. Placement of antibiotic-impregnated gelfoam or injection of
polylactic acid granules into the socket before suturing may be of value, although
these interventions are far from being universally accepted.
46. How is dry socket treated?
Curettage of the extraction site is contraindicated. The extraction site should
be gently irrigated with warm saline. A medicated dressing is then placed into the
socket. The medication used for this purpose has been the topic of much
discussion. One alternative consists of eugenol, benzocaine, and balsam of Peru.
Alternatively, a gauze dressing impregnated with equal amounts of zinc oxide,
eugenol, tetracycline, and benzocaine may be used.
47. What substances should never be placed into a healing socket?
Petrolatum-based compounds and tetracycline powder.
48. Describe pain control after extraction.
For most patients, adequate control of postoperative pain is obtained with
nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs). A large number of compounds are
available. Data indicate that postoperative pain can be minimized if the first dose
of NSAIDs is administered immediately after the procedure. No evidence indicates
that preoperative administration of NSAIDs favorably alters the postoperative
course. For patients unable to take NSAIDs because of allergies, ulcer disease, or
other contraindications, various narcotic analgesics are available. Patients taking
such medications must be cautioned about drowsiness and concurrent use of
alcohol or other medication. In no instance is persistent postoperative pain (>2
days) to be expected, and patients should be instructed to call if they have
prolonged discomfort, which may indicate infection or another complication.
49. What percent of patients request pain medication after third-molar
removal?
90%.
50. Which teeth are most commonly impacted?
The most commonly impacted teeth are the third molars and the maxillary
canines.
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INFECTIONS AND ABSCESSES
51. What are the major sources of odontogenic infections?
The two major sources of odontogenic infection are periapical disease,
which occurs as a consequence of pulpal necrosis, and periodontal disease.
52. What are the three clinical stages of odontogenic infection?
1. Periapical osteitis occurs when the infection is localized within the
alveolar bone. Although the tooth is sensitive to percussion and often slightly
extruded, there is no soft tissue swelling.
2. Cellulitis develops as the infection spreads from the bone to the adjacent
soft tissue. Subsequently, inflammation and edema occur, and the patient
develops a poorly localized swelling. On palpation the area is often sensitive, but
the sensitivity is not discrete.
3. Suppuration then occurs and the infection localizes into a discrete,
fluctuant abscess.
53. What are the significant complications of untreated odontogenic
infection?
• Tooth loss
• Spread to the cavernous sinus and brain
• Spread to the neck with large vein complications
• Spread to potential fascial spaces with compromise of the airway
• Septic shock
54. What are the principles of therapy for odontogenic infections as
defined by Peterson?
1. Determine the severity of the infection.
2. Evaluate the state of the host defense mechanisms.
3. Determine whether the patient should be treated by a general dentist or
a specialist.
4. Treat the infection surgically.
5. Support the patient medically.
6. Choose and prescribe the appropriate antibiotic.
7. Administer the antibiotic properly.
8. Evaluate the patient frequently.
55. What is the treatment of choice for an odontogenic abscess?
The treatment of choice for an odontogenic abscess is incision and
drainage, which may be accomplished in one of three ways: (1) exposure of the
pulp chamber with extirpation of the pulp, (2) extraction of the tooth, or (3)
incision into the soft-tissue surface of the abscess. Antibiotic therapy is indicated
in the presence of fever or lymphadenopathy.
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56. How is incision and drainage of soft tissue best performed?
Local anesthesia should be obtained first. Care must be taken not to inject
through the infected area and thus spread the infection to noninvolved sites. Once
adequate anesthesia has been obtained, an incision should be placed at the most
dependent part of the swelling. The incision should be wide enough to facilitate
drainage. Blunt dissection is often helpful. After irrigation, a drain of either
iodoform gauze or rubber should be placed to maintain the patency of the wound.
Postoperative instructions should include frequent rinses with warm saline,
appropriate pain medication, and, when indicated, antibiotic therapy. The patient
should be instructed to return for follow-up evaluation in 24 hours.
57. When infection erodes through the cortical plate, it does so in a
predictable manner. What factors determine the location of infection
from a specific tooth?
• Thickness of bone overlying the tooth apex; the thinner the bone, the
more likely it is to be perforated by spreading infection.
• The relationship of the site of bony perforation to muscle attachments to
the maxilla or mandible.
58. State the usual site of bone perforation, the relationship to muscle
attachment, the de termining muscle, and the site of localization for
each tooth for odontogenic infections.
Involved
Teetii
Usual Site of
Peiforation
of Bone
Relation of
Perforation
to Muscle
Attachment
Determining
Muscle
Site of
Localization
maxilla
Central incisor
Labial
Below
Orbicularis oris
Labial vestibule
Lateral incisor
Labial
Below
Orbicularis oris
Labial vestibule
(palatal)*
-
-
(palatal)
Canine
Labial
Below
Levator anguli oris
Oral vestibule
Labial
(above)
Levator anguli oris
(Canine space)
Premolars
Buccal
Below
Buccinator
Buccal vestibule
Molars
Buccal
Below
Buccinator
Buccal vestibule
Buccal
Above
Buccinator
Buccal space
(palatal)
-
-
(palatal)
Mandible
Incisors
Labial
Above
Mentalis
Labial vestibule
Canine
Labial
Above
Depressor anguli oris
Labial vestibule
Premolars
Buccal
Above
Buccinator
Buccal vestibule
First molar
Buccal
Above
Buccinator
Buccal vestibule
Buccal
Below
Buccinator
Buccal space
Lingual
Above
Mylohyoid
Sublingual space
Second molar
Buccal
Above
Buccinator
Buccal vestibule
Buccal
Below
Buccinator
Buccal space
Lingual
Below
Mylohyoid
Sublingual space
Lingual
Below
Mylohyoid
Submandibualr space
Third molar
Lingual
Below
Mylohyoid
Submandibualr space
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261
* Parentheses indicate rare occurrences.
r>1odified from Lasl<in Dr>1: Anatomic considerations in diagnosis and treatment of odontogenic
infections. J Am Dent Assoc 69:308, 1964.
59. What is osteoradionecrosis?
Osteoradionecrosis is a chronic infection of bone that occurs after radiation
therapy. It is most commonly noted in the mandible of patients who receive
treatment for head and neck cancer and have preexisting dental infection. Thus,
the frequency is higher in dentulous patients compared with edentulous patients.
Prevention of osteoradionecrosis involves the elimination of infected teeth before
initiation of radiation therapy. The patient who receives radiation to the head and
neck remains at risk for osteoradionecrosis.
60. What are the indications for hospitalization of patients with
infection?
Fever> 101°F Leukocytosis (WBO 10,000)
Dehydration Shift of WBC to the left (increased
Trismus immature neutrophils)
Marked pain Systemic disease known to modify the
Significant and/or spreading swelling patient's ability to fight infection
Elevation of the tongue Need for parenteral antibiotics
Bilateral submandibular swelling Inability of patient to comply with
Neurologic changes traditional treatment
Difficulty with breathing or swallowing Need for extraoral drainage
61. What are the indications for antibiotic therapy in orofacial
infection?
• Evidence of systemic involvement, such as fever, leukocytosis, malaise,
fatigue, weakness, lymphadenopathy, or increased pulse
• Infection that is not localized but extending or progressing
• No response to standard surgical intervention
• Increased risk for endocarditis or systemic infection because of cardiac
status, immune status, or systemic disease
62. What are fascial space infections?
Fascial spaces potentially exist between fascial layers and may become filled
with purulent material from spreading orofacial infections. Spaces that become
directly involved are termed spaces of primary involvement. Infections may spread
to additional spaces, which are termed secondary.
63. What are the primary maxillary fascial spaces?
Canine, buccal, and infratemporal.
64. What are the primary mandibular fascial spaces?
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Submental, submandibular, buccal, and sublingual.
65. What are the secondary fascial spaces?
Masseteric Lateral pharyngeal
Pterygomandibular Retropharyngeal
Superficial and deeptemporal Prevertebral
66. What is Ludwig's angina?
Ludwig's angina is bilateral cellulitis affecting the submandibular and
sublingual spaces. Patients develop marked brawny edema with elevation of the
floor of the mouth and tongue that results in airway compromise.
67. What is cavernous sinus thrombosis?
Cavernous sinus thrombosis may occur as a consequence of the
hematogenon of maxillary odontogenic infection via the venous drainage of the
maxilla. The lack of valves in the facial veins permits organisms to flow to and
contaminate the cavernous sinus, thus resulting in thrombosis. Patients present
with proptosis, orbital swelling, neurologic signs, and fever. The infection is life-
threatening and requires prompt and aggressive treatment, consisting of
elimination of the source of infection, drainage, parenteral antibiotic therapy, and
neurosurgical consultation.
68. What is the antibiotic of choice for odontogenic infection?
Penicillin is the drug of choice; 95% of bacteria causing odontogenic
infections respond to penicillin. For most infections, a dose of penicillin VK, 500
mg every 6 hours for 7—10 days, is adequate; 5—7% of the population, however,
is allergic to penicillin.
69. What are alternative antibiotics for patients who are allergic to
penicillin?
Erythromycin, clindamycin, and tetracycline.
70. Despite the advent of numerous new antibiotics, penicillin remains
the drug of choice for odontogenic infections. Why?
• It is bactericidal with a narrow spectrum of activity that includes the most
common pathogens associated with odontogenic infection.
• It is safe; the toxicity associated with penicillin is low.
• It is cheap. A 10-day supply of penicillin cost under $5, compared, for
example, with Augmentin, which costs the patient approximately $70.
71. What is the major side effect associated with erythromycin?
Stomach upset and cramping are common after ingestion of erythromycin.
Such side effects may be minimized by prescribing an enteric-coated formulation.
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by having the patient eat with the medication, or by prescribing a form of
erythromycin that is absorbed from the intestine rather than the stomach.
72. What factors govern the selection of a particular antibiotic?
Specificity Cost
Toxicity Ease of administration
73. When should cultures be used for odontogenic infection?
• Infection in patients with immunocompromise due, for example, to cancer
chemotherapy, diabetes mellitus, or immunosuppressive drugs
• Before changing antibiotics in a patient who has failed to respond to
empirical therapy
• Before initiating antibiotic therapy in a patient who demonstrates signs of
systemic infection
74. Why may antibiotic therapy fail?
• Lack of patient compliance
• Failure to treat the infection locally
• Inadequate dose or length of therapy
• Selection of wrong antibiotic
• Presence of resistant organisms
• Nonbacterial infection
• Failure of antibiotic to reach infected site
• Inadequate absorption of antibiotic, as when tetracycline is taken with
milk products
75. Why is phenoxymethyl penicillin (penicillin V) more desirable than
benzyl penicillin (penicillin G) for the treatment of odontogenic
infections?
Penicillin V has the same spectrum of activity as penicillin G but is not
broken down by gastric acid. It is absorbed well orally.
76. Does the initiation of antibiotic therapy obviate the need for
surgical intervention in a patient with an infection?
No. Failure to eliminate the source of infection through surgical intervention
ultimately results in the failure of other forms of therapy.
DENTAL TRAUMA
77. What are the most important questions to ask in evaluating a
patient with acute trauma?
1. How did the injury occur?
2. Where did the injury occur?
3. When did the injury occur?
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4. Was the patient unconscious, or did the patient have nausea, vomiting,
or headache?
5. Was there prior injury to the teeth?
6. Is there any change in the occlusion?
7. Is there any thermal sensitivity of the teeth?
8. Review of the medical history
Andreasen JO, Andreasen FM: Essentials of Traumatic Injuries to the Teeth. Copenhagen,
l^unksgaard, 1990.
78. Discuss the primary assessment and management of the patient
with trauma.
The initial assessment and management of the patient with trauma are
centered on identification of life-threatening problems. The three most significant
aspects are (1) establishing and maintaining an airway, (2) evaluation and support
of the cardiopulmonary system, and (3) control of external hemorrhage. The
patient should be assessed and treated for shock.
79. What are the diagnostic methods of choice for evaluation of the
pediatric patient with trauma?
History and physical examination are the mainstays in evaluating the
pediatric patient with trauma. The clinician should determine the cause of the
trauma, the type of injury and the direction from which it occurred. In the case of
a younger child, it is helpful if an adult witnessed the traumatic event. Physical
examination should determine the child's mental state, facial asymmetry, trismus,
occlusion, and vision. The radiographic evaluation of choice is computed
tomography.
Kaban L: Diagnosis and treatment of fractures of facial bones in children. J Oral i^axiiiofac
Surg 5 1:722—729, 1993.
80. What are the four best ways for a patient to preserve a recently
avulsed tooth until he or she is seen by a dentist?
The four best ways for a patient to preserve a recently avulsed tooth are (1)
to replace it immediately into the socket from which it was avulsed; (2) to place it
in the mouth, under the tongue; (3) to place the tooth in milk; or (4) to place the
tooth in saline (1 teaspoon of salt in a glass of water).
81. How should an avulsed tooth be managed?
1. Whenever possible, avulsed teeth should be replaced into the socket
within 30 minutes of avulsion. After 2 hours, associated complications such as root
resorption increase significantly.
2. The tooth should not be scraped or extensively cleaned or sterilized
because such procedures will damage the periodontal tissues and cementum. The
tooth should be gently rinsed with saliva only.
3. The tooth should be placed in the socket with a semirigid splint for 7—14
days.
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82. What should be included in the clinical evaluation of the
traumatized dentition?
Mobility testing Electric pulp testing
Percussion sensitivity Soft-tissue evaluation
Andreasen JO, Andreasen FM: Essentials of Traumatic Injuries to the Teeth. Copenh
l^unksgaard, 1990.
83. Describe the injuries involving the supporting structures of the
dentition.
Concussion: injury to the tooth that nnay result in hennorrhage and edema
of the periodontal ligament, but the tooth remains firm in its socket. Treatment:
occlusal adjustment and soft diet.
Subluxation: loosening of the involved tooth without displacement.
Treatment: same as for concussion.
I ntrusion: tooth is displaced apically into the alveolar process. Treatment:
if root formation is incomplete, allow the tooth to reerupt over several months; if
root formation is complete, then the tooth should be repositioned orthodontically.
Pulpal status must be monitored, because pulpal
necrosis is frequent in the tooth with an incomplete root and close to 100%
in the tooth with complete root formation.
Extrusion: tooth is partially displaced out of the socket. Treatment:
manually reposition tooth into socket, and splint in position for 2—3 weeks. A
radiographic examination should be performed after 2—3 weeks to rule out
marginal breakdown or initiation of root resorption.
Lateral luxation: tooth is displaced horizontally, therefore resulting in
fracture of the alveolar bone. Treatment: gentle repositioning of tooth into socket
followed by splinting for 3 weeks. A radiographic examination should be performed
after 2—3 weeks to rule out marginal breakdown or initiation of root resorption.
Avulsion: total displacement of the tooth out qf the socket. Treatment:
rapid reimplantation is the ideal. The tooth should be held by the clinical crown
and not by the root. Rinse the tooth in saline, and flush the socket with saline.
Replant the tooth, and splint in place with semirigid splint for 1 week. Place the
patient on antibiotic therapy (e.g., penicillin VK, 1 gm loading dose followed by
500 mg 4 times/day for 4 days). Assess the patient's tetanus prophylaxis status
and treat appropriately. If the apex is closed, a calcium hydroxide pulpectomy
should be initiated at the time the splint is removed. If the tooth cannot be
replanted immediately, placing it in Hank's medium, milk, or saliva aids in
maintaining the vitality of the periodontal and pulpal tissues. Follow-up
radiographic examinations should be performed at 3 and 6 weeks and at 3 and 6
months.
84. What are the types and characteristics of the resorption
phenomenon that may follow a traumatic injury?
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I nflammatory external and internal resorption occurs when necrotic
pulp has beconne infected, leading to resorption of the external surface of the root
or the pulp chamber and/or canal. Immediate treatment with a calcium
pulpectomy is indicated to arrest the process. Replacement resorption occurs
after damage to the periodontal ligament results in contact of cementum with
bone. As the root cementum is resorbed, it is replaced by bone, resulting in
ankylosis of the involved tooth.
85. When can the above forms of resorption be detected
radiographically?
It is possible to detect periapical radiolucencies that indicate internal and
external resorption after 3 weeks. Replacement resorption may be detected after 6
weeks.
86. Why should radiographs of the soft tissue be included in evaluation
of a patient with dental trauma?
It is not uncommon for fragments of fractured teeth to puncture and imbed
themselves into the oral soft tissue. Clinical examination is often inadequate to
detect these foreign bodies.
87. When a lip laceration is encountered, what part of the lip is the
most important landmark and the first area to be reapproxi mated?
The vermilion border, the area of transition of mucosal tissue to skin, is
evaluated and approximated first. An irregular vermilion margin is unesthetic and
difficult to correct secondarily.
88. How should a small avulsion of the lip be managed?
Avulsions can be treated with primary closure if no more than one-fourth of
the lip is lost. The tissue margins should be excised so that the wound has
smooth, regular margins.
89. How should a full-thickness, mucosa-to-skin laceration of the lip be
closed? Which layers should be sutured?
A layer closure ensures an optimal cosmetic and functional results. First a 5-
nylon suture is placed at the vermilion border. The muscle layer, the
subcutaneous layer, and the mucosa layer are closed with 4-0 resorbable sutures;
then the skin layer is closed with a 5-0 or 6-0 nylon suture.
90. How should a facial laceration that extends into dermis or fat be
closed?
Wounds that extend into dermis or fat should be closed in layers. The
dermis should be closed with 4-0 absorbable sutures, the skin with 5-0 or 6-0
nonabsorbable sutures.
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91. Why is a layered closure important?
A layered wound closure reestablishes anatomic alignment and avoids dead
space, thus reducing the risk of infection and scar formation. Closure of the
muscle and subcutaneous tissue layers minimizes tension in the skin layer and
thus allows eversion of the skin edges, which results in the most esthetic scar.
92. What structures are at risk when a facial laceration occurs posterior
to the anterior margin of the masseter muscle and inferior to the level of
the zygomatic arch?
The buccal branch of the facial nerve and the parotid gland duct are at risk
with lacerations in this position. When such a laceration is encountered, facial
nerve function must be tested, along with salivary flow from the parotid duct.
93. What is a dentoalveolar fracture? How is it treated?
A dentoalveolar fracture is a fracture of a segment of the alveolus and the
tooth within that segment. This fracture usually occurs in anterior regions.
Treatment consists of reduction of the segment to its original position or best
position relative to the opposing dentition, because it may not be possible to
determine the exact position before injury. The segment is then stabilized with a
rigid splint for 4—6 weeks.
94. What is the modified Le Fort classification of fractures?
Le Fort I Low maxillary fracture
la Low maxillary fracture/multiple segments
Le Fort II Pyramidal fracture
Ila Pyramidal and nasal fracture
lib Pyramidal and nasoorbitoethmojdal (NOE) fracture
Le Fort III Craniofacial dysjunction
Ilia Craniofacial dysjunction and nasal fracture
Illb Craniofacial dysjunction and NOE
Le Fort IV Le Fort II or III fracture and cranial base fracture
IVa Supraorbital rim fracture
IVb Anterior cranial fossa and supraorbital rim fracture
IVc Anterior cranial fossa and orbital wall fracture
95. Describe the Ellis classification of dental fractures.
Class I Enamel only ClassIII Dentin, enamel, and pulp
Class II Dentin and enamel Class IV Whole crown
96. Describe the management of each of the above fractures.
Class I Enameloplasty and/or bonding
Class II Dentin coverage with calcium hydroxide and bonded restoration
or reattachment of fractured segment
Class III Pulp therapy via pulp capping or partial pulpotomy
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Class IV If the fracture is supragingival, remove the coronal segment nd
perform appropriate pulp therapy, then restore. If the fracture
is subgingival, remove the coronal segment and perform
appropriate pulp therapy, then reposition the remaining tooth
structure coronally either orthodontically or surgically. The
surgical approach results in loss of pulpal vitality and therefore
requires a pulpectomy.
97. What are the most likely signs and symptoms of a mandibular body
or angle fracture?
Alteration in occlusion Mobility at the fracture site
A step or change in the mandibular Pain at the fracture site
occlusal plane Bleeding at the fracture site or
Lower lip numbness submucosal hemorrhage
98. How is a displaced fracture of the mandibular body or angle
treated?
A displaced mandibular fracture is treated by open reduction and internal
fixation in combination with several weeks of intermaxillary fixation. This
procedure involves exposing the mandible through an incision, reducing the
fracture, and fixing the fracture segments with interosseous wires. Arch bars are
placed on the teeth and used with either intermaxillary wires or elastics to
maintain intermaxillary fixation for several weeks. In many cases, rigid internal
fixation can be used to avoid intermaxillary fixation. These cases are treated by
exposing the fracture area and applying a compression plate that provides
absolute interosseous stability for the fracture. Interniaxillary fixation usually is not
required.
99. What are the two causes of displacement of mandibular fractures?
Mandible fractures are displaced by the force that causes the fractures and
by the muscles of mastication. Depending on the orientation of the fracture line,
the attached muscles may cause significant displacement of fractures.
100. Are most fractures of the mandibular condyle treated by closed or
open reduction?
Most fractures of the mandibular condyle are treated by closed reduction.
Treatment usually consists of 1-^ weeks of intermaxillary fixation followed by
mobilization and close follow-up.
101. What radiographs are used to diagnose mandibular fractures?
• Panoramic radiograph • Mandibular series • Plain tomography
• Occlusal radiography Lateral oblique views • CY scan
• Periapical radiography Posteroanterior view
Towne's view
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102. What are the likely signs and symptoms of a zygomatic fracture?
Pain over zygomatic region Subconjunctival hemorrhage or
Numbness in the infraorbital ecchymosis
nerve distribution Submucosal or subconjunctival air
Swelling in the zygomatic region emphysema
Depression or flatness of the Palpable step at the infraorbital rim
zygomatic prominence Exophthalmos
Nasal bleeding Diplopia
Submucosal hemorrhage or Unequal pupil level
ecchymosis
103. Which radiographs are used to evaluate and diagnose zygomatic
fractures?
1. Plain film
Waters' view (posteroanterior obliques)
Submental vertex
Tomograms
2. CY scan
104. Which bones articulate with the zygoma?
• Frontal bone • Sphenoid bone • Maxillary bone • Temporal bone
105. How may mandibular function be affected by a fracture of the
zygoma or zygomatic arch?
A depressed zygomatic or zygomatic arch fracture can impinge on the
coronoid process or temporalis muscle, causing various degrees of trismus.
LOCAL ANESTHESIA
106. What are the major classifications of local anesthetics used in
dentistry?
Classification of local anesthetics is based on the molecular linkage between
hydrophilic and lipophilic groups of the molecule. The atnides, such as xylocaine
and mepivacaine, are the most commonly used class of local anesthetics and for
the most part have replaced esters, such as procaine.
107. Do all local anesthetics used in dentistry have the same duration
of action?
No. Long-lasting local anesthetics, such as etidocaine, provide surgical
grade anesthesia about three times longer than generally used anesthetics, such
as lidocaine.
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108. What is the role of pH in determining the effectiveness of a local
anesthetic?
Anesthetic solutions are acid salts of weak bases and have a pH in the
range of 3.3—5.5. For the molecule to be active, the uncharged base must be
available. If the tissue into which the solution is placed has a pH lower than the
anesthetic solution, dissociation does not occur, and the amount of active base
available is not adequate for a substantial anesthetic effect. A clinical example of
this phenomenon is the injection of local anesthesia into an area of inflammation.
109. What are the advantages of including epinephrine in a local
anesthetic solution?
There are two major advantages of including epinephrine in local
anesthesia: (1) because epinephrine is a vasoconstrictor, it helps to maintain an
optimal level of local anesthesia at the site of injection and thus reduces
permeation of the drug into adjacent tissue, and (2) the vasoconstrictive
properties of epinephrine also result in reduced intraoperative bleeding.
110. How significant is the concentration of epinephrine in local
anesthetic solutions in affecting their hemostatic properties?
No difference in the degree or duration of hemostasis has been noted when
solutions containing epinephrine of 1:100,000, 1:400,000 or 1:800,000 were
compared. Five minutes should be allowed for epinephrine to achieve its maximal
effect.
111. Which nerves are anesthetized using the Gow-Gates technique?
1. Inferior alveolar nerve 4. Auriculotemporal nerve
2. Lingual nerve 5. Buccal nerve
3. Mylohyoid nerve
112. Describe the best type of injections of local anesthesia for
extractions of the following teeth:
Maxillary lateral incisor Infiltration at apex
Infiltration of buccal soft tissue
Nasopalatine block
Maxillary first molar Infiltration at apex
Infiltration over mesial root and over
apex of maxillary second molar
Anterior palatine block
Mandibular canine Inferior alveolar block
Lingual nerve block
Mandibular second molar Inferior alveolar block
Lingual nerve block
Peterson U, Ellis E, Hupp JR, Tucker MR: Contemporary Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery. St.
Louis, Mosby, 1988.
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113. What are the symptoms and treatment for inadvertent injection of
the facial nerve during the administration of local anesthesia?
The patient develops symptoms of Bell's palsy. The muscles of facial
expression are paralyzed. The condition is temporary and self-limiting. However,
the patient's eye should be protected, because closure of the eye on blinking may
be limited.
114. How does a hematoma form after the administration of a local
anesthetic? How is it treated?
Hematoma may occur when the needle passes through a blood vessel and
results in bleeding into the surrounding tissue. Posterosuperior alveolar nerve
blocks are most often associated with hematoma formation, although injection
into any area, particularly a foramen, may have a similar result. Treatment of
hematoma includes direct pressure and immediate application of cold. The patient
should be informed of the hematoma and reassured. In healthy patients, the area
should resolve in about 2 weeks. In patients at risk for infection, hematomas may
act as a focus of bacterial growth. Consequently, such patients should be placed
on an appropriate antibiotic. Penicillin, 500 mg orally very 6 hours for 1 week, is a
reasonable choice.
115. What are the reasons for postinjection pain after the
administration of a local anesthetic?
The most common causes of postinjection pain are related to injury of the
periosteum, which results either from tearing of the tissue or from deposition of
solution beneath the tissue.
116. What causes blanching of the skin after the injection of local
anesthesia?
Arterial spasms caused by needle trauma to the vessel may result in sudden
blanching of the overlying skin. No treatment is required.
117. What is the toxic dose of most local anesthetics used in dentistry?
What is the maximal volume of a 2% solution of local anesthetic that
can be administered?
The toxic dose for most local anesthetics used in dentistry is 300—500 mg.
The standard carpule of local anesthetic contains 1.8 cc of solution. Thus, a 2%
solution of lidocaine contains 36mg of drug (2% solution=20mg/mlxl.8ml=36mg).
Ten carpules or more are in the toxic range.
118. What is the most common adverse reaction to local anesthesia?
How is it treated?
Syncope is the most common adverse reaction associated with
administration of local anesthesia. Almost half of the medical emergencies that
occur in dental practice fall into this category. Syncope typically is the
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consequence of a vasovagal reaction. Treatment is based on early recognition of a
problem; the patient often feels uneasy, queasy, sweaty, or lightheaded. The
patient should be reassured and positioned so that the feet are higher than the
head (Trendelenburg position); oxygen is administered. Tight clothing should be
loosened and a cold compress placed on the forehead. Vital signs should be
monitored and recorded. Ammonia inhalants are helpful in stimulating the patient.
POSTOPERATIVE MANAGEMENT AND WOUND HEALING
119. What are the principal components of postoperative orders?
• Diagnosis and surgical procedure • Diet
• Patient's condition • Medications
• Allergies • Intravenous fluids
• Instructions for monitoring of • Wound care
vital signs • Parameters for notification of
• Instructions for activity and dentist
positioning • Special instructions
Peterson U, Ellis E, Hupp JR. Tucker MR: Contemporary Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery. St
Louis, Mosby, 1988.
120. What is "dead space'7
Dead space is the area in a wound that is free of tissue after closure. An
example is a cyst cavity after enucleation of the cyst. Because dead space often
fills with blood and fibrin, it has the potential to become a site of infection.
121. What are the four ways that dead space can be eliminated?
1. Loosely suture the tissue planes together so that the formation of a
postoperative void is minimized.
2. Place pressure on the wound to obliterate the space.
3. Place packing into the void until bleeding has stopped.
4. Place a drain into the space.
122. What is postoperative ecchymosis? How does it occur? How is it
managed?
Ecchymosis is a black and blue area that develops as blood seeps
submucosally after surgical manipulation. It is a self-limiting condition that looks
more dramatic than it actually is. Patients should be warned that it may occur.
Although no specific treatment is indicated, moist heat often speeds resolution.
123. What are the causes of postoperative swelling after an oral
surgical procedure?
The most common cause of swelling is edema. Swelling due to edema
usually reaches its maximum 48—72 hours after the procedure and then resolves
spontaneously. It can be minimized by application of cold to the surgical site for
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20-minute intervals on the day of surgery. Beginning on the third postoperative
day, moist heat may be applied to swollen areas. Patients should be informed of
the possibility of swelling. Swelling after the third postoperative day, especially if it
is new, may be a sign of infection, for which patients need appropriate
assessment and management.
124. What is primary hemorrhage? IHow should it be treated?
Primary hemorrhage is postoperative bleeding that occurs immediately after
an extraction. In essence, the wound does not stop bleeding. To permit clear
visualization and localization of the site of bleeding, the mouth should be irrigated
thoroughly with saline. The patient's overall condition should be assessed. Once
the general site of bleeding is identified, pressure should be applied for 20—30
minutes. Extraneous granulation tissue or tissue fragments should be carefully
debrided. If the source of the bleeding is soft tissue (e.g., gingiva), sutures should
be applied. If the source is bone, the bone may be burnished. Bee's wax can be
applied. Placement of a hemostatic agent, such as a surgical gel, in the socket
may be followed by the placement of interrupted sutures. The patient then should
be instructed to bite on gauze for 30 minutes. At the end of that time, coagulation
should be confirmed before the patient is dismissed.
A clot may fail to form because of a quantitative or functional platelet
deficiency. The former is most readily assessed by obtaining a platelet count. The
normal platelet count is 200,000—500,000 cells/mm^ Prolonged bleeding may
occur if platelets fall below 100,000 cells/ mm^. Treatment of severe
thrombocytopenia may require platelet transfusion. Qualitative platelet dysfunction
most often results from aspirin ingestion and is most commonly measured by
determining the bleeding time. Prolonged bleeding time requires consultation with
a hematologist.
125. What is secondary hemorrhage? IHow is it treated?
Secondary hemorrhage occurs several days after extraction and may be due
to clot breakdown, infection, or irritation to the wound. The mouth first should be
thoroughly irrigated and the source of the bleeding identified. The wound should
be debrided. Sources of ogal irritation should be eliminated. The placement of
sutures or a hemostatic agent may be necessary Patients with infection should be
placed on an antibiotic. If local measures fail to stem the bleeding, additional
studies, especially relative to fibrin formation, are indicated.
126. Describe the stages of wound healing.
The inflammatory stage begins immediately after tissue injury and
consists of a vascular phase and a cellular phase. In the vascular phase initial
vasoconstriction is followed by vasodilatation, which is mediated by histamine and
prostaglandins. The cellular phase is initiated by the complement system, which
acts to attract neutrophils to the wound site. Lymphocytic infiltration follows.
Epithelial migration begins at the wound margins.
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During the fibroplastic stage, wound repair is mediated by fibroblasts.
New blood vessels form, and collagen is produced in excessive amounts. Foreign
and necrotic material is removed. Epithelial migration continues.
In the remodeling stage, the final stage of wound healing, collagen fibers
are arranged in an orderly fashion to increase tissue strength. Epithelial healing is
completed.
127. What is the difference between healing by primary and secondary
intention?
In healing by primary intention, the edges of the wound are approximated
as they were before injury, with no tissue loss. An example is the healing of a
surgical incision. In contrast, wounds that heal by secondary intention involve
tissue loss, such as an extraction site.
128. What are the five phases of healing of extraction wounds?
1. Hemorrhage and clot formation
2. Organization of the clot by granulation tissue
3. Replacement of granulation tissue by connective tissue and
epithelialization of the wound
4. Replacement of the connective tissue by fibrillar bone
5. Recontouring of the alveolar bone and bone maturation
IMPLANTOLOGY
129. What are dental implants?
Dental implants are devices that are placed into bone to act as abutments
or supports for prostheses.
130. Describe the differences in the bone-implant interface between
osseointegrated implants and blade implants.
Osseointeg rated (osteointegrated) implants interface directly with the bone,
resulting in a relationship that mimics ankylosis of a tooth to bone.
Osseointegrated implants are typically cylinders made of titanium. In contrast,
blade implants are usually fabricated of surgical stainless steel. The interface
between the implant and bone is filled with connective tissue fibers similar to the
periodontal ligament.
131. What type of implants are currently favored?
Osseointegrated implants.
132. What are the requirements for successful implant placement?
• Biocompatibility
• Mucosal seal
• Adequate transfer of force
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133. The surgical placement of most osseointegrated implants usually
requires two steps. What are they? How long between them?
The first step is the actual placement of the implant. Most implants are
covered with soft tissue during the time that they integrate with bone. This
process takes between 3—6 months. After this period, a second surgical
procedure is performed, during which the implant is exposed. Some brands of
implants are not "buried" during the period of osseointegratiOfI, and therefore do
not require a second surgical procedure.
134. Describe the major indications for the consideration of implants as
a treatment alternative.
• Resorption of alveolar ridge or other anatomic consideration does not
allow for adequate retention of conventional removable prostheses
• Patient is psychologically unable to deal with removable prostheses
• Medical condition for which removable prostheses may create a risk, i.e.,
seizure disorder
• Patient has a pronounced gag reflex that does not permit the placement of
a removable prosthesis
• Loss of posterior teeth, particularly unilaterally
135. What are the major contraindications for the placement of
implants?
• Pathology within the bone
• Limiting anatomic structures such as the inferior alveolar nerve or
maxillary sinus
• Unrealistic outcome expectations from patient
• Poor oral health and hygiene
• Patient inability to tolerate implant procedures because of a medical or
psychological condition
136. What is the prognosis of osseointegrated implants placed in an
edentulous mandible? Maxilla?
According to studies with implants developed by Branemark, the stability of
implant-supported continuous bridges for a 5- to 12-year period was 100% in the
mandible and 90% in the maxilla.
137. What are the steps in the assessment of patients prior to implant
placement?
• Medical and dental history
• Clinical examination
• Radiographic examination
138. Which radiographic studies are used for patient assessment
before implant placement?
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For many implant cases, panoramic and periapical radiographs provide
adequate information relative to bone volume and the location of limiting anatomic
structures. In some instances, CY may be especially useful in providing
information relative to multiplanar jaw configuration.
139. During preparation of the implant recipient site, what is the
maximal temperature that should develop at the drill-bone interface?
To prevent necrosis of bone, a maximal temperature of 40° C has been
recommended. This goal is achieved through the use of copious external or
internal saline irrigation and low-speed, high-torque drills. In the final step of
implant site preparation, the drill rotates at a speed of only 10—15 rpm.
140. What is the best way to ensure proper implant placement and
orientation?
Careful pretreatment evaluation and preparation by doth surgeon and
restoring dentist are critical. A surgical stent fabricated to the specifications of the
restoring dentist is an extremely helpful technique. Lack of pretreatment
communication and planning may result in implants that are successfully
integrated but impossible to restore.
141. Do any data suggest that osseointegration of implants may occur
When implants are placed into an extraction site?
Some data suggest that placement of an implant into an extraction site may
be successful, especially if the implant extends apicallv beyond the depth of the
extraction site. Conventional treatment, however, consists of a period of 3 months
from extraction to implant placement.
142. What anatomic feature of the anterior maxilla must be evaluated
before placement of an implant in the central incisor region?
The incisor foramen must be carefully evaluated radiographically and
clinically. Variations in size, shape, and position determine the position of maxillary
anterior implants. Fixtures should not be placed directly into the foramen.
143. Which anatomic site is the most likely to yield failed implants?
Implants placed in the maxillary anterior region are the most likely to fail.
Because short implants are more likely to fail than longer implants, the longest
implant that is compatible with the supporting bone and adjacent anatomy should
be used.
144. Do definitive data support the contention that implanted
supported teeth should not be splinted to natural teeth?
This issue is controversial, but available data refute the claim that bridges
with both implant and natural tooth abutments do more poorly than bridges
supported only by implants.
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Gunne J, Astrand P, Ahlen K, et al: Implants in partially edentulous patients: A
longitudinal study of bridges supported by both implants and natural teeth. Clin Oral Implant Res
3:49—56, 1992.
145. Is there any reason to avoid the use of fluorides in implant
recipients?
Yes. Acidulated fluoride preparations may corrode the surface of titanium
implants.
146. Do implants need periodic maintenance once they are placed?
Like natural teeth, poorly maintained implants may demonstrate progressive
loss of supporting bone, which may result in implant failure. Aggressive home care
is necessary to ensure implant success. Plastic-tipped instruments are available for
professional cleaning.
147. What is the most common sign that an implant is failing?
Mobility of the implant is regarded as an unequivocal sign of implant failure.
PAIN SYNDROMES AND TEMPOROMANDIBULAR JOINT DISORDERS
148. What is trigeminal neuralgia?
Trigeminal neuralgia, or tic douloureux, results in severe, lancinating pain in
a predictable anatomic location innervated by the fifth cranial nerve. The pain
typically is of short duration but extremely intense. Stimulation of a trigger point
initiates the onset of pain. Possible etiologies include multiple sclerosis, vascular
compression of the trigeminal nerve roots as they emerge from the brain,
demyelination of the gasserian ganglia, trauma, and infection.
149. Discuss the treatment of trigeminal neuralgia.
Drug therapy is the primary treatment for most forms of trigeminal
neuralgia. Carbamazepine and antiepileptic drugs are used most often. If drug
therapy fails, surgical intervention may be necessary. Surgical options include
rhizotomy and nerve compression.
150. What symptoms are associated with temporomandibular (TMJ)
disorders?
TMJ disorders are characterized by the presence of one or more of the
following:
• Preauricular pain and tenderness
• Limitation of mandibular motion
• Noise in the joint during condylar movement
• Pain and spasm of the muscles of mastication
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151. What are the two most common joint sounds associated with TtA}
disorders? How do they differ?
Clicking and crepitus are the two most common joint sounds associated with
TMJ disorders. Whereas clicl<ing is a distinct popping or snapping sound, crepitus
is a scraping, continuous sound. Sounds are best distinguished by use of a
stethoscope.
152. What are the components of evaluation of the patient with TtAj
symptoms?
Evaluation of the patient with TMJ symptoms should include a detailed
history of the problem, a thorough physical examination, and appropriate
radiographic and imaging studies.
153. What should be induded in the physical examination of the patient
with TMJ symptoms?
• Gross observation of the face to determine asymmetry
• Palpation of the muscles of mastication
• Observation of mandibular motion
• Palpation of the joint
• Auscultation of the joint
• Intraoral examination of the dentition and occlusion
154. What are parameters for normal mandibular motion?
The normal vertical motion of the mandible results in 50 mm of intraincisor
distance Lateral and protrusive movement should range to approximately 10 mm.
155. What radiographic and imaging studies are of value in evaluating
the TMJ ?
No single radiographic study can be applied universally for definitive
evaluation of the TMJ. Instead, a combination of lateral and anteroposterior views
may be appropriate to diagnose intraarticular bony pathology. Lateral techniques
include transcranial, panoramic, and tomographic studies. Anteroposterior views
include transorbital, modified Towne, and tomographic examinations. Computed
tomographic studies may provide the most definitive information for the
assessment of bony disease of the joint and surrounding structures. Magnetic
resonance imaging (MRI) is the technique of choice to evaluate soft-tissue
changes within the joint.
156. What is the likelihood that a patient with TMJ symptoms will
demonstrate identifi able pathology of the Joint?
Only 5—7% of patients presenting with TMJ symptoms have identifiable
pathology of the joint. Based on this frequency, it clearly makes sense to proceed
initially with conservative, reversible treatment.
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157. What is the most common disorder associated with the TI^IJ ?
Myofascial pain dysfunction (I^PD) is the most connmon clinical problem
associated with the TMJ.
158. What is the cause of INIPD?
The cause of MPD is multifactorial. Functional, occlusal, and psychological
factors have been associated with its onset. Fortunately, most cases are self-
limiting.
159. What occiusal factors may contribute to |V|PD?
Clenching and bruxing may be associated with MPD, because each may
result in muscle spasm or soreness. Lack of posterior occlusion, which results in
changes in the relationship of the jaws, also is a potential cause. The placement of
restorations or prostheses that alter the occlusion may cause MPD directly or
indirectly through the patient's attempt to accommodate changes in vertical
dimension.
160. What patient group is at highest risic for lAPD?
Of patients with MPD, 70—90% are women between the ages of 20 and 40
years.
161. What are the diagnostic criteria for myofascial pain syndrome?
1. Tender areas in the firm bands of the muscles, tendons, or ligaments that
elicit pain on palpation
2. Regional pain referred from the point of pain initiation
3. Slightly diminished range of motion
Sturdivant J, Fricton JR: Physical therapy for temporomandibular disorders and orofacial
pain. CurrOpin Dent 1:485—496, 1991.
162. What signs and symptoms are associated with |V|PD?
Patients with MPD may have some or all of the following:
• Pain on palpation of the muscles of mastication
• Pain of the joint on palpation
• Pain on movement of the joint
• Altered TMJ function, including trismus, reduced opening, and mandibular
deviation on opening
• Joint popping, clicking or crepitus
• Stiffness of the jaws
• Facial pain
• Pain on opening
163. What radiographic findings are associated with tAPD?
None. Radiographic studies of the joint of patients with MPD fail to
demonstrate the presence of pathology.
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164. Describe the treatment approach to MFD.
Because most cases of MPD are self-limiting, a conservative, reversible
approach to intervention is recommended. Patients should be informed of the
condition and its frequency in the overall population (patients always feel better
knowing that they have something that is "going around" rather than some rare,
exotic disease), then reassured. Mobility of the joint should be minimized. A soft
diet, limited talking, and elimination of gum chewing should be recommended.
Moist heat, applied to the face, is often helpful in relieving muscle spasms.
Diazepam has two pharmacologic actions that make it an especially good
medication in the treatment of MPD: it is a major muscle relaxant, and it is
anxiolytic. A typical dose may be 5 mg 1 hour before sleep and then 2 mg 2—3
times during the day. Patients should be cautioned that the drug may cause
drowsiness. In general, diazepam rarely needs to be continued for more than 1
week to 10 days. Pain symptoms generally respond to nonsteroidal
antiinflammatory agents. For patients with evidence of occlusal trauma or
abnormal function, fabrication of an occlusal appliance may be helpful.
165. What are the indications for superficial heat in the treatment of
facial muscle and TMJ pain?
1. To reduce muscle spasm and myofascial pain
2. To stimulate removal of inflammatory byproducts
3. To induce relaxation and sedation
4. To increase cutaneous blood flow
Sturdivant J, Fricton JR: Physical therapy for temporomandibular disorders and orofacial
pain. Cun Opin Dent 1:485—496, 1991.
166. What are the contraindications for using superficial heat to treat
facial pain?
1. Acute infection
2. Impaired sensation or circulation
3. Noninflammatory edema
4. Multiple sclerosis
sturdivant J, Fricton JR: Physical therapy for temporomandibular disorders and orofacial
pain. Cuff Opin Dent 1:485—496, 1991.
167. What is the function of ultrasound in the therapy of myofascial
pain?
Ultrasound provides deep heat to musculoskeletal tissues through the use of
sound waves. It is indicated for treatment of muscle spasm or contracture,
inflammation of the TMJ, and increased sensitivity of the joint ligament or capsule,
and as a technique to push antiinflammatory drugs, such as steroid ointments,
into the tissue. It is contraindicated in areas of acute inflammation, infection,
cancer, impaired sensation, or noninflammatory edema. Ultrasound is typically
administered by a physical therapist.
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168. What is internal derangement of tlie TI^IJ ?
Although internal derangement refers to disturbances among the
articulating components within the TMJ, it is generally applied to denote changes
in the relationship of the disc and the condyle.
169. What are the main categories of internal derangement?
• Anterior displacement of the disc with reduction, in which the meniscus is
displaced anteriorly when the patient is in a closed-mouth position but reduces to
its normal position on opening. Patients experience a click on both opening and
closing.
• Anterior displacement of the disc without reduction (also called a closed
lock)
• Disc displacement with perforation
170. What are the common symptoms of internal derangement?
• Pain, usually in the preauricular area and usually constant, increasing with
function
• Earache
• Tinnitus
• Headache
• Joint noise
• Deviation of the mandible on opening
171. What imaging techniques are useful in the diagnosis of internal
derangement?
MRI and arthrography are the imaging techniques of choice for evaluating
soft-tissue changes of the joint. Because of its lack of invasiveness, MRI is
preferred.
172. What is the treatment of internal derangement?
Initial treatment should be similar to MPD and is successful in a reasonable
number of cases, particularly in patients with anterior disc displacement with
reduction. Surgical intervention may be required in patients who do not respond to
conservative therapy.
173. What are the most common causes of ankylosis of the TMJ ?
Infection and trauma are the most common causes of ankylosis caused by
pathologic changes of joint structures. Severe limitation of TMJ function also may
be caused by non-TMJ factors, such as contracture of the masticatory muscles,
tetanus, psychogenic factors, bone disease, tumor, or surgery.
174. Are tumors of the TMJ common?
No. Tumors of the joint itself are rare. However, benign connective tumors
are common, including osteomas, chondromas, and osteochondromas. Both
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benign and malignant tunnors also may affect structures adjacent to the joint and
thereby affect TIM J function.
175. What is the effect of radiation therapy on the TINIJ ?
Patients receiving radiation therapy for the treatment of head and neck
cancer may experience fibrotic changes of the joint. Consequently, they have
difficulty with opening. Exercise may help to minimize such functional changes.
176. What is the effect of orthodontic therapy on the development of
temporomandibular dysfunction?
The results of many well-controlled scientific studies have revealed no
causal relationship between orthodontics and temporomandibular dysfunction.
177. What about extraction therapy?
Again, the results of several well-controlled studies offer no support to the
contention that extraction therapy may precipitate TMJ disorders.
178. What degenerative diseases can affect the TMJ ?
Osteoarthritis, osteoarthrosis, and rheumatoid arthritis may affect the TMJ.
Over time, radiographs may demonstrate degenerative changes of joint structures.
Often patients have a history of one of these conditions elsewhere in the body.
BIBLIOGRAPHY
1. Andreasen JO, Andreasen FM: Essentials of Traumatic Injuries to the Teeth.
Copenhagen, Munksgaard, 1990.
2. Branemark P, Zarb G, Alberktsson T (eds): Tissue-integrated Prostheses.
Chicago, Quintessence Books, 1985.
3. Donoff RB (ed): Manual of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery. St. Louis, Mosby,
1987.
4. Kwon PH, Kaskin DM (eds): Clinician's Manual of Oral and Maxillofacial
Surgery. Chicago, Quintessence Publishing, 1991.
5. Laskin DM (ed): Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery. St. Louis, Mosby, 1980.
6. Peterson U, Ellis E, Hupp JR, Tucker MR: Contemporary Oral and
Maxillofacial Surgery. St. Louis, Mosby. 1988.
7. Smith RA: New developments and advances in dental implantology. Cun
Opin Dent 2:42, 1992.
8. Tarnow DP: Dental implants in periodontal care. Curr Opin Periodontol 157,
1993.
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11. PEDI ATRI C DENTI STRY AND
ORTHODONTI CS
Andrew L. Sonis, D.M.D.
1. What is the current schedule of systemic fluoride supplementation?
Fluoride Supplementation
FLUORIDE CONCENTRATION IN LOCAL WATER SUPPLY (ppm)
AGE
<0.3 0.3-0.6 >0.6
6 months to 3 yr
3-6yr
6 - 16 yr
0.25 mg/day
0.50 mg/day 0.25 mg/day
1.00 mg/day 0.50 mg/day
2. Are children born with Streptococcus mutans?
Children are not born with S. mutans but rather acquire this caries-causing
organism between the ages of about 1 and 3 years, {^others tend to be the major
source of infection. The well-delineated age range of acquisition is referred to as
the "window of infectivity."
Caufield PW, Cutter GR, et a!: Initial acquisition of mutans streptococci by infants:
Evidence for a discrete window of infectivity. J Dent Res 72:37—45, 1993.
3. What variable is the best predictor of caries risk in children?
Past caries rates are the single best predictor in assessing a child's future
risk.
Disney JA, Graves RC, et a!: The University of North Carolina Caries Risic Assessment
Study: Further developments in caries risk prediction. Community Dent Oral Epidemiol 20:64—75,
1992.
4. What is the earliest macroscopic evidence of dental caries on a
smooth enamel surface?
A white-spot lesion results from acid dissolution of the enamel surface,
giving it a chalky white appearance. Optimal exposure to topical fluorides may
result in remineralization of such lesions.
5. Which teeth are often spared in nursing caries?
The mandibular incisors often remain caries-free as a result of protection by
the tongue.
6. Does an explorer stick necessarily indicate the presence of caries?
Several studies have demonstrated that an explorer stick more often than
not is due to to the anatomy of the pit and fissure and not the presence of caries.
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It has been suggested that "sharp eyes" are more important than "sharp
explorers" in detecting pit and fissure caries.
7. Is prenatal fluoride supplementation effective in decreasing caries
rate in the primary dentition?
No. No studies to date support the administration of prenatal fluorides to
protect the primary dentition against caries.
8. Do home water filtration units have any effect on fluoride content?
Absolutely. For example, reverse-osmosis home filtration systems remove
84%, distillation units remove 99%, and carbon filtration systems remove 81% of
the fluoride from water.
Brown MD, Aaron G: The effect of point-of-use water conditioning systems on community
fluoridated water. Pediatr Dent 13:35—38, 1991.
9. Why has the prevalence of fluorosis increased in the United States?
The increased prevalence is likely due to three factors: (1) inappropriate
fluoride supplementation; (2) ingestion of fluoridated toothpaste (most children
under age of 5 years ingest all of the toothpaste placed on the toothbrush); and
(3) high fluoride content of bottled juices. For example, white grape juice may
have fluoride concentrations greater than 2 ppm.
10. What are the common signs of acute fluoride toxicity?
Acute fluoride toxicity may result in nausea, vomiting, hypersalivation,
abdominal pain, and diarrhea.
11. What is the first step in treating a child who has ingested an
amount of fluoride greater than the safely tolerated dose?
In acute toxicity, the goal is to minimize the amount of fluoride absorbed.
Therefore, syrup of ipecac is administered to induce vomiting. Calcium-binding
products, such as milk or milk of magnesia, decrease the acidity of the stomach,
forming insoluble complexes with the fluoride and thereby decrease its absorption.
12. What is the appropriate amount of toothpaste to apply to the
toothbrush of a preschool child?
Because preschool children tend to ingest all of the toothpaste on the
toothbrush, no more than a pea-sized drop should be applied. Although the
ingestion of even greater amounts of toothpaste does not represent a health risk,
it may result in clinically evident fluorosis of the permanent dentition.
13. What are the indications for an indirect pulp cap in the primary
dentition?
Because of the low success rate, most pediatric dentists believe that indirect
pulp caps are contraindicated in the primary dentition.
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14. Which branchial arch gives rise to the maxilla and mandible?
The first branchial or mandibular arch gives rise to the maxilla, mandible,
Meckel's cartilage, incus, malleus, muscles of mastication, and the anterior belly of
the digastric muscle.
15. How does the palate form?
The paired palatal shelves arise from the intraoral maxillary processes.
These shelves, originally in a vertical position, reorient to a horizontal position as
the tongue assumes a more inferior position. The shelves then fuse anteriorly with
the primary palate, which arises from the median nasal process posteriorly and
with one another. Failure of fusion results in a cleft palate.
16. When do the primary teeth develop?
At approximately 28 days in utero, a continuous plate of epithelium arises in
the maxilla and mandible. By 37 days in utero, a well-defined, thickened layer of
epithelium overlying the cellderived mesenchyme of the neural crest delineates the
dental lamina. Ten areas in each jaw become identifiable at the location of each of
the primary teeth.
17. After the eruption of a tooth, when is root development completed?
In the primary dentition, root development is complete approximately 18
months after eruption; in the permanent dentition, the period of development is
approximately 3 years.
18. How should dosages of local anesthetic be calculated for a pediatric
patient?
Because children's weights vary dramatically for their chronologic age,
dosages of local anesthetic should be calculated according to a child's weight. A
dosage of 4 mg/kg of lidocaine should not be exceeded in pediatric patients.
19. Should the parent be allowed in the operatory with the pediatric
patient?
The debate continues. However, recent studies indicate that many pediatric
dentists allow the parent to be present in the operatory.
Mascum BK, Turner C. et a!: Pediatric dentists' attitudes regarding parental presence
during dental procedures. Pediatr Dent 17:432—436, 1995.
20. What is the treatment for a traumatically intruded primary incisor?
In general, the treatment of choice is to allow the primary tooth to reerupt.
Reeruption usually occurs in 2—4 months. If the primary tooth is displaced into
the follicle of the developing permanent incisor, the primary tooth should be
extracted.
21. What are the potential sequelae of trauma to a primary tooth?
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1. Pulpal necrosis usually manifests as a gray or gray-black color change in
the crown of the involved primaiy tooth at any tinne after the injury (weeks,
months, years). No treatment is indicated unless other pathologic changes occur
(e.g., periapical radiolucency, fistulation, swelling, or pain).
2. Damage to the succedaneous permanent tooth, including hypoplastic
defects, di laceration of the root, or arrest of tooth development, also has been
reported.
22. What are the advantages of fixed vs. removable orthodontic
appliances?
Fixed orthodontic appliances offer controlled tooth movement in all planes
of space. Removable appliances are generally restricted to tipping teeth.
23. What is the straightwire appliance?
The straightwire appliance is a version of the edgewise appliance with
several features that allow placement of an ideal rectangular archwire without
bends (a so-called straightwire). These features include (1) variations in bracket
thickness to compensate for differences in the labiolingual position and thickness
of individual teeth; (2) variations in angulation of the bracket slot relative to the
long axis of the tooth to allow mesiodistal differences in root angulation of
individual teeth; and (3) variations in torque of the bracket slot to compensate for
buccal-lingual differences in root angulation of individual teeth.
24. What are so-called functional appliances? Do they work?
Functional appliances are a group of both fixed and removable appliances
generally used to promote mandibular growth in patients with class II
malocclusions. Although these appliances have been shown to be effective in
correcting class II malocclusions, most studies indicate that their effects are
mainly dental, with little if any effect on the growth of the mandible.
25. 1 s thumbsucking abnormal? Does it adversely affect the permanent
dentition?
Almost all children engage in some form of nonnutritive sucking, whether it
is a thumb, other digit, or pacifier. If such habits stop before the eruption of the
permanent teeth, they have no lasting effects. If the habits persist, openbites,
posterior crossbites, flared maxillary incisors, and class II malocclusions may
result.
26. What are the indications for a lingual frenectomy?
Tongue-tie, or ankyloglossia, is relatively rare and usually requil treatment.
Occasionally, however, a short lingual frenum may result in lingual stripping of the
periodontium from the lower incisors, which is an indication for frenectomy. A
second indication is speech problems secondary to tongue position as diagnosed
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by a speech pathologist. Nursing problems have been reported in infants who
were "cured" after frenectomy.
27. When should orthodontic therapy be initiated?
There is no one optimal time to initiate treatment for every orthodontic
problem. For example, a patient in primary dentition with a bilateral posterior
crossbite may benefit from palatal expansion at age 4 years. Conversely, the
same-aged patient with a severe class III malocclusion due to mandibular
prognathism may best be treated by waiting until all craniofacial growth is
completed.
28. What is the difference between a siceletal and dental malocclusion?
Skeletal malocclusion refers to a disharmony between the jaws in a
transverse, sagittal, or vertical dimension or any combination thereof. Examples of
skeletal malocclusions include retrognathism, prognathism, openbites, and
bilateral posterior crossbites. Dental malocclusion refers to malpositioned teeth,
generally the result of a discrepancy between tooth size and arch length. This
discrepancy often results in crowding, rotations, or spacing of the teeth. Most
malocclusions are neither purely skeletal nor purely dental but rather a
combination of the two.
29. if a child reports a numb lip, can you be certain that the child has a
profoundly anes thetized mandibular nerve?
Children, especially young ones, often do not understand what it means to
be numb. The mandibular nerve is the only source of sensory innervation to the
labial-attached gingiva between the lateral incisor and canine. If probing of this
tissue with an explorer evokes no reaction from the patient, a profound
mandibular block is assured. No other sign can be used to diagnose profound
anesthesia of the mandibular nerve.
30. Does slight contact with a healthy approximal surface during
preparation of a class 1 1 cavity have any significant consequences?
Even slight nicking of the mesial or distal surface of a tooth greatly
increases the possibility for future caries. Placement of an interproximal wedge
before preparation significantly decreases the likelihood of tooth damage and
future pathosis.
31. Why bother with restoring posterior primary teeth?
Caries is an infectious disease. As at any location in the body, treatment
consists of controlling and eliminating the infection. With teeth, caries infection
can be eliminated by removing the caries and restoring or extracting the tooth.
However, extraction of primary molars in children may result in loss of space
needed for permanent teeth. To ensure arch integrity, decayed primary teeth
should be treated with well-placed restorations.
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32. What is the most durable restoration for a primary molar with
multisurface caries?
Stainless steel crowns have the greatest longevity and durability. Their 4.5-
year survival rate is over twice that of amalgam (90% vs. 40%).
Einwag J, Dunninger P: Stainless steel crowns versus multisurface amalgam restorations:
An 8-year longitudinal clinical study. Quintessence mt 27:321—323, 1996.
33. How should a primary tooth be extracted if it is next to a newly
placed class 11 amalgam?
Two steps can be taken to eliminate the possibility of fracturing the newly
placed amalgam:
1. The primary tooth to be extracted can be disked to remove bulk from the
proximal surface. Care still must be taken to avoid contacting the new restoration.
2. Placing a matrix band (teeband) around the newly restored tooth offers
additional protection.
34. Can composites be used to restore primary teeth?
If good technique is followed, composite material is not contraindicated.
Interproximally. however, it may be quite difficult to get the kind of isolation
required for optimal bonding. There is no scientific advantage to using composite
instead of amalgam for such restorations, and one has to evaluate whether
esthetic effects justify the additional time required for the composite technique in
primary teeth.
35. Which syndromes or conditions are associated with supernumerary
teeth?
Apert's syndrome
Cleidocranial dysplasia
Cleft lip and palate
Crouzon's syndrome
Down syndrome
Gardner's syndrome
Hallermann-Streiff syndrome
Oral-facial-digital syndrome type 1
Sturge-Weber syndrome
36. Which syndromes or conditions are associated with congenitally
missing teeth?
Achondroplasia Ectodermal dysplasia
Cleft lip and palate Hallermann-Streiff syndrome
Crouzon 's syndrome Incontinentia pigmenti
Chondroectodermal dysplasia Oral-facial-digital syndrome type 1
Down syndrome Rieger's syndrome
37. What are the differences among fusion, gemination, and
concrescence?
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289
Fusion is the union of two teeth, resulting in a double tooth, usually with
two separate pulp chambers. Fusion is observed most commonly in the primary
dentition.
Gemination is the attempt of a single tooth bud to give rise to two teeth.
The condition usually presents as a bifid crown with a single pulp chamber in the
primary dentition.
Concrescence is the cemental union of two teeth, usually the result of
trauma.
38. Wliat is the incidence of natal/ neonatal teeth?
1/2,000-3,500.
39. What is the incidence of inclusion cysts in the infant?
Approximately 75%.
40. What are the three most common types of inclusion cysts and their
etiology?
1. Epstein's pearls are due to entrapped epithelium along the palatal
rapine.
2. Bohn's nodules are ectopic mucous glands on the labial and lingual
surfaces of the alveolus.
3. Dental lamina cysts are remnants of the dental lamina along the crest
of the alveolus.
41. What are the most common systemic causes of delayed exfoliation
of the primary teeth and delayed eruption of the permanent dentition?
Cleidocranial dysplasia Gardner's syndrome Vitamin D-resistant rickets
Chondroectodermal dysplasia Down syndrome Hypothyroidism
Achondroplasia Dc Lange syndrome Hypopituitarism
Osteogenesis imperfecta Apert's syndrome Ichthyosis
42. What are the most common systemic causes of premature
exfoliation of the primary dentition?
Fibrous dysplasia Cyclic neutropenia Acatalasia
Vitamin D-resistant rickets Histiocytosis Gaucher's disease
Prepubertal periodontitis Juvenile diabetes Dentin dysplasia
Papillon-Lefevre syndrome Scurvy Odontodysplasia
Hypophosphatasia Chediak-Higashi disease
43. What are Murphy's laws of dentistry?
1. The easier a tooth looks on radiograph for extraction, the more likely yo
to fracture a root tip.
2. The shorter a denture patient, the more adjustments he or she will
require.
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3. The closer it is to 5:00 PM on Friday, the more likely someone will call
with a dental emergency.
4. The cuter the child, the more difficult the dental patient.
5. Parents who type their child's medical histories are trouble.
6. The more you need specialists, the less likely they are to be in their
office.
7. When a patient localizes pain to one of two teeth, you will open the
wrong one.
8. The less a patient needs a procedure for dental health, the more the
patient will want it (e.g., anterior veneer vs. posterior crown).
44. What are the appropriate splinting times for an avulsed tooth, a
root fracture, and an alveolar fracture?
Avulsed tooth 7 days
Root fracture 3 months
Alveolar fracture 3—4 weeks
45. What can be done to prevent impaction of permanent maxillary
canines?
Within 1 year after the total eruption of the maxillary lateral incisors, either
a panoramic radiograph or intraoral radiographs should be taken to determine the
axial inclination of the developing permanent canine. If mesjal angulation is noted,
extraction of the maxillary primary canine and maxillary first primary mol'ars may
often eliminate the impaction of the maxillary canine.
46. What is the most important technique of behavioral management in
pediatric dentistry?
Tell the child what is going to happen, show the child what is going to
happen, and then perform the actual procedure intraorally. The major fear in
pediatric dental patients is the unknown. The tell, show, and do technique
eliminates fear and enhances the patient's behavioral capabilities.
47. What pharmacologic agents are indicated for behavioral control of
the pediatric dental patient in an office setting?
There are no absolutely predictable pharmacologic agents for controlling the
behavior of pediatric dental patients. Unless the operator has received specific
training in sedation techniques for children, patients with behavioral problems are
best referred to a specialist in pediatric dentistry.
48. If a primary first molar is lost, is a space maintainer necessary?
Before eruption of the six-year molar and its establishment of
intercuspation, mesial migration of the second primaiy molar will occur, and a
space maintainer is indicated to prevent space loss.
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49. Do hypertrophic adenoids and tonsils affect dental occlusion?
The incidence of posterior crossbites is increased in children with significant
tonsillar and adenoid obstruction. Eighty percent of children with a grade 3
obstruction have posterior crossbites.
Oulis Ci, Vadiakas GP, et al: The effect of hypertrophic adenoids and tonsils on the
development of poste rior crossbites and oral habits. J Clin Pediatr Dent 18:197—201, 1994.
50. When should crossbites be corrected?
Whenever a crossbite is noted and the patient is amenable to intraoral
therapy, correction is indicated. Although a crossbite can be corrected at a later
date, optimal time for correction is as soon as possible after diagnosis.
51. What technique may be used if a pediatric patient refuses to
cooperate for conventional bitewing radiographs?
A buccal bitewing is taken. The tab of the film is placed on the occlusal
surfaces of the molar teeth, and the film itself is positioned between the buccal
surfaces of the teeth and cheek. The cone is directed from 1 inch behind and
below the mandible upward to the area of the second primary molar on the
contralateral side. The setting is three times that which is normally used for a
conventional bitewing exposure.
52. What are the morphologic differences between primary and
secondary teeth? How does each difference affect amalgam
preparation?
1. Occlusal anatomy of primary teeth is generally not as defined as that of
secondary teeth, and supplemental grooves are less common. The amalgam
preparation therefore can be more conservative.
2. Enamel in primary teeth is thinner than in secondary teeth (usually 1 mm
thick); therefore, the amalgam preparation is more shallow in primary teeth.
3. Pulp horns in primary teeth extend higher into the crown of the tooth
than pulp horns in secondary teeth; therefore, the amalgam preparation must be
conservative to avoid a pulp exposure.
4. Primary molar teeth have an exaggerated cervical bulge that makes
matrix adaptation more difficult.
5. The generally broad interproximal contacts in primary molar teeth require
wider proximal amalgam preparation than those in secondary teeth.
6. Enamel rods in the gingival third of the primary teeth extend occiusally
from the dentinoenamel junction, eliminating the need in class II preparations for
the gingival bevel that is required in secondary teeth.
53. What is the purpose of the pulpotomy procedure in primary teeth?
The pulpotomy procedure preserves the radicular vital pulp tissue when the
entire coronal pulp is amputated. The remaining radicular pulp tissue is treated
with a medicament such as formocresol.
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54. What is the advantage of the pulpotomy procedure on primary
teeth?
The pulpotomy procedure allows resorption and exfoliation of the primary
tooth but preserves its role as a natural space maintainer.
55. What are the indications for the pulpotomy procedure in primary
teeth?
1. Primary tooth that is restorable with carious or iatrogenic pulp exposure
2. Deep carious lesions without spontaneous pulpal pain
3. Absence of pathologic internal or external resorption but intact lamina
dura
4. No radiographic evidence of furcal or periapical pathology
5. Clinical signs of a normal pulp during treatment (e.g., controlled
hemorrhage after coronal amputation)
56. What are the contraindications for pulpotomy in primary teeth?
1. Interradicular (molar) or periapical (caries and incisor) radiolucency
2. Internal or external resorption
3. Advanced root resorption, indicating imminent exfoliation
4. Uncontrolled hemorrhage after coronal pulp extirpation
5. Necrotic dry pulp tissue or purulent exudate in pulp canals
6. Fistulous tracks or abscess formation
7. Contraindication to pulpotomy procedure
57. How does rubber-dam isolation of the tooth improve management
of pediatric patients?
1. The rubber dam seems to calm the child as it acts as both physical and
psychological barrier, separating the child from the procedure being performed.
2. Gagging from the water spray or suction is alleviated.
3. Access is improved because of tongue, lip, and cheek retraction.
4. The rubber dam reminds the child to open.
5. The rubber dam ensures a dry field that otherwise would be impossible in
many children.
58. When do the primary and permanent teeth begin to develop?
The primary dentition begins to develop during the sixth week in utero;
formation of hard tissue begins during the fourteenth week in utero. Permanent
teeth begin to develop during the twelfth week in utero. Formation of hard tissue
begins about the time of birth for the permanent first molars and during the first
year of life for the permanent incisors.
59. What is the sequence and approximate age of eruption for primary
teeth?
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The primary teeth erupt in the following order: central incisor, lateral
incisor, first molar, canine, and second molar. In the mandible, the primary central
incisor erupts at about 7—8 months of age, the lateral incisor at about 13 months,
the first molar at 16 months, the canine at 20—22 months, and the second molar
at about 27—30 months. In the maxilla, the primary central incisor erupts at about
9—10 months of age, the lateral incisor at about 11 months, the first molar at 16
months, the canine at 19—20 months, and the second molar at 29—30 months.
60. What is the sequence and approximate age of eruption for
permanent teeth?
In the mandible, the permanent teeth erupt as follows: first molar and
central incisor (age 6—7 years), lateral incisor (age 7—8 years), canine (age 9—10
years), and first premolars (age 11—13 years). In the maxilla, the sequence and
approximate ages for eruption of permanent teeth are as follows: first molar (age
6—7 years), central incisor (7—8 years), lateral incisor (8—9 years), first premolar
(10—11 years), second premolar (10—12 years), canine (11—12 years), and
second molar (12—13 years).
61. What is leeway space?
Leeway space is the difference in the total of the mesiodistal widths
between the primary canine, first molar, and second molar and the permanent
canine, first premolar, and second premolar. In the mandible, leeway space
averages 1.7 mm (unilaterally); it is usually about 0.9—1.1 mm (unilaterally) in
the maxilla.
62. What changes occur in the size of the dental arch during growth?
From birth until about 2 years of age, the incisor region widens and growth
occurs in the posterior region of both arches. During the period of the full primary
dentition, arch length and width remain constant. Arch length does not increase
once the second primary molars have erupted; any growth in length occurs distal
to the second primary molars and not in the alveolar portion of the maxilla or
mandible. There is a slight decrease in arch length with the eruption of the first
permanent molars, but a slight increase in intercanine width (and some forward
extension of the anterior segment of the maxilla) with the eruption of the incisors.
A further decrease in arch length may occur with molar adjustments and the loss
of leeway space when the second primary molar exfoliates.
63. What is ectopic eruption? How is it treated?
Ectopic eruption occurs when the erupting first permanent molar begins to
resorb the distal root of the second primary molar. Its occurrence is much more
common in the maxilla, and it is often associated with a developing skeletal class
II pattern. It is seen in about 2—6% of the population and spontaneously corrects
itself in about 60% of cases. If the path of eruption of the first permanent molar
does not self-correct, a brass wire or an orthodontic separating elastic can be
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placed between the first permanent molar and the second primary molar, if
possible. In severe cases, the second primary molar may exfoliate or require
extraction, necessitating the need for space maintenance or space regaining.
64. When is the proper time to consider diastema treatment?
A thick maxillary frenum with a high attachment (sometimes extending to
the palate) is common in the primary dentition and does not require treatment.
However, a large midline diastema in the primary dentition may indicate the
presence of an unerupted midline supernumerary tooth (mesiodens) and often
warrants an appropriate radiograph.
The permanent maxillary central incisors erupt labial to the primary incisors
and often exhibit a slight distal inclination that results in a midline diastema. This
midline space is normal and decreases with the eruption of the lateral incisors.
Complete closure of the midline diastema, however, does not occur until the
permanent canines erupt. Treatment of residual midline space is addressed
orthodontically at this time.
65. What is the effect of early extraction of a primary tooth on the
eruption of the succedaneous tooth?
If a primary tooth must be extracted prematurely and 50% of the root of
the permanent successor has developed, eruption of the permanent tooth is
usually delayed. If >50% of the root of the permanent tooth has formed at the
time of extraction of the primary tooth, eruption is accelerated.
66. Where are the primate spaces located?
In the maxilla, primate spaces are located distal to the primary lateral
incisors. In the mandible, primate spacing is found distal to the primary canines.
67. What is the normal molar relationship in the primary dentition?
Historically both the flush terminal plane and mesial step have been
considered normal. More recent studies demonstrate that this may not be the
case, because about 45% of children with a flush terminal plane go on to develop
a class II molar relationship in the permanent dentition.
68. What is meant by the term "pseudo class 11 r?
This term refers to the condition in which the maxillary incisors are in
crossbite with the mandibular incisors. Although the patient appears to have a
prognathic mandible, it is due not to a skeletal disharmony but rather to the
anterior positioning of the jaw as a result of occlusion. The ability of the patient to
retrude the mandible to the edge-to-edge incisal relationship is often considered
diagnostic.
69. What is the space maintainor of choice for a 7-year-old child who
has lost a lower primary second molar to caries?
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The lower lingual arch (LLA) is the maintainer of choice. The 6-year-old
molars are banded. The connecting wire lies lingual to the permanent lower
incisors in the gingival third and prevents mesial migration of the banded molars.
Unlike the band and loop space maintainer, the LLA is independent of eruption
sequence. (The band and loop serve no purpose after the primary first molar
exfoliates.)
70. What is the space maintainer of choice for a 5-year-old child who
has lost an upper primary second molar to caries?
The distal shoe is the appliance of choice. This appliance extends backward
from a crown on the primary first molar and subgingivally to the mesial line of the
unerupted first permanent molar, thus preventing mesial migration.
71. A 4-year-old child with generalized spacing loses three primary
upper incisors to trauma. What space maintainer is needed?
No space maintainer is necessary.
72. What is the best space maintainer for any pulpally involved primary
tooth?
Restoring the tooth with pulpal therapy is the best way to preserve arch
length and integrity.
73. If a primary tooth is lost to caries but has no successor, is it
necessary to maintain space?
Sometimes it is necessary to maintain the space, sometimes it is not. The
decision is based on the patient's skeletal and dental development. Either way
orthodontic evaluation is of utmost importance to formulate the future plan for
this space.
74. When do you remove a space maintainer once it is inserted?
The space maintainer can be removed as soon as the succedaneous tooth
begins to erupt through the gingiva. Space maintainers that are left in place too
long make it more difficult for patients to clean. Furthermore, it may be necessary
to replace a distal shoe with another form of space maintainer once the 6-year
molar has erupted to prevent rotation of the molar around the bar arm.
75. What are the various types of headgear and their indications?
There are four basic types of headgear. Each type of headgear has two
major components: intraoral and extraoral. The extraoral component is what
generally categorizes the type of headgear.
1. Cervical-pull headgear. The intraoral component of cervical-pull
headgear is composed of a heavy bow that engages the maxillary molars through
some variation on a male-female connector. The anterior part of the bow is
welded to an extraoral portion that is connected to an elasticized neck strap,
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which provides the force system for the appliance. The force application is in a
down and backward direction. This headgear is generally used in class II, division
1 malocclusions, in which distalization of the maxillary molars and/or restriction of
maxillary growth as well as anterior bite opening is desired.
2. Straight-pull headgear. The intraoral component is similar to the
cervical-pull headgear. However, the force application is in a straight backward
direction from the maxillary molar, parallel to the occlusal plane. Like cervical-pull
headgear, this appliance is also .ised for the class II, division 1 malocclusions.
Because of the direction of force application, this appliance may be chosen when
excessive bite opening is undesirable.
3. High-pull headgear. The intraoral components of high-pull headgear
are similar to those described above. However, the force application is in a back
and upward direction. Consequently, it is usually chosen for the class II, division 1
malocclusions where bite opening is contraindicated (i.e., class II malocclusion
with an open bite).
4. Reverse-pull headgear. Unlike the other headgears, the extraoral
component of reversepull headgear is supported by the chin, cheeks, forehead, or
a combination of these structures. The intraoral component usually attaches to a
fixed appliance in the maxillary appliance via elastics. Reverse-pull headgear is
most often used for class III malocclusions, in which protraction of the maxilla is
desirable.
76. What is the basic sequence of orthodontic treatment?
1. Level and align. This phase establishes preliminary bracket alignment
generally with a light round wire, braided archwire, or a nickel-titanium archwire.
2. Working archwires. This phase corrects vertical discrepancies (i.e., bite
opening) and sagittal position of the teeth. A heavy round or rectangular archwire
is usually employed.
3. Finishing archwires. This phase idealizes the position of the teeth.
Generally, light round archwires are used.
4. Retention. Retention of teeth in their final position may be accomplished
with either fixed or removable retainers.
77. What is a tooth positioner?
A tooth positioner is a removable appliance composed of rubber, silicone, or
a polyvinyl material. Its appearance is not unlike that of a heavy mouthguard,
except it engages both the maxillary and mandibular dentition. It is generally used
to idealize final tooth position at or near the completion of orthodontic therapy.
The appliance is usually custom fabricated by taking models of the teeth and then
repositioning them to their ideal position. The positioner is then fabricated to this
ideal setup. The elasticity of the appliance provides for minor positional changes of
the patient's teeth. After completion of treatment, the positioner may be used as a
retainer.
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78. What is "pink tooth of |V|ummary'7
Pink appearance of tooth due to internal resorption.
79. What intervention is indicated when permanent maxillary canines
are observed radiographically to be erupting palatally?
Extraction of the primary maxillary canine. About 75% of ectopic canines
show normalization of eruption at 12 months.
Ericson 5, Kurol J: Early treatment of palatally erupting maxillary canines by
extraction of the primary canines. EurJ Orthod 10:282—295, 1988.
80. Does teething cause systemic manifestations?
Although teething may be associated with drooling, gum rubbing, or
changes in dietary intake, no evidence indicates that it causes systemic illness
(e.g., diarrhea, fever, rashes, seizures, or bronchitis). Fever associated with
teething in fact may be a manifestation of undiagnosed primary herpes
gingivostomatitis.
King DL, Steinhauer W, Garcia-Godoy F, Elkins CJ: Herpetic gingivostomatis and teetliing
difficulty in infants. Pediatr Dent 14:82—85, 1992.
81. Should dental implants be placed in the growing child?
Generally implants should be deferred until growth is completed. In a
growing child the implant may become submerged or embedded. In addition, an
implant that crosses the midline may limit transverse growth.
82. Should an avulsed primary tooth be reimplanted?
No. The prognosis of reimplanted primary teeth is poor and may adversely
affect the developing succedaneous tooth.
83. Why must care be taken not to "nick" the adjacent interproximal
surface in preparing a class 1 1 restoration?
Damaged noncarious primary tooth surfaces are 3.5 times more likely to
develop a carious lesion and to require future restoration than undamaged
surfaces, and damaged noncarious permanent tooth surfaces are 2.5 times more
likely to develop a carious lesion and to require future restoration than
undamaged surfaces.
84. Do all discolored primary incisors require treatment?
The gray discoloration of primary teeth is usually the result of a traumatic
episode. This discoloration is due to either (1) hemorrhage into the dentinal
tubules or (2) a necrotic puip. In the case of hemorrhage into the dentinal tubules,
the discoloration usually appears within 1 month of the injury. Often the teeth
return to their original color as the blood breakdown products are removed from
the site. Discoloration due to a necrotic pulp may take days, weeks, months, or
years to develop. It does not improve with time and in fact may worsen. A tooth
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that is light gray may progress to darl< gray. A yellow opaque discoloration is
usually indicative of calcific degeneration of the pulp. Discolored teeth do not
require treatment unless there is radiographic and/or clinical evidence of
pathology of the periodontium (soft and/or hard tissues).
85. How stable is the orthodontic correction of crowding?
Approximately two-thirds of all patients treated for crowding experience
significant relapse without some form of permanent retention. This relapse rate is
about the same whether the patient is treated with a nonextraction or extraction
approach; whether third molars are present, congenitally missing, or extracted;
and whether treatment is started in mixed dentition or permanent dentition.
Unfortunately, no variables that correlate with relapse potential have been
identified. And to add further insult, relapse potential continues throughout life.
86. Does eruption of third molars cause crowding of the incisors?
No. The eruption of third molars with real or perceived increase in crowding-
the incisors is coincidental. Studies have revealed that patients who are
congenitally missing third molars experience the same crowding phenomenon.
87. What is the ideal molar relationship in the primary dentition?
Mesial step. Although many pediatric dentistry and orthodontic texts
suggest that both the mesial step relationship and the flush terminal plane are
considered normal, a longitudinal study by Bishara et al. revealed that almost 50%
of flush terminal plane relationships in the primary dentition later develop into
class II malocclusions.
Bishara SE, Hoppens BJ. Jakobsen JR, Kohout FJ: Changes in the molar relationship
between the deciduous and permanent dentitions: A longitudinal study. Am J Orthod Dentofac
Orthop 93:19—28, 1988.
88. Which two dentists have appeared on the cover of Time magazine?
Dr. Harold Kane Addelson, the originator of the tell-show-do technique, and
Dr. Barney Clark, the first human recipient of a mechanical heart.
BIBLIOGRAPHY
1. Andreasen JO. Andreasen FM: Essentials of Traumatic Injuries to the Teeth.
Copenhagen, Munksgaard, 1990.
2. Enlow DH: Facial Growth, 3rd ed. Philadelphia, W.B. Saunders, 1990.
3. Gorlin FU, Cohen MM Jr, Levin LS: Syndromes of the Head and Neck. New
York, Oxford University Press, 1990.
4. kaban LB: Pediatric Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery. Philadelphia, W.B.
Saunders, 1990.
5. McDonald RE, Avery DR: Dentistry for the Child and Adolescent. St. Louis,
Mosby, 1994.
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6. Moyers R: Handbook of Orthodontics. Chicago, Year Book, 1986
7. Pinkham JR, Casamassimo PS, Fields HW, et a!: Pediatric Dentistry: Infancy
through Adolescence, 2nd ed. Philadelphia, W.B. Saunders, 1994.
8. Proffit W, Fields HW: Contemporary Orthodontics. St. Louis, Mosby, 1993.
9. Scully C, Welbury R: Color Atlas of Oral Diseases in Children and
Adolescents. London, Mosby-Year Book Europe Limited, 1994.
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12. I NFECn ON AND HAZARD CONTROL
Helene Bednarsh, R.D.H., B.S., MPH.,
KathyJ. Ekiund, R.D.H., B.S., M.H.P.,
John A. Molinari, Ph.D., and Walters. Bond, M.S.
1. What is the difference between infection control and exposure
control?
Infection control encompasses all policies and procedures to prevent the
spread of infection and/or the potential transmission of disease. A hewer term,
exposure control, refers to procedures for preventing exposures to potentially
infective microbial agents.
2. What are the major mechanisms by which diseases are transmitted?
Disease may be transmitted by direct contact with the source of
microorganisms (e.g, percutaneous injury, contact with mucous membrane,
nonintact skin, or infective fluids, excretions, or secretions) and by indirect contact
with contaminated environmental surfaces or medical instruments and aerosols.
3. What is aerosolization?
Aerosolization is a process whereby mechanically generated particles
(droplet nuclei) remain suspended in the air for prolonged periods, and may be
capable of transmitting an airborne infection via inhalation. Aerosols are airborne
particles, generally 5—10 .tm in diameter, that may travel for long distances. They
may occur in liquid or solid form. True aerosols are different from other airborne
particles, such as splash and spatter, which are large droplets that do not remain
airborne but contribute to contamination of horizontal surfaces (indirect contact).
4. What barriers may be used to block the above routes?
A surgical mask or an appropriate face shield may provide some degree of
protection from inhalation of airborne particles, even though surgical masks are
not designed to provide respiratory protection. These and protective eyewear also
help to prevent mucous membrane exposures, direct droplet contact, or ingestion
of patient materials. Clinic attire and gloves offer skin contact protection. The
basic idea is to put a barrier between exposed areas of the body and microbially
laden materials.
5. What does the Occupational Safety and Health Administration
(OSHA) require in a written exposure control plan?
OSHA requires at least the following three elements:
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1. The employer's "exposure determination," which identifies at-risl<
employees
2. An implementation schedule and discussion of specific methods of
implementing requirements of the OSHA Bloodborne Pathogens Standard.
3. The method for evaluating and documenting exposure incidents
6. How often must a written exposure control plan be reviewed?
OSHA's Bloodborne Pathogens Standard requires an annual review of a
written exposure
control plan. The plan also must be reviewed and updated after any change
in knowledge, practice, or personnel that may affect occupational exposure.
7. What is an exposure incident?
According to OSHA, an exposure incident is any reasonably anticipated eye,
skin, mucous membrane, or parenteral contact with blood or other potentially
infectious fluids during the course of one's duties. In more general terms, an
exposure incident is an occurrence that puts one at risk of a biomedical or
chemical contact/injury on the job.
8. What should be included in the procedure for evaluating an exposure
incident?
At least the following factors should be considered in evaluating an
exposure incident:
1. Where the incident occurred in terms of physical space in the facility
2. Under what circumstances the exposure occurred
3. Engineering controls and work practices in place at the time of the
exposure
4. Policies in place at the time of the incident
5. Type of exposure and severity of the injury
6. Any information available about the source patient
9. How should an exposure incident be reported?
An exposure incident is a "recordable occupational injury" for OSHA's
record-keeping obligations. A dental employer with 11 or more employees must
record each exposure incident on OSHA Forms 101 (Supplemental Record of
Occupational Injuries and Illnesses) and 200 (Log and Summary of Occupational
Injuries and Illnesses). If there are fewer than 11 employees, the employer must
prepare a report of the exposure incident but is not required to use forms 101 and
200. However, the information necessary to report an incident accurately is clearly
defined on the forms, and it may be more prudent to use them, regardless of the
size of the facility, to ensure that all required information has been recorded.
10. How does OSHA define a "source individual" in the context of an
exposure incident?
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The standard defines "source individual" as any individual, living or dead,
whose blood or other potentially infectious materials may be a source of
occupational exposure.
11. Are students covered by OSHA standards?
In accordance with the Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970, OSHA
jurisdiction extends only to employees and does not cover students if they are not
considered to be employees of the institution. If, however, the student is paid by
the institution, he or she becomes an employee. Regardless of employee status,
most aspects of the OSHA Bloodborne Pathogens Standard are considered to be
standards of practice for all health care workers and are designed to prevent the
potential transmission of disease. Therefore, the safe practices and procedures
outlined in the standard should be followed by all health care workers.
12. How do you determine who is at risic for a bloodborne exposure?
The first step is to conduct a risk assessment, which begins by evaluating
the tasks that are always done, sometimes done, and never done by an employee.
If any one task carries with it an opportunity for contact with any potentially
infective (blood or blood-derived) fluid or if a person may, even once, be asked to
do a task that carries such an exposure risk, that employee is at risk and must be
trained to abate or eliminate risk.
13. Can tlie receptionist lielp out in the clinic?
Only if he or she has been trained to work in a manner that reduces risk of
an exposure incident, understands the risk, and has received (unless otherwise
waived) the hepatitis B vaccine or demonstrates immunity from past infection.
14. What is an engineering control?
The term refers to industrial hygiene and is used by OSHA for
technologically derived devices that isolate or remove hazards from the work
environment. The use of engineering controls may reduce the risk of an exposure
incident. Examples include ventilation systems and ergonomic design of equipment
and furnishings.
15. Give examples of engineering controls used in dentistry.
A needle-recapping device is an engineering control, as is a sharps
container. These items are designed to isolate sharps, wires, and glass. A rubber
dam, which serves as a barrier between the operator and potentially infective
patient fluids, is also an engineering control because it reduces aerosols and
splashing and spattering of large droplets during dental procedures.
16. Where is the most reasonable location for a sharps container?
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To be most effective in reducing the hazard associated with nonreusable
sharps, the container should be placed in a site near where the sharps are used
and not in a separate area that requires transport or additional handling.
17. What needle-recapping devices are acceptable?
First, any recapping must be done with a mechanical device or a technique
that uses only one hand ("scoop technique"). Such techniques ens that needles
are never pointed at or moved toward the practicing health care worker or other
workers, either on purpose or accidentally. Newer, self-sheathing anesthetic
syringes and needle devices do not require any movements associated with
recapping.
Needle - recapping device
Self-sheathing syringe,
18. What is a work practice control? How does it differ from an
engineering control?
Work practice controls are determined by behavior rather than technology.
Quite simply, a work practice control is the manner in which a task is performed.
Safe work practice controls sometimes require changing the manner in which a
task is performed to reduce the likelihood of an exposure incident. For example, in
recapping a needle, whether or how you use a device is the work practice.
Something as simple as how you wash your hands is a work practice control as
well.
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19. What is the most appropriate woric practice control in cleaning
instruments?
Probably the best technique for cleaning instruments is to use an ultrasonic
cleaner because of its potential to reduce percutaneous injuries. If an ultrasonic
cleaner is not available, the work practice is to select one or two instruments at a
time with gloved hands, hold them low in the sink under running water, and scrub
them with a long-handled brush. Essentially, the strategy is to clean reusable
instruments and items in a manner that minimizes hand contact.
20. What should a proper handwashing agent be expected to
accomplish?
At a minimum, it should (I) provide good mechanical cleansing of skin; (2)
have the capacity to kill a variety of microorganisms if it is used in a surgical
setting; (3) have some residual antimicrobial effect to prevent regrowth of
resident bacteria and fungi when used for surgical handwashing; and (4) be
dispensed without risk of cross-contamination among workers.
The major concern, exclusive of surgery, is the transient flora on workers'
hands. The primary idea is to wash off the flora, not just to kill them in situ with
an antimicrobial agent. In surgery, antimicrobial products are the standard of care
to address the health care worker's resident flora, which multiply under the glove.
Surgical handwashing is used when a direct intent of the medical procedure is to
break soft tissue.
21. Can dental charts be contaminated? How can you reduce the risk of
cross- contaminating dental charts?
A dental chart may be contaminated if it is in area where it may come in
contact with potentially infective fluids. This risk may be minimized if the charts
are not taken into a patient or dinical area. If, however, they must be accessible
during treatment, they should be appropriately handled with noncontaminated
gloves. Overgioves worn atop clinic gloves for handling records is one possibility.
Another is to protect the record with a barner.
PERSONAL PROTECTIVE EQUIPMENT
22. How do you determine what types of personal protective
equipment (PPE) you should use?
The selection of PPE should be based on the type of exposure anticipated
and the quantity of blood, blood-derived fluids, or other potentially infective
materials that reasonably may be expected in the performance of one's duties.
With normal use the material should prevent passage of fluids to skin,
undergarments, or mucous membranes of the eyes, nose, or mouth.
23. Do gloves protect me from a sharps exposure?
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To a limited degree at best. Some studies indicate that the mechanical
action of a sharp passing through the glove may reduce the microbial load.
However, even heavy-duty utility gloves do not block penetration. In addition,
blunt instruments pose injury risks for the dental health care worker and patient.
24. Does clinic attire (lab coats) protect me from potentially infective
fluid?
The intent of clinic attire is to prevent potentially infective fluids from
reaching skin, especially nonintact skin, that can serve as a portal of entry for
pathogenic organisms. Putting an effective barrier, such as a lab coat, between
your body and these fluids reduces the risk of infection. Such garments are
contaminated and should not be worn outside the clinic area.
25. Should clinic attire be long- or short-sleeved?
Because the OSHA standards are performance-based, the dental health care
worker must determine whether the procedure is likely to result in contact with
patient fluids or materials. If the answer is yes, the potential contact area should
be covered.
26. How do you determine whether eyewear is protective?
The best way is to look to the standards of the American National Standards
Institute (ANSI). These standards describe protective eyewear as impact-resistant,
with coverage from above the eyebrows down to the cheek and solid side-shields
to provide peripheral protection. The eyewear should protect not only from fluids
but also from flying debris that may be generated during a dental procedure.
27. 1 s a surgical mask needed under a face shield?
Yes, unless the face shield has full peripheral protection at the sides and
under the chin. The
mask protects the dental health care worker from splashes and spatters to
the nose and mouth.
28. What type of protection do most masks used in dental offices offer?
The masks used in dental offices do not provide definable respiratory
protection; their primary design is to protect the patient. However, the physical
barrier certainly protects covered areas from droplet scatter generated during
treatment. If respiratory protection is indicated, masks must be certified for
respiratory protection. Read the product label,
29. How long can a mask be worn?
Basically, you can wear a mask until it becomes wet or torn. You must,
however, use a new mask for each patient. Limited research indicates that the
duration for use is about 1 hour for a dry field and 20 minutes for a wet field.
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30. What is the purpose of heavy-duty utility gloves?
Heavy-duty utility gloves, such as those made of nitrile rubber, should be
worn whenever contaminated sharps are handled. They are worn for safe pick-up,
transport, cleaning, and packing of contaminated instruments. They also should be
used for housekeeping procedures such as surface cleaning and disinfection.
Routine cleaning and disinfection are necessary because the gloves also become
contaminated. They should not be worn when handing or contacting clean
surfaces or items. Note: Exam gloves are not appropriate for instrument cleaning
or reprocessing or any housekeeping procedure.
How to Select Task-appropriate Gloves
FOR THIS TASK
USE THIS GLOVE
Contact with sterile body cavities
Sterile Latex gloves
Routine intraoral procedures, routine contact with mucous
membranes
Latex exam gloves
Routine Contact with mucous membranes, cases of Latex allergy
Vinyl exam or other non-
Latex glove
Nonclinical care or treatment procedures, such as processing
radiographs and writing in a patient record
Copolymer gloves or over
gloves
Contact with chemical agents, contaminated sharps, and other
potential exposure incidents not related to patient treatment
Nitrile rubber gloves
31. What is irritant dermatitis?
It is a nonallergic process that damages superficial layers of skin. It is
caused mostly by contact that physically or chemically challenges the skin tissue.
32. What are its symptoms?
In general, the top layer of the skin becomes reddened, dry, irritated, or
cracked.
33. What causes of dermatitis are associated with health care workers'
hands?
Nonallergic irritant dermatitis is the most common form of adverse
reactions. It is often caused by (1) contact with a substance that physically or
chemically damages the skin, such as frequent antimicrobial handwash agents on
sensitive skin; (2) failure to rinse off chemical antiseptic completely; (3) irritation
from corn starch powder in gloves; and (4) failure to dry hands properly and
thoroughly.
34. What common types of hypersensitivity symptoms are caused by
Latex gloves and other Latex items?
1. Cutaneous anaphylactic reaction (type I hypersensitivity) typically
develops within minutes after an allergic person either comes into direct contact
with allergens via tissues or mucous membranes (donning Latex examination or
surgical gloves) or is exposed via aerosolization of allergens. Natural rubber Latex
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proteins adhering to glove powder particles can remain suspended in the air for
prolonged periods after gloves are placed on hands and when new boxes of gloves
are opened. Wheal and flare reaction (i.e., urticaria, hives) may develop along
with itching and localized edema. Coughing, wheezing, shortness of breath, and/or
respiratory distress may occur, depending on the person's degree of sensitization.
Type I hypersensitivity can be a life-threatening reaction; appropriate medical
supplies (e.g., epinephrine) should always be immediately available.
2. Contact dermatitis (delayed type IV hypersensitivity) is characterized
by a several hour delay in onset of symptoms and reaction that peaks in 24—48
hours. This slow-forming, chronic inflammatory reaction is well demaycated on the
skin and is surrounded by localized erythema. Healing may take up to 4 days with
scabbing and sloughing of affected epithelial sites.
JFH-M
jBI
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Type I hypersensitivity reaction in the oral mucosa.
Type IV hypersensitivity reaction on the skin of the hands.
35. What should be done for health care workers who develop
symptoms or reactions that may be due to Latex hypersensitivity?
The first step is to determine that you are dealing with a true reaction to
Latex. The most common type of hand dermatitis is actually nonspecific irritation
and not an immunologic response. Nonspecific irritation can have a similar
appearance to type I or type IV reactions but often results from improper hand
care, such as not drying hands completely before putting on gloves. In addition.
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308
allowing dry hands to go untreated, especially during colder seasons, may lead to
development of chapped, broken areas in the epithelium.
When a condition has been diagnosed as hypersensitivity to Latex by the
appropriate medical practitioner, specific treatment and avoidance of offending
substances can proceed. Affected health care workers should look for non-Latex
gloves and other items that both prevent further exacerbations and allow suitable
tactile sensation and protection. In an alert to health professionals in 1991, the
FDA also suggested that persons with severe Latex sensitivity should wear a
medical identification bracelet in case they require emergency medical care and
are unable to alert hospital personnel.
36. What risk factors are associated with Latex allergy?
1. Frequent exposure to Latex 5. Allergies to certain food, such
2. History of surgery as bananas, avocados, kiwi
3. Spina bifida fruit, and chestnuts
4. Frequent catheterization
37. What are the official recommendations for protection of health
care workers with ongoing exposure to Latex?
The National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH)
recommends the following steps for worker protection:
1. Use non-Latex gloves for activities that are not likely to involve contact
with infectious materials (e.g., food preparation, routine housekeeping and
maintenance).
2. When appropriate barrier protection is necessary, choose powder-free
Latex gloves with reduced protein content.
3. When wearing Latex gloves, do not use oil-based hand creams or lotions
unless they have been shown to reduce Latex-related problems.
4. Frequently clean work areas contaminated with Latex dust.
5. Frequently change the ventilation filters and vacuum bags in Latex-
contaminated areas.
6. Learn to recognize the symptoms of Latex allergy: skin rashes and hives;
flushing and itching; nasal, eye, or sinus symptoms; asthma; and shock.
7. If you develop symptoms of Latex allergy, avoid direct contact with Latex
gloves and products until you see a physician experienced in treating Latex
allergy.
8. Consult your physician about the following precautions:
• Avoid contact with Latex gloves and products.
• Avoid areas where you may inhale the powder from Latex gloves worn by
others.
• Tell your employer(s), physicians, nurses, and dentists that you have
Latex allergy.
• Wear a medical alert bracelet.
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9. Take advantage of all Latex allergy education and training provided by
your employer.
38. A patient reports a Latex allergy and says that if a glove touches
her, she will break out. What type of glove should be used in place of
Latex?
Newer, better non-Latex (synthetic) gloves provide adequate barrier
protection and reduce concern for an allergic response. However, depending on
the severity of the allergy, more serious responses may occur merely in the
presence of Latex. You may wish to consult with the patient's allergist for
additional recommendations.
39. Why are lanolin hand creams contraindicated with glove use?
The fatty acids in lanolin break down the Latex (wicking) and create a build-
up of film on the hands.
BLOODBORNE INFECTIONS AND VACCINATION
40. What are universal precautions?
Universal precautions a concept of infection control, assume that any
patient is potentially infectious for a number of bloodborne pathogens. Blood,
blood-derived products, and certain other fluids that are contaminated with blood
are considered infectious for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), hepatitis B
virus (HBV), hepatitis C virus (HCV), and other bloodborne pathogens. Standard
precautions are procedure-specific, not patient-specific. In dentistry, saliva is
normally considered to be blood-contaminated.
41. What is the chain of infection?
The chain of infection refers to the prerequisites for infection (by either
direct or indirect contact):
1. A susceptible host
2. A pathogen with sufficient infectivity and numbers to cause infection
3. An appropriate portal of entry to the host (e.g., a bloodborne agent must
gain access to the bloodstream, whereas an enteric agent must enter the mouth
[tract]).
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CHAIN OF INFECTION
Susceptible host
Propal portal
of entry
Pathogen
Sufficient # patlYogiens
to cause infection
CDC C1993)
Chain of infection. (From U.S. Department of Health and Human Services, Centers for Disease Control and
Prevention: Practical Infection Control in the Dental Office. Washington, DC, U.S. Department of Health and
Human Services, 1993.)
42. Which factor is easiest to control: agent, host, or transmission?
Agent and host are more difficult to control than transmission. Standard
precautions are directed toward interrupting the transfer of microorganisms from
patient to health care worker and vice versa.
43. What is one of the single most important measures to reduce the
risk of transmission of microorganisms?
Handwashing is one of the most important measures in reducing the risk of
transmission of microorganisms. Hands should always be thoroughly washed
between patients, after contact with blood or other potentially infective fluids,
after contact with contaminated instruments or items, and after removal of
gloves. Gloves also play an important role as a protective barrier against
cross-contamination and reduce the likelihood of transferring microorganisms from
health care workers to patients and from environmental surfaces to patients. A
cardinal rule for safety is never to touch a surface with contaminated gloves that
will subsequently be touched with ungloved hands.
44. What are standard procedures?
Standard procedures are designed to reduce the risk of transmission of
microorganisms from both recognized and unrecognized sources of infection in
hospitals. They are a combination of universal precautions and body substance
isolation precautions and apply to blood, all bodily fluids (whether or not they
contain blood), nonintact skin, and mucous membranes.
45. 1 s exposure synonymous with infection?
No. An exposure is a contact that has a reasonable potential to complete
the chain of infection and result in disease of the host.
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46. What are hepatitis B and delta hepatitis?
Hepatitis B is one of most common reportable diseases in the United States.
HBV is transmitted through blood and sexual fluids: it is highly transmissible
because of the large numbers of virus in the blood of infected persons (about 100
million per ml). Delta hepatitis is caused by a defective virus (hepatitis D virus [
that relies on HBV for its pathogenicity and can infect only in the presence of HBV.
HBV and HDV coinfection, however, results in a fulminant course of liver disease.
47. Why is hepatitis B vaccination so important?
HBV is the major infectious occupational hazard to health care workers.
Transmission has been documented from providers to patients and vice versa. In
1982, a vaccine became available to provide protection from HBV infection. The
first-generation vaccine was plasma-derived, but the vaccine in current use is
genetically engineered. The safety and efficacy of the vaccine are well established,
and there is no current recommendation for booster doses. Furthermore,
protection from I-JBV also confers protection from HDV.
48. If you are employed in a dental practice, who pays for the HBV
vaccine— you or your employer?
If an employee may be exposed to blood or other potentially infectious
fluids during the course of work, it is the obligation of the employer to offer and
pay for the series of vaccinations. The employer is not required to pay titer test
costs because this test is not recommended by the United States Public Health
Service (USPHS), the agency on which OSHA relies for advice.
49. What if I refuse the vaccination?
In most states, you have a right to refuse the vaccination. You should
realize, however, that without the HBV vaccination series or evidence of previous
infection you remain at risk for acquiring HBV infection. Because OSHA considers
the HBV vaccination one of the most important protections that a health care
worker can have, the agency requires the employee to sign a waiver if the
vaccination is refused. Signing the waiver does not mean that, if you change your
mind in the future, the employer does not have to pay.
50. What is the risk of acquiring HBV infection from a percutaneous
exposure to blood known to be infected with HBV?
The risk of becoming infected with HBV is about 17—30%.
51. What is the risk of Hi V transmission associated with percutaneou
mucous membrane exposures to blood known to be HIV-positive?
The risk is about 0.3% (1/300) for percutaneous and about 0.09% (1/900)
for mucous membrane exposures. Many factors, however, influence the likelihood
of transmission (see question 62). Accumulated data from studies involving health
care worker exposures suggest a 0.2—0.4% risk of HIV infection with the worst-
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case scenario of a severe percutaneous injury involving exposure to blood from a
terminal HIV patient.
52. Have injuries to dental health care workers increased or decreased
over the past decade?
Injuries have decreased from reports of 12 per year to 3—4 per year by
1991. More recent data suggest that currently 2—3 injuries are reported per year.
53. Where do most injuries occur?
Most reported injuries occur outside the mouth, mainly on the hands of the
practitioner. Burrs have been cited as the most common source of injury. For oral
surgery, wires are frequently cited as the cause of injury.
54. Are any of these injuries avoidable?
Yes. Data indicate that most reported injuries were avoidable.
55. What is the major fact in prevention of bloodborne pathogen
transmission in health care settings?
Work practice controls have the greatest impact on preventing bloodborne
disease transmission. Over 90% of the injuries leading to disease transmission
have been associated with syringes and sharp instruments. Injuries also may be
prevented by engineering controls, particularly the use of safer medical devices. A
safe device will not prevent an injury unless it is properly used. The overall
message is to maintain consistent levels of attention and to take personal care.
Management Protocol for Accidental Exposures
1. Most Importantly, give appropriate first aid to contain or stop bleeding; then
clean the wound:
Parenteral Bleed the wound, and cleanse it.
Mucous membrane Flush the exposed area with copious
amounts of water.
Nonintact skin Cleanse area with antimicrobial agent.
2. Report incident to employer or other designated personnel to initiate written
documentation.
3. Determine source patient if possible. Employer or other designated personnel
must discuss incident with source patient and offer to test his or her blood for
the presence of HIV or HBV with written informed consent.
4. If the source patient with written informed consent releases information about
HIV or HBV status, this information may be conveyed to the exposed worker.
Employees should be aware of laws protecting confidentiality of medical history
and prohibiting disclosure of HIV status.
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5. Contact designated health care professional for immediate medical evaluation of
incident, HIV counseling, and HIV/HBV testing.
6. If baseline HIV test is not desired, counsel or recommend drawing a blood
sample for storage at test site. Within 90 days, employee may have blood
sample tested for HIV.
7. Zidovudine (ZDV) or other anti-HIV agents taken as a chemoprophylactic
measure should be started immediately and no longer than about 2 hours after
incident.*
8. Follow OSHA steps for reporting, including the use of OSHA form 101 (or
equivalent if practice employs fewer than 11 persons).
9. Ensure health care professional treating the incident has been provided all
information required by OSHA, including but not limited to:
• Injury report form
• Description of exposed employee's tasks
• Information about source patient with written consent for release
• Copy of OSHA Bloodborne Standard
• Information about exposed employee's vaccination status
10. The health care professional must report to the employer within 15 days of the
medical evaluation. The report contains only information about vaccination status
and whether HBV vaccination was provided. All other information is confidential.
11. Ensure appropriate follow-up.
* Please refer to question 63 for mm-c details.
Hepatitis B Virus Postexposure l^anagement '
TREATMENT WHEN SOURCE IS FOUND TO BE
HBsAG-
POSl 1 IVE
HBsAG-
NEGATIVE
UNKNOWN OR
EXPOSED WORKER
NOT TESTED
Unvaccinated
1. Initiate hepatitis B vaccine and
Initiate
Initiate hepatitis B
2. Worker should receive single dose
hepatitis B
vaccine
of hepatitis B immunoglobulin
(HBIG) as soon as possible and
vaccine
within 24 hr if possible
Previously vaccinated
Test exposed worker for anti-HBs:
No treatment
No treatment
Known responder
1. If adequate*,no treatment
2. If inadequate, hepatitis B vaccine
booster dose
Known nonresponder
Worker should receive:
No treatment
In l<nown high-risl<
1. 2 doses HBIG (give second dose 1
source, may treat
mo after first (\os€)or
2. 1 dose HBIG plus 1 dose
worl<er as if source
hepatitis B vaccine
were HBsAg- positive
Response unl<nown
Test exposed worker for anti-HBs:
No treatment
Test exposed worker for
1. If inadequate, 1 dose HBIG plus
anti-HBs:
hepatitis B vaccine booster dose
1. If inadequate, hepatitis
2. If adequate, no treatment
B vaccine booster dose
2. If adequate, no
treatment
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• Once an exposure has occurred, the blood of the source individual should be tested for hepatitis
B surtace (HBsAg). Based on recommendations from Hepatitis B virus: A comprehensive
strategy for eliminating transmission in the United States through universal childhood
vaccination: Recommendations of the Immunization Practices Advisory Committee (ACIP).
MMWR40(RR-13): 1—25, 1991.
* Adequate anti-HBs is > 10 milli-international units.
Human Immunodeficiency Virus Postexposure {Management *
TREATMENT OF EXPOSED WORKER WHEN SOURCE INDIVIDUAL
Is tested and found
seronegative and has no
clinical manifestations of
AIDS or HIV infection
No further follow-up unless:
Has AIDS or is HIV-positive
or refuses to be tested
1. Exposed Worker should be counseled
about risk of infection
2. Exposed worker should be evaluated
clinically and serologically for evidence
of HIV infection as soon as possible
after exposure.
3. Exposed worker should be advised to
seek and report medical evaluation for
any febrile illness within 12 wk after
exposure
4. Exposed worker should be advised to
refrain from blood donation and to use
appropriate protection for sexual
intercourse during follow-up period,
especially first 6—12 wk after
exposure. Exposed worker who tests
negative initially should be retested 6
wk, 12 wk, and minimum of 6 mo after
exposure
. Evidence suggests that source
may have been recently
exposed.
. Desired by worker or
recommended by health care
provider. If testing is done,
guidelines in first column may
be followed.
Cannot be identified
Decisions about appropriate follow-up
should be individualized. Serologic
testing should be done if worker is
concerned that transmission may
have occurred.
• Based on recommendations from Public Health Service statement on management of
occupational exposure to human immunodeficiency virus, including considerations regarding
zidovudine post exposure use, MMWR 39(RR-I):I— 14, 1990.
56. If I injure myself while working on a patient, can I call the patient's
personal physician for additional medical history information?
In almost all states, you must first obtain a written informed consent from
the patient. Calling without this consent may be a violation of medical
confidentiality. You may discuss the situation with the patient, however, to ask
permission or further information about his or her health. Regardless of the
answer, you should be evaluated by an appropriate health care provider as soon
as feasible if the injury warrants.
57. What treatment options are available to a health care worker who
has been exposed to HBV?
The health care worker may consider having a hepatitis B antibody titer to
determine HBV serostatus. However, treatment should be initiated within 24
hours. If the health care worker was not vaccinated against HBV or does not have
demonstrable antibody titer against hepatitis B surface antigen (anti-HB5Ag),
hepatitis B immunoglobulin (HBIG) should be administered as soon as possible.
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The HBV vaccination series should be initiated at the same time. An exposed
health care worker also may need to consider the possibility that HIV and/or HCV
exposure may have occurred simultaneously.
58. When must a percutaneous exposure (i.e., needlestick) be reported
to OSHA?
Any occupational exposure or injury must be recorded on either OSHA forms
or the practice's forms if it is work-related, required medical evaluation and/or
follow-up, or resulted in seroconversion. Seroconversion, as the result of
occupational exposure, also should be reported to the appropriate state agencies
and the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC).
59. If I am a hepatitis B carrier, can I continue woric that involves
patient contact?
In many states you may continue clinical care as long as you adhere strictly
to standard (universal) precautions. However, you should check with your
department of public health, board of registration, or professional association for
copies of the guidelines for HBV- or HIV-infected health care workers. Although
based on guidelines developed by the CDC, they differ among states.
60. If I am not hepatitis B e antigen (HBeAg)- positive, am I still able to
transmit hepatitis B?
Recently published data about four surgeons who were carriers of HBV and
transmitted HBV to their patients indicate that surgeons, even in the absence of
detectable levels of HBeAg in the serum, can transmit HBV during surgical
procedures involving inapparent exposures of patients to small amounts of
infective blood or serum.
61. How is such transmission possible?
A mutation that prevents the expression of HBeAg while the virus persists in
a carrier state was discovered during the investigation of the surgeons.
62. What factors are associated with an increased risk of HIV
transmission after a percutaneous injury?
1. First and foremost is whether the exposure was related to a large
quantity of blood. Associated factors include (a) whether the device was visibly
contaminated with the patient's blood; (b) whether the procedure involved a
needle placed directly in a vein or artery; and (c) whether it was a deep injury or
associated with actual injection of patient material.
2. Risk also increases for exposure to blood from source patients with
terminal illness (i.e., the last 6 months of life), which is probably indicative of
higher viral titers. The risk may depend on the source patient's experience with
antiretrovirals.
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3. Also important is the health care worker's use of postexposure
chemoprophylaxis. Surveillance reports suggest that ZDV (an retroviral) decreased
the risk of HIV seroconversion by 79% after controlling for factors other than ZDV
use alone.
63. What does the USPHS recommend for chemoprophylaxis after HIV
exposure?
The USPHS recommends that in certain cases health care workers should
take ZDV and other antireti-oviral drugs^ after exposure on the job to reduce the
risk of becoming infected. These drugs are recommended for the highest-risk
exposures, such as needlesticks contaminated with the blood of a patient in the
late stages of AIDS. For lower-risk exposures, such as a blood splash to the eye,
drugs should be offered to the worker; however, considerable thought should be
given to taking drugs for lower-risk exposures because the possible side effects in
healthy (i.e., not HIV-infected) persons are not well known. The following table
summarizes the current USPHS recommendations.
Provisional Public Health Service Recommendations
for Chemoprophylaxis after Occupational Exposure to HJV^
TYPE OF
ANTIRETROVIRAL
ANTIRETROVIRAL
EXPOSURE
SOURCE JVIATERIAL ^
PROPHYLAXIS ^
REGIMEN ^'^
Percutaneous
Blood ^
Highest risk
Recommend
ZDV+3TC+IDV
Increased risk
Recommend
ZDV+3TC±IDV '
No increased risk
Offer
ZDV+3TC
Fluid containing visible
Offer
ZDV+3TC
blood, other potentially
infectious fluid,^ or tissue
Other body fluid
Not offer
(e.g., urine)
Mucous membrane
Blood
Offer
ZDV+3TC+IDV ^
Fluid containing visible
Offer
ZDV±3TC
blood, other potentially
infectious fluid,^ or tissue
Other body fluid
Not Offer
(e.g., urine)
Skin
Increased risk ^
Blood
Offer
ZDV+3TC±IDV '
Fluid containing visible
Offer
ZDV±3TC
blood, other potentially
infectious fluid,^ or tissue
Other body fluid
Not Offer
(e.g., urine)
(1) Adapted from Center for Disease Control and Prevention: Update: Provisional Public Health
Service rec oinmendations for chemoprophylaxis after Occupational exposure to HIV. MMWR 45:468, 1996.
(2) Any exposure to concentrated HIV (e.g., in research laboratory or production facility) is treated
as percuta neous exposure to blood with highest risk.
(3) Recommend: postexposure prophylaxis (PEP) should be recommended to the exposed worker
with coun seling; offer: PEP should be offered to the exposed worker with counseling; not offer: PEP
should not be offered because these are not occupational exposures to HIV.
(4) Regimens: ZDV (zidovudine), 200 mg 3 x/day. If IDV is not available, saquinavir may be used,
600 mg 3 x/day. For full prescribing information, toxicities, contraindications, and drug interactions, see
package inserts.
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317
(5) For strains known to be resistant to ZDV and 3TC or if the drugs are contraindicated or not
tolerated, the optimal regimen is uncertain.
(6) Highest risk: botli larger volume of blood (e.g., deep injury with large-diameter hollow
needle previously in source patient's vein or artery, especially involving an injection of source patient's
IlfOd) and blood containing a high titer of HIV (e.g., source with acute retroviral illness or end-stage
AIDS). Increased risic: eitlier exposure to larger volume of blood or blood with high titer of HIV. No
increased risic: neither exposure to larger volume of blood nor blood with higher titer of HIV (e.g., solid
suture injury from source patients with asymptomatic HIV infection).
(7) Possible toxicity of additional drug may not be warranted.
(8) Includes semen, vaginal secretions, cerebrospinal, synovial, pleural, peritoneal, pericardial, and
amniotic fluids.
(9) For skin, risk is increased for exposures involving a high titer of HIV, prolonged contact, an
extensive area, or an area in which skin integrity is visibly compromised. For skin exposures without
increased risk, the risk for drug toxicity outweighs the benefit of PEP.
1. Chemoprophylaxis should be recommended to exposed workers after
occupational exposures associated with highest risk for HIV transmission. For
exposures with a lower, but non-negligible risk postexposure prophylaxis (PEP)
should be offered, balancing the lower risk against the use of drugs having
uncertain efficacy and toxicity. For exposures with negligible risk, PEP is not
justified [table]. Exposed workers should be informed that:
a. knowledge about the efficacy and toxicity of PEP is limited;
b. for agents other than ZDV, data are limited regarding toxicity in persons
without HIV infection or who are pregnant; and
c. any or all drugs for PEP may be declined by the exposed worker.
2. At present, ZDV should be considered for all PEP regimens because ZDV
is the only agent for which data support the efficacy of PEP in the clinical setting.
3TC should usually be added to ZDV for increased a nti retroviral activity and
activity against many ZDV-resistant strains. A protease inhibitor (preferably IDV
because of the characteristics summarized in MMWR, Vol 45/No. 22, June 7, 1996)
should be added for exposures with the highest risk for HIV transmission [ table].
Adding a protease inhibitor also may be considered for lower risk exposures if
ZDV-resistant strains are likely, although it is uncertain whether the potential
additional toxicity of a third drug is justified for lower risk exposures. For HIV
strains resistant to both ZDV and 3TC or resistant to a protease inhibitor, or if
these are contraindicated or poorly tolerated, the optimal PEP regimen is
uncertain; expert consultation is advised. (Special Note: resistant strains are more
likely in a patient who has been exposed to the drug for a prolongedtime period
such as 6—12 months or more or associated with more advanced HIV infection.)
3. PEP should be initiated promptly, preferably within 1—2 hours
postexposure. Although animal studies suggest that PEP probably is not effective
when started later then 24—36 hours postexposure, the interval after which there
is no benefit from PEP for humans is unidentified. Initiating therapy after a long
interval (i.e., 1—2 weeks) may be considered for the highest risk exposures; even
if infection is not prevented, early treatment for acute HIV infection maybe
beneficial. The optimal duration of PEP is unknown; because 4 weeks of ZDV
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appeared protective, PEP should probably be administered for 4 weeks, if
tolerated.
4. If the source patient or the patient's HIV status is unknown, initiating PEP
should be decided on a case-by-case basis, based on the exposure risk and
likelihood of HIV infection in known or possible source patients. If additional
information becomes available, decisions about PEP can be modified.
5. Workers with occupational exposures to HIV should receive follow-up
counseling and medical evaluation, including HIV-antibody tests at baseline and
periodically for at least 6 months postexposure (e.g., 6 weeks, 12 weeks, 6
months), and should observe precautions to prevent secondary transmission. If
PEP is used, drug toxicity monitoring should include a complete blood count and
renal and hepatic chemical function tests at baseline and 2 weeks after starting
PEP. If subjective or objective toxicity is noted, dose reduction or drug substitution
should be considered with expert consultation, and further diagnostic studies may
be indicated.
6. Since July 15, 1996, healthcare providers in the U.S. have been
encouraged to enroll all workers who receive PEP in an anonymous registry
developed by CDC, Glaxo Wellcome, Inc., and Merck & Co., Inc. to assess toxicity.
Unusual or severe toxicity from a nti retroviral drugs should be reported to the
manufacturer and/or the FDA (telephone 800-332-1088). Updated information
about HIV PEP is available from thelntemet at CDC's home page
(http://www.cdc.gov); CDC's fax information services, telephone 404-332-4565
(Hospital Infections Program directory); the National AIDS Clearinghouse,
telephone 800-458-5231; and the HIV/AIDS Treatment Information Services,
telephone 800-448-0440.
64. For how long must prophylactic drugs be taken?
The current recommendation is to take the drugs for 4 weeks.
65. Do antiretrovirals prevent occupational infection?
Postexposure prophylaxis does not prevent all occupational infections. There
have been at least 12 reports of ZDV failing to prevent infection in health care
workers. Following current infection control recommendations and using safer
needle devices are the primary means of preventing occupationally acquired HIV
infection. However, if an exposure occurs, the risk of infection is usually low; when
warranted, taking drugs as soon as possible (within 2 hours) after exposure may
reduce the risk further.
66. Does the employer have to pay for the anti retroviral drugs?
OSHA has made no official statement. However, because OSHA relies on the
most current USPHS recommendations, the agency may well expect the employer
to pay for the chemoprophylactic regimen. This rapidly evolving area may change
further as the USPHS reviews its recommendations, which are based on
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surveillance studies demonstrating that a nti retroviral therapy is beneficial if talcen
immediately after a significant exposure incident,
67. What is a prudent course for postexposure chemoprophylaxis?
It is important to discuss the postexposure management options in advance
of an exposure incident. The discussion should include the potential risk
associated with various injuries, source patient factors, selection of a health care
professional, and availability of antiretrovirals, if indicated.
68. What percent of AIDS cases have occurred among health care
workers?
Health care workers represent about 5% of the AIDS cases reported to the
CDC and about 5% of the U.S. workforce. As of December 1996, 424 dental
health care workers were among the reported AIDS cases, but not as occupational
cases.
69. Has HIV seroconversion been documented among dental health
care workers as the result of an occupational exposure?
No, not as of December 1996.
70. Have any dental health care workers possibly seroconverted as the
result of an occupational exposure?
Yes. As of December 1996, about 7 dental health care workers of HI total
health care workers have been reported to the CDC as possible cases of
occupational exposure.
71. What is the difference between a documented occupational
transmission and a possible occupational transmission of HI V?
The difference is in the testing. A documented occupational transmission
requires that the exposed health care worker be tested for HIV at the time of the
incident and that the baseline test be negative. If, after a designated time, HIV
seroconversion occurs, it is considered to be the result of the exposure incident. In
the possible category, health care workers have been found to be without
identifiable behavioral or transfusion risk. Each reported percutaneous exposure to
blood or body fluids or lab solutions containing HJV, but HIV seroconversion
specifically resulting from an occupational exposure was not documented. There
was no baseline testing at the time of the incident to prove that the health care
worker was HIV-negative before the incident.
72. What is the purpose of baseline testing after an occupational
exposure incident?
Baseline HIV antibody and HBV testing allows the health care professional
who evaluates the exposed worker to determine whether any subsequently
diagnosed disease was acquired as the result of the exposure incident. Blood is
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tested soon after the injury occurs to dete the health care worker's HBV and/or
HIV serologic status.
73. Can an employee refuse baseline testing?
An employee may decline testing or choose to delay testing of collected
blood for 90 days. If a delay is chosen, the blood must be drawn but not tested
until consent is given.
74. If I consent to baseline blood collection but not testing, then what?
If within 90 days the employee consents to testing of the baseline sample, it
should be done as soon as possible. If consent is not given within the 90 days, the
sample may be discarded.
75. What is the difference between confidential and anonymous HIV
testing?
Confidential testing with consent means that the test results become part of
your confidential medical record and cannot be released without your consent and
in accordance with state laws. The test results are linked to your name, even if
only in your medical record. Anonymous testing refers to a system whereby test
results are linked to a number or code and not a name. Therefore, you are the
only one who will know the results; they will not be part of your medical record.
Whether a coded result will suffice as evidence of baseline testing for the
purposes of documenting an exposure incident has not been challenged. If you
are reluctant to have any HIV test information in your medical record but are
concerned about documenting an incident, you may wish to consider baseline
blood collection at both an anonymous and a confidential test site. Have the
anonymous sample tested, and store the confidential sample for not more than
the 90 days allowed. Thus you have time to consider testing and an opportunity tp
find out whether you are seronegative.
76. Who pays the cost of HI V testing?
The employer is responsible for the cost of HIV testing under the obligation
to provide medical evaluation and follow-up of an exposure incident.
77. I s the employer responsible for costs associated with treatment of
disease if transmission occurs?
No. The employer is not expected to pay the costs associated with long-
term treatment of disease— only for the immediate evaluation and postexposure
prophylaxis as prescribed by OSHA in accordance with USPHS recommendations.
78. How long must an employer maintain employee medical records?
The employer must maintain employee medical records for the duration of
employment plus 30 years in accordance with OSHA's Standard on Access to
Employee Exposure and Medical Records, 29 CFR 1910.20. An employer may
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contract with the health care professional to maintain the records as along as they
are accessible to OSHA.
79. Who selects the health care professional for postexposure
evaluation and follow-up?
The employer has the right to choose the health care professional who will
treat exposure incidents.
Postexposure Evaluation and Follow-up Requirements under OSHA '5 Standard
for Occupational Exposure to Blood borne Pathogens
Exposure incident occurs
i
Employee
• Reports incident ->
to employer
Receives copy <-
of HCP's written
opinion
Employer
• Directs employee to HCP ->
• Sends to HCP:
• Copy of standard
• Job description of employee
• Incident report (route, etc.)
• Source patient's identity and
FIB V/HIV status (if known)
and other relevant medical
• Documents events on OSHA
200 and 101 (if applicable)
• Receives HCP's written <-
opinion
• Provides copy of HCP's
written opinion to employee
(within 15 days of completed
evaluation)
Health care professional (HCP)
• Evaluates exposure incident
• Arranges for testing of exposed employee
and source patient (if not already known)
• Notifies employee of results of all testing
• Provides counseling
• Provides postexposure prophylaxis
• Evaluates reported illnesses
(above items are confidential)
• Sends (only) written opinion to employer:
Documentation that employee was
informed of evaluation results and need for
any further follow-up and
Whether HBV vaccine is indicated and if
vaccine was received
Prepared by OSHA (February 1995). This document
provisions of the Occupational Safety and Health Act
OSHA.
is not considered a substitute for any
of 1970 or for any standards issued by
80. Does the employer have an obligation to former employees?
OSHA's standard on bloodborne pathogens requires immediate medical
evaluation and follow-up of an employee. If an employee leaves the practice, the
employer is no longer obligated to meet the obligations in the standard.
81. Does the employer have any obligation to temporary workers under
OSHA standards?
The responsibility to protect temporary workers from workplace hazards is
shared by the agency that supplies a temporary worker. The agency is required to
ensure that all workers have been vaccinated and are provided follow-up
evaluations. The contracting employer is not responsible for vaccinatidns and
follow-up unless the contract so specifies. However, the contracting employer is
expected to provide gloves, masks, and other personal protective equipment.
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322
82. How accurate is the HI V antibody test?
At 6 months after an exposure incident, the current serum test has the
ability to detect the presence of HIV antibody with 99.9% accuracy. After 1 year,
it is 99.9999% accurate. In addition to the traditional serum test, a new saliva
collection system is available. The accuracy of the saliva test is reported to be
comparable to the serum test. Home test kits that use serum samples are also
available.
83. What should you recommend to a health care worker who has been
potentially infected with HIV?
The first step is to seek voluntary, anonymous testing and counseling
services. Early medical intervention is most important in light of the new multidrug
combinations for anti-HIV therapy. In addition, it is important to consult state
guidelines for HIV/HB V-infected health care workers, your professional
association, or a legal advocate.
84. Have there been any recent reports of HBV transmission from
dentists to patients?
Since 1987 there have been no reports of HBV transmission from a dentist
to a patient. From 1970—1987, nine clusters were reported in which HBV infection
was associated with dental treatment by an infected dental health care worker.
Reasons for the current lack of reports of HBV transmission may include the
following:
1. Increased adherence to standard (universal) precautions
2. High compliance with HBV vaccination among dental health care workers
3. Reporting bias, incomplete reporting, or failure to correlate HBV
transmission with previous dental treatment .
Factors that enhanced the transmission of HBV in the past included failure
to use gloves routinely during patient care, failure to receive HBV vaccination,
noncompliance with universal precautions, and inability to detect disease in dental
health care workers.
85. What is the relationship between hepatitis C and non-A, non-B
hepatitis (NANBH)?
The designation NANBH was first used in the 1970s, when sera from certain
patients with signs and symptoms of hepatitis were found to be serologically
negative for immunologic markers of hepatitis A and hepatitis B virus infection.
The occurrence of manifestations typically associated with liver inflammation (i.e.,
jaundice, dark urine, chalky colored stools) without a defined etiology was
exacerbated by the observation that some of the patients showed definite signs of
a chronic carrier state. In 1989, investigators isolated the predominant cause of
NANBH in the United States, a single-stranded RNA virus designated hepatitis C
virus (HCV).
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86. How is HCV transmitted? Wliat are tlie implications for healtli care
worlcers?
HCV is spread primarily via a parenteral route; sexual and maternal-fetal
(vertical) transmission is a minor mode of viral passage. Health care workers
should follow universal precautions as indicated.
87. What other information about HCV is important for health care
workers?
1. No postexposure prophylaxis is available.
2. No vaccine is available.
3. Health care workers should be educated about risk and prevention.
4. Policies about testing and follow-up should be established.
5. There are no current recommendations for restriction of practice for HCV-
infected health care workers.
6. Risk of transmission from health care worker to patient appears low.
7. Appropriate control recommendations for prevention of bloodborne
disease transmission should be followed.
88. Does the CDC have specific policy recommendations for follow-up
after percutaneous or permucosal exposure to HCV- positive blood?
As of July 4, 1997, the CDC recommends that minimal policies should
include the following:
1. For the source, baseline testing for antibody to HCV (anti-HCV)
2. For the person exposed to an anti-HC V-positive source, baseline and
follow-up testing
(e.g., 6 month) for anti-HCV and alanine aminotransferase activity
3. Confirmation by supplemental anti-HCV testing of all anti-HCV results
reported as repeatedly reactive by enzyme immunoassay (EIA)
4. Recommendation against postexposure prophylaxis with immunoglobulin
or antiviral agents (e.g., interferon)
5. Education of health care workers about the risk for and prevention of
bloodborne infections, with routine updates to ensure accuracy
89. in the absence of postexposure prophylaxis, what other issues
should be considered?
The CDC recommends consideration of at least six issues in defining a
protocol for the follow-up of health care workers occupationally exposed to HCV:
1. Limited data suggest that the risk of transmission after a needlestick is
between that for HBV and HIV. Data for other routes of exposure are limited or
nonexistent.
2. Available tests are limited in their ability to detect infection and determine
infectivity.
3. The risk of transmission by sexual and other exposures is not well
defined; all anti-HCV- positive persons should be considered potentially infectious.
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4. Benefit of therapy for chronic disease is limited.
5. Costs associated with follow-up.
6. A postexposure protocol should address medical and legal implications,
such as counseling about an infected health care worker's risk of transmitting HCV
to others, therapy decisions, and individual worker concerns.
90. What counseling recommendations may help to prevent
transmission of HCV to others?
Persons who are anti-HCV-positive should refrain from donating blood,
organs, tissues, or semen, and household contacts should not share toothbrushes
and razors. There are no recommendations against pregnancy or breastfeeding or
for change in sexual practices with a steady partner. Transmission of HCV can
occur in sexual contact, but the risk among steady partners is low; nonetheless,
the risk associated with sexual activity should be explained.
91. What is the relationship between viral load and potential rate of
transmission to health care workers for HBV,Hiv, and HCV?
Potential Transmission Risics to Heait/i Care Wor/cers
CONCENTRATIONIML TRANSMISSION RATE(%)
Pathogen IN SERUM/PLASMA AFTER NEEDLESTICK INJURY
HBV 1,000,000—100,000,000 6.0-30.0
HCV 10—1,000,000 2.7-6.0
HIV 10—1,000 03
92. Are the guidelines for preventing transmission of airborne disease
different from those for preventing transmission of bloodborne disease?
Yes. In October 1994, the CDC issued their final version of the Guidelines
for Preventing the Transmission of Mycobacterium tuberculosis in Health-Care
Facilities, which emphasize the importance of the following: (1) the hierarchy of
control measures, including administrative and engineering controls and personal
respiratory protection; (2) the use of risk assessments for developing a written
tuberculosis (TB) control plan; (3) early identification and management of persons
who have TB; (4) TB screening programs for health care workers; (5) training and
education of health care workers; and (6) evaluation of TB infection control
programs.
93. What are specific recommendations for preventing TB transmission
in dental settings?
Recommendations for tiie Prevention oftiie Transmission of TB in Dentai Settings
1. A risk assessment should be done periodically, and TB infection control
policies should be based on the risk assessment. The policies should
include provisions for detection and referral of patients who may have
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undiagnosed active TB; management of patients with active TB, relative
to provision of urgent dental care; and employer-sponsored health care
worker education, counseling, and screening.
2. While taking patients' initial medical histories and at periodic updates,
dental health care workers should routinely ask all patients whether they
have a history of TB disease and symptoms suggestive of TB.
3. Patients with a medical history or symptoms suggestive of undiagnosed
active TB should be referred promptly for medical evaluation of possible
infectiousness. Such patients should not remain in the dental care facility
any longer than required to arrange a referral. While in the dental care
facility, they should wear surgical masks and should be instructed to
cover their mouths and noses when coughing or sneezing.
4. Elective dental treatment should be deferred until a physician confirms
that the patient does not have infectious TB. If the patient is diagnosed
as having active TB, elective treatment should be deferred until the
patient is no longer infectious.
5. If urgent care must be provided for a patient who has, or is strongly
suspected of having, infectious TB, such care should be provided in
facilities that can provide TB isolation. Dental health care workers should
use respiratory protection while performing procedures on such patients.
(Note: dental facilities may want to research appropriate referral facilities
prior to the need for referral).
6. Any dental health care worker who has a persistent cough (i.e., a cough
lasting 3 weeks), especially in the presence of other signs or symptoms
compatible with active TB (e.g., weight loss, night sweats, bloody
sputum, anorexia, and fever), should be evaluated promptly for TB. The
health care worker should not return to the workplace until a diagnosis
of TB has been excluded or until the health care worker is on therapy
and determination has been made that the health care worker is
noninfectious.
7. In dental care facilities that provide care to populations at high risk for
active T be appropriate to use engineering controls similar to those used
in general use areas (e.g., waiting rooms) of medical facilities that have
a similar risk profile.
Centers for Disease Control and Prevention: Recommendations for the prevention of the
transmission of TB in dental settings. I^II^WR 43:(RR-13):52— 53, 1994.
94. What is the risk of TB transmission in dental settings?
The risk is probably quite low and is determined by a number of factors,
including community profiles and patient population characteristics. TB infection
control policies are linked to a facility's level of risk, which is determined by risk
assessment.
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Elements of a TB Control Program for Dental Facilities
RISK CATEGORY*
ELEMENT
MINIMAL
VERY LOW
Recommended
Recommended
Yearly
Recommended
Yearly
Recommended
Recommended
Recommended
Recommended
Optional
Not applicable
Recommended
Recommended
Recommended
Recommended
Recommended
Recommended
Yearly
Recommended
Yearly
Recommended
Recommended
Recommended
Recommended
Recommended
Yearly
Recommended
Recommended
Recommended
Recommended
Designate a TB control individual
Conduct baseline risk assessment
Review community TB profile
Written TB control plan
Reassessment of risk
Protocol for identifying, managing, and referring patients
with active TB (includes providing/referring for urgent
dental care but allows delay/referral for elective care)
Education and training
Counseling oral health care workers about TB
Protocol to identify/evaluate oral health care workers with
signs/symptoms of active TB
Baseline purified protein derivative (PPD) testing of oral
health care workers
Periodic PPD screening of oral health care workers
Protocol for evaluating and managing oral health care
workers with positive PPD tests
Protocol for managing oral health care workers with
active TB
Protocol for investigating PPD conversions and active TB
in oral health care workers
Protocol for investigating possible patient-patient
transmission of TB
Note: In addition, for dental facilities in a low-risk category, all of the above apply, but there are
stronger recommendations for engineering controls and respiratory protection programs
* Risk categories are determined by a number of factors, including community profile and
patient population. If, after a review of the community profile and the patient profile, it is
determined that there are no TB pa tients in a facility or community, then a ''minimal" risk
classification is indicated. However, if a review in dicates the presence of TB patients, then
further analysis is necessary to complete the risk assessment including evaluation of health
care worker screening. If screening is negative, no TB patients were identi fied in the
previous year, and a plan is in place to refer patients with suspected or confirmed TB to a
collab orating facility, the classification is 'Very low" risk.
Adapted from the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention: Guidelines for Preventing the
Transmission of l^ycobacterium tuberculosis in IHealth-Care Facilities. Atlanta, Centers for Disease
Control and Prevention, 1994, pp 12—15.
INSTRUMENT REPROCESSING AND STERILIZATION
95. What is the difference between sterilization and disinfection?
Sterilization is the act or process of killing all forms of microorganisms on
an instrument or surface, including high numbers of highly resistant bacterial
endospores if they are present. Disinfection is the process of destroying
pathogenic organisms, but not necessarily all organisms.
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96. Describe the types of sterilization procedures.
1. Steam under pressure, or autoclaving, is the most widely used method.
2. Dry-heat sterilization involves placing instruments in a dry heat sterilizer
cleared for marketing as a medical device by the FDA. Instruments must remain in
the unit for a specified period of heating at a required temperature.
3. Unsaturated chemical vapor sterilization uses a specific chemical solution,
which, when heated under pressure, forms a sterilized vapor phase with a low
concentration of water.
Note: Manufacturer's directions for each sterilizer must be followed closely.
97. Wliat is the underlying doctrine of sterilization?
Do not disinfect or "cold-sterilize" what you can sterilize with a heat-based
process: "Don't dunk it, cook it." If an item or instrument is heat-stable, it should
be heat-sterilized. No other methods (e.g., gases or liquids) have equivalent
potency and safety assurance.
98. According to the Spaulding classification, what are critical,
semicritical, and noncritical items?
CDC/Spaulding Classification of Surfaces
DISEASE
TRANSMISSION
REPROCESSING
DESCRIPTION
EXAMPLES
RISK
TECHNIQUE
Critical
Pointedlsharp
Needles
High
Sterile,disposable
Penetrates tissue
Cutting instruments
Heat sterilization
Blood present
Implants
Semicritical
Mucous membrane
Medical ''scopes"
Intermediate
Heat sterilization
contact
Nonsurgical dental
High-level
No tissue
instruments
disinfection
penetration
Specula
No blood or other
Catheters
secretions present
Noncritical
Unbroken skin
Face masks
LOW
Sanitize(no blood)
contact
Clothing
Blood pressure cuffs
Diag electrodes
Intermediate-level
disinfection
(blood present)
Environmental
Usually no direct
Sanitize(no blood)
surfaces
patient contact
Intermediate-level
Medical
Knobs, handles of
Minimal
disinfection
equipment
x-ray machine
Dental units
Housekeeping
Floors, walls
Countertops
Least
Table courtesy of James A. Cottone, D.M.D., MS., April 1993. Modified for this edition.
Because the vast majority, if not all, of dental instruments are heat-stable, they should be
sterilized using a heat-based method (e.g., autoclaving). High-level disinfection using liquid
chemical/sterilant germicides is not\he current standard of practice in dentistry.
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99. How are critical and semicritical items treated after use?
If reusable, all heat-stable critical and semicritical instruments should be
sterilized with a heat process. Semicritical items require either heat or chemical-
vapor sterilization.
100. To what does the term "cold sterilization" refer in dentistry?
In dentistry, cold sterilization refers to the use of immersion (liquid
chemical) disinfectants for semicritical instruments and items used in patient care.
Cold sterilization is no longer recommended or acceptable for reusable items or
instruments, since virtually every dental instrument in current use is heat-stable.
101. What is the appropriate use of a glutaraldehyde solution in a
dental operatory or laboratory?
There is no longer any appropriate use for this or any other
sterilant/disinfectant liquid chemical germicide in dentistry.
102. What are the major negative characteristics of glutaraldehydes?
They are contact and inhalation hazards and require appropriate protective
clothing and ventilation. In addition, they are expensive and unstable.
103. What is the best way to reprocess a handpiece?
The best way is to follow the manufacturer's instructions, which should
indicate that a handpiece must be heat-treated between patients. The
manufacturer's instructions also should outline clearly the steps for cleaning and
lubrication and the most appropriate heat-treatment method. All handpieces
manufactured since the late 1980s are heat-stable; older units, if still in working
condition, may be modified to withstand heat sterilization.
104. What is the only function of a so-called glass bead sterilizer?
The glass bead sterilizer is used during endodontic procedures to
decontaminate endodontic files while they are used on the same patient. It is not
a sterilizer, and this designation is a long-standing misnomer in FDA classification.
Recently, these devices have been recalled by the FDA for submission of
supplemental data to substantiate or refute classification as sterilizers.
105. Can a disposable saliva ejector be reused?
No. It is a single-use item only and cannot be adequately sterilized between
patients.
106. How must a reusable air-water syringe tip be reprocessed?
The only acceptable methods of reprocessing are steam heat under
pressure, dry heat, or unsaturated chemical vapor.
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107. What is the minimal temperature required for sterilization by an
autoclave?
1210 Celsius. Manufacturer's instructions should be followed closely.
108. Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of an autoclave.
Advantage
• It is the gold standard for sterilization— nothing better is available to the
dental setting.
Disadvantages
• Instrument cutting surfaces and burrs may become dulled.
• Carbide-steel items may corrode.
• Time is spent precleaning and wrapping instruments.
109. What is the method of choice for sterilizing burrs and diamonds?
If burrs are not discarded after use, dry heat is the least expensive
sterilization method and does not corrode or dull cutting edges. If you must use
an autoclave for burrs, they should be dipped into a 1% sodium nitrite emulsion
preparation to prevent corrosion.
110. I n a forced-air dry heat oven preheated to 160—170° C, how long
does it take to sterilize instruments?
Sterilization is achieved in 2 hours in a properly working unit. However,
additional time may be necessary for cool down before metal items can be used.
111. What are the advantages and disadvantages of dry-heat
sterilizers?
Advantages
• They do not dull sharp instruments.
• They are equivalent to a steam autoclave in germicidal potency in a
completed cycle.
Disadvantages
• Cycle time is long
• Most plastics, paper, and fabrics char, melt, or burn and cannot be
sterilized in this manner.
112. Can a dental handpiece withstand dry-heat sterilization?
Currently, it cannot, and manufacturers do not recommend dry-heat
sterilization. Handpieces, however, may be appropriately sterilized by saturated
steam under pressure or unsaturated chemical-vapor sterilization,
113. Which agency is responsible for regulating handpieces?
The FDA, Center for Devices and Radiological Health, Dental and Medical
Services Branch, in accordance with the Safe Medical Devices Act, clears medical
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devices, including sterilizers, for marl<eting. The user, however, must be aware
that clearance to market proves neither efficacy nor manufacturer's claims,
114. What packaging material is compatible with autoclaves?
The most suitable material for use in an autoclave is one that the steam can
penetrate; for example, paper or certain plastics. It is best to read the
manufacturer's instructions and follow them precisely.
115. What packaging material cannot be used in dry-heat sterilizers?
The manufacturer's instructions specify that you cannot use most of the
plastics (pouch or wrap) and paper wrap commonly used for steam autoclaves.
They melt or burn at high temperatures.
116. What packaging material is compatible with unsaturated
chemical-vapor sterilizers?
The manufacturer's instructions make clear that perforated metal trays and
paper are suitable for use in chemical-vapor sterilizers. The vapor must be able to
penetrate the material. Chemical-vapor sterilizers also rely on high levels of heat
and pressure for efficacy.
117. What is an easy method to demonstrate that sterilization
conditions have been reached in a cycle?
Process indicators and other chemical integrators demonstrate that some
conditions to achieve sterilization were reached.
118. What is the definition of sterile?
The state of sterility is an absolute term: an item is either sterile, or it is not
sterile. Sterility is the absence of all viable life forms, and the term reflects a
carefully designed and monitored process used to ensure that an item has a very
low probability of being contaminated with anything at time of use. For surgical
instruments, this probability is one in one million— i.e., a sterility assurance level
(SAL) of 10 to the minus 6th.
119. What are the most common reasons for sterilization failure in an
autoclave?
1. Inadequate predeaning of instruments
2. Improper maintenance of equipment
3. Cycle time too short and/or temperature too low
4. Improper loading or overloading
5. Incompatible packaging material
6. Interruption of a cycle to add or remove items
Multiple investigations have found that the most frequent cause of sterilizer
failure is human error.
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120. What is the difference between process (chemical) indicators and
biologic (spore) monitors?
Biologic spore monitors more precisely reflect the potency of the sterilization
process by directly measuring death of high numbers of highly resistant bacterial
endospores, whereas simple chemical indicators merely reflect that the
temperature of sterilization has been reached. Other chemical indicators (i.e.,
Integrators) are becoming more sophisticated and reflect both time and
temperature during the process. There are insufficient data to indicate whether
the two processes are equivalent. Current recommendations suggest that simple
chemical indicators be placed in the center of every individual instrument pack to
show the user that the package went through a heating process. In using any
process monitor, the instructions provided by the monitor manufacturer or the
monitor testing service should be followed precisely.
121. In biologic monitoring of sterilization equipment, which
nonpathogenic organisms are used for each type of unit?
For autoclaves and chemical-vapor sterilizers. Bacillus stearothermophilus
spores are used. For dry-heat and ethylene oxide units, Bacillus subtilis is used.
Placement of the monitor in a load is critical; manufacturer's instructions should be
followed closely.
122. How often should biologic monitoring of sterilization units be
performed?
At a minimum, on a weekly basis.
Indications for More Frequent Biologic Monitoring of Sterilization Units
1. If the equipment is new and being used for the first time
2. During the first operating cycle after a repair
3. If there is a change in packaging material
4. If new employees are using the unit or being trained in use of equipment or
procedure for monitoring
5. After an electrical or power source failure
6. If door seals or gaskets are changed
7. If cycle time and/or temperature is changed
8. For all cycles treating implantable items or materials
9. For all cycles to render infectious waste as noninfectious, as mandated by
state law*
10. If the method of biologic monitoring is changed
* This may not apply in all states; contact the appropriate state agency.
123. What is the rationale for use of a holding solution?
A holding solution is a good idea if the circumstance warrants; for example,
when it is not possible to clean instruments or items immediately after patient use.
It is easier to clean the instruments safely and efficiently if the material is not
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dried. The intent of a holding solution is only to keep debris moist; if it dries,
cleaning becomes more difficult. Holding solutions are not intended for
disinfection, and chemical disinfectants should not be used as holding solutions.
124. Do instruments need to be cleaned before sterilization?
Instruments must be cleaned thoroughly before sterilization. Two methods
of instrument cleaning are ultrasonic cleaning and handscrubbing. Ultrasonic
cleaning is the method of choice, because it minimizes hand contact with
contaminated sharps and may clean more thoroughly than handscrubbing. If an
ultrasonic unit is not available, handscrubbing must be done in a safe manner to
avoid injury. The preferred method is to clean one or two items at a time, holding
them low in the sink under running water and scrubbing them with a long-handled
brush. Regardless of cleaning method, contaminated instruments should be
handled only while wearing reusable, heavy-gauge, industrial, or housekeeping
gloves. Vinyl or Latex gloves are not appropriate.
125. How do you ensure that an ultrasonic cleaning unit is in proper
working order?
A function test may be performed on a routine basis, according to the
manufacturers' instructions. In general, a function test requires that fresh solution
be activated in the unit, that a piece of aluminum foil of specified size be cut and
placed vertically into the activated solution for exactly 20 seconds, and that the
foil be removed and examined under a light source. A functional unit causes holes
and/or pitting in the foil; if no holes are present or a uniform pitting pattern is not
evident, the unit is not working properly and should be repaired.
USE AND MISUSE OF LIQUID CHEMICAL GERMICIDES
126. Which federal agencies are involved in the regulation of liquid
chemical germicides?
The FDA regulates chemical germicides if they are used for terminal
reprocessing of reusable medical devices. The Environmental Protection Agency
(EPA) regulates and registers chemical germicides used to disinfect environmental
surfaces. The FDA also regulates the instruments themselves, including
autoclaves, dry-heat, and other sterilizers.
127. Upon what does the efficiency of a disinfectant depend?
1. Concentration of mid and organic material (bioburden) left on
surfacesand/or items. Hence precleaning of surfaces is of utmost importance.
2. Proper concentration of the disinfectant
3. Length and temperature of exposure
4. Accuracy with which the operator follows specific instructions on the
product label or inserted in the product package
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128. Why is Mycobacterium tuberculosis used as a benchmaric for
testing chemical germicides used on environmental surfaces?
Mycobacterium tuberculosis is not spread by surfaces; TB is transmitted via
aerosols and inhalation of infective particles. This organism was chosen for testing
of potency solely because of its resistance to germicidal chemicals. According to
EPA registration criteria, germicides capable of killing mycobacteria in addition to a
variety of other bacteria, fungi, and viruses of lesser resistance have a label
designation of "hospital disinfectant" with a claim for tuberculocidal activity. Such
products are commonly referred to as intermediate-level disinfectants (see next
question).
129. What are Spaulding's classifications of biocidal activity?
1. Sterilization is a process that kills all microorganisms, including high
numbers of highly resistant bacterial endospores.
2. High-level disinfection is a process in which chemical sterilants are used
in a manner that kills vegetative bacteria, tubercle bacillus (mycobacteria), lipid
and nonlipid viruses, and fungi, but not all bacterial spores, if they are present in
high numbers. Hot water pasteurization is also high-level disinfection. The
application of high-level disinfection in dentistry is limited because virtually all
dental instruments are heat-stable,
3. Intermediate-level disinfection kills vegetative bacteria and fungi, tubercle
bacillus, and lipid and nonlipid viruses. These agents (phenols, chlorine
compounds, iodophors, and alcohol-containing products) are designed for
disinfecting environmental surfaces.
4. Low— level disinfection kills only vegetative bacteria, some fungi, and lipid
viruses, but not tubercle bacillus. These products (mostly quaternary ammonium
compounds) are designed for use on housekeeping surfaces.
130. 1 s household bleach acceptable for surface decontamination?
OSHA's Instruction CPL 2-2.44C, "Enforcement Procedures for The
Occupational Exposure to Bloodborne Pathogens Standard," states that
disinfectant products regi by the EPA as tuberculocidal are appropriate for the
clean-up of blood-contaminated surfaces. Although generic sodium hypochlorite
solutions are not registered as such, they are generally recommended by the CDC
as an alternative to other proprietary germicides for disinfection of environmental
surfaces. A dilution of 1:100 with water (approximately 500 ppm chloride) is
acceptable after proper precleaning of visible material from surfaces. A usable
approximation of this dilution can be achieved by mixing V4 cup of household
sodium hypochlorite bleach in a gallon of water, it is best to renew the dilution at
least weekly and to dispense from a clearly labeled spray bottle. Use bleach
dilutions with caution, because they are corrosive to metals, especially aluminum,
131. When and how should laboratory items and materials be cleaned
and disinfected?
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Items should be cleaned and disinfected after handling and certainly before
placement in a patient's mouth. Before disinfecting, read the manufacturer's
directions for specific material compatibility or contraindications for use. In
general, an intermediate-level tuberculocidal hospital disinfectant with an EPA
registration number on the label is a suitable choice.
132. Do I have to keep an environmental surface wet for 10 minutes
for a disinfectant to be effective?
No. The legal label of an environmental germicide requires testing that
reflects the worstcase situation of an uncleaned surf In a practical sense, if a
surface has been thoroughly precleaned of organic material and mOistened with
fresh, uncontaminated germicide, whenever it dries, it is "safe." Precleaning is of
utmost importance.
133. What type of microorganisms do EPA- registered, tuberculocidal
hospital disinfectants generally claim to kill?
Under EPA registration, the kill claim is for Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
Salmonella spp., staphylococci, and Pseudomonas spp. Obviously, a wide variety
of other types of less resistant microorganisms, including many pathogenic
varieties, also are killed. A specific microorganism kill claim (e.g., HIV, HBV, or
antibiotic-resistant strains) should not be a primary criterion for purchase or use.
Such claims are printed on labels primarily for marketing purposes; most
pathogens of contemporary concern have no unusual resistance levels and are
susceptible to a wide range of germicidal chemicals.
134. What are the categories under which a manufacturer may apply
for registration of a hospital disinfectant?
Under the disinfectant heading, a manufacturer can apply for four separate
categories for registration: bactericidal, virucidal, pseudomicidal, and
tuberculocidal activity. Other specific genera and species also may be listed in the
label claim; however, the first four categories are the most important to determine
general potency of a product.
135. I n choosing a chemical disinfectant, what is the more important
kill claim, Mycobacterium tuberculosis or HIV?
The more important claim is M. tuberculosis, which is one of the more
resistant microbial forms. If mycobacteria are killed, all microorganisms of lesser
resistance are assumed to be killed also. HIV is a highly sensitive microorganism
and is easily killed by many, if not all, proprietary germicides.
136. Do EPA tests of germicidal chemicals indicate efficacy?
No. The EPA tests reflect potency, not efficacy. The EPA tests are
standardized lab tests for comparing the potency of one germicide with another
and are based on descending order of general microbial resistance to germicides.
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Efficacy is established by inference according to the potency of the germicide and
the manner in which the product is used by the worl<er.
137. How do you determine use and reuse life of a surface disinfectant?
The EPA requires that use and reuse life information be obvious on a label.
As a general rule, it is important to follow the manufacturer's instructions for use.
138. Wliat are the minimal label requirements for a disinfectant
product to be appropriate for use in a dental setting?
For surfaces frequently contaminated by patient material (e.g., light
handles, prophy trays, and other environmental surfaces that come in contact with
contaminated instruments), registration as an EPA hospital disinfectant with
additional label claim for tuberculocidal activity (under the Spaulding classification
scheme, an intermediate-level disinfectant). For general housekeeping, such as
floors or countertops in nonclinical areas, the label claim for hospital disinfectant
alone is adequate.
139. What is an antiseptic?
An antiseptic is a chemical agent that can be applied to living tissue and can
destroy or inhibit microorganisms. Examples are antimicrobial handwash agents
and antimicrobial mouth rinses.
140. How does an antiseptic differ from chemical sterilants and
disinfectants?
Chemical sterilants and disinfectants cannot be applied to living tissue,
whereas antiseptics are designed for use on tissue rather than on environmental
surf or medical instruments.
141. Should a disinfectant be used as a holding solution?
No. It is not necessary. The purpose of a holding solution is merely to keep
debris moist on hand instruments until they can be cleaned and sterilized. Holding
solutions cannot disinfect or sterilize. Presoaking in a disinfectant does not
disinfect; it only adds unnecessary time and expense because the items still need
to be heat-sterilized before use.
142. What is the preferred holding solution?
Soapy water, using a detergent that is noncorrosive or low in corrosives, is
effective. Clinicians also may choose the ultrasonic solution used in their practice
as an instrument holding solution. These solutions should be changed at least
daily or as directed by the manufacturer.
143. What is the best source for safety information about a hazardous
product?
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The Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) provides the most comprehensive
product information and is the best source for safety information as well as
precautions, emergency procedures, and personal protective equipment
requirements. The MSDS must be provided by the manufacturer or distributor of
the product if it is covered under the Hazard Communication Standard (HazCom).
The product label is also a good source of information, but it is not as complete as
an MSDS.
144. If I transfer a chemical agent from its primary container to a
secondary container, must I label the secondary container?
No— not if it is for your immediate use during the same work day. If,
however, it is intended for use by other employees, it must be appropriately
labeled.
145. What ventilation requirements are indicated during use of liquid
chemical germicides?
All chemical agents are toxic to varying degrees and should be used in well-
ventilated areas. Additional ventilation is not necessary (if the product is used
according to instructions provided by the manufacturer) unless indicated by the
manufacturer.
146. What are the special ventilation requirements for surface
disinfectants?
Again, all chemical agents should be used in well-ventilated areas. The
manufacturer's instructions, label, or MSDS may indicate special requirements or
personal protective equipment.
147. 1 s a chemical exposure incident a reportable injury?
Yes. If it results in the need for medical follow-up, chemical exposure should
be reported in accordance with OSHA standards.
148. What personal protective equipment is indicated during use of
chemical agents?
At a minimum, protective eyewear, a mask, and task-appropriate gloves,
such as heavy duty utility or nitrile gloves, should be worn for handling of
chemical agents. The key point is barrier protection of skin and mucous
membranes from potential contact with hazardous or caustic chemical agents.
HANDLING AND DISPOSAL OF DENTAL WASTE
149. Who regulates dental waste?
OSHA regulates how the waste is handled in a dental facility. Federal, state,
and local laws govern the disposal itself.
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150. What is the intent of the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act
(RCRA)ofEPA?
The intent of the RCRA is to hold the generator of a hazardous waste
responsible for its ultimate disposal or treatment and for any clean-up costs
associated with improper disposal. Each dentist, therefore, is r for ensuring proper
disposal of waste, and improper disposal by an unscrupulous company is
ultimately the responsibility of the dentist.
151. What is potentially infective waste?
It is waste contaminated by patient material and should be handled and
disposed of accordingly.
152. Does the term "contaminated" refer to wet or dry materials or
both?
Contaminated refers to both wet and dry materials. For example, HBV can
remain viable in dried materials for at least 7 days and perhaps longer. However,
HBV is easily killed by moderate levels of heat or by a wide variety of chemical
germicides, including low-level germicides.
153. 1 s all contaminated waste potentially infective waste?
No— but all infective waste is contaminated. Some contaminated waste,
although it contains potential pathogens, may not have sufficient quantity or type
to initiate infection and disease.
154. What is toxic waste?
Toxic waste is capable of causing a poisonous effect.
155. What is hazardous waste?
Hazardous waste poses peril to the environment.
156. 1 s all hazardous waste toxic?
No. It may not have a poisonous effect.
157. if potentially infective waste is autoclaved, how can you
guarantee its sterility?
If you use heat-sterilization equipment to treat potentially infective waste,
most state regulations mandate that you must biologically monitor each waste
load to ensure that the cycle was successfully completed. Each load must be
labeled with a date and batch number so that if a sterilization failure occurs, the
load can be retreated. Although required by many states, the merits or necessity
for this degree of monitoring is highly controversial among experts.
158. What method should be used to dispose of potentially infective
items such as gauze, extracted teeth, masks, and gloves?
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Blood-soaked gauze, extracted teeth, and any other material that is
contaminated by patient fluids, saliva, or blood should be considered potentially
infective waste and disposed of according to federal, state, or local law. Masks,
provided they are not blood-soaked, can be disposed of as ordinary trash.
Contaminated gloves should be disposed of as potentially infective waste.
159. What is the most appropriate method for disposal of used needles
and sharps?
Although needles may be recapped by a one-hand technique or mechanical
device, they should not be bent or broken or otherwise manipulated by hand. An
appropriate sharps container should be used for disposal of all spent sharps and
needles.
DENTAL WATER QUALITY
160. is there concern about the microbial biofilm known to populate
dental unit water lines?
Biofilm contamination of dental unit water lines (DUWLs), although not a
new phenomenon, has received widespread attention from the media and
scientific community. There are few current data on which to formulate
recommendations to control biofilm accumulation or to establish safe levels of
microorganisms in dental unit water used for nonsurgical (restorative) procedures.
The American Dental Association released a statement recognizing the microbial
levels in DUWLs and urging improvement of the am microbiologic quality of water
through research, product development, and training. Other organizations, such as
the CDC and Office Sterilization and Asepsis Procedures Research Foundation
(OSAP), have issued guidelines for DUWLS.
161. Have there been any documented cases of infection or disease in
dental health care worlcers from microorganisms in DUWLs?
Some published reports suggest increased exposure of dental health care
workers to legionellae from aerosolized dental unit water. DUWL water from an
unmaintained dental unit may contain literally millions of bacteria and fungi per ml
(many of them potential clinical pathogens); the lack of specific epidemiologic
studies has prevented accurate assessment of the potential effect on public
health. To date, however, a major public health problem has not been identified.
162. What is biofilm?
Microbial biofllms are found virtually anywhere that moisture and a suitable
solid surface for bacterial attachment exist. Biofllms consist primarily of naturally
occurring slime-producing bacteria and fungi that form microbial communities in
the DUWL along the walls of small-bore plastic tubing in dental units that deliver
coolant water from high-speed dental handpieces and air-water syringes. As water
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flows through the microbial matrix, some microorganisms may be released. Dental
plaque is the best-known example of a biofllm.
163. Where do the microorganisms come from?
The vast majority are indigenous to house water mains. Patient
microorganisms may be transient "tourists" in the biofilm.
164. What is the purpose of flushing water lines?
Current recommendations are to flush water lines for at least 3 minutes at
the beginning of the clinic day and for at least 15—20 seconds between patients.
This process does not remove all contamination, but it may transiently lower the
levels of free-floating microorganisms in the water. Removal of water line
contamination requires a number of steps, such as chemical disinfection of the
lines, a sterile water source, and a specific filtration system in the water line or a
combination of these treatments. It has no effect whatsoever on biofllm
contamination.
165. What is the purpose of an anti retraction valve?
To prevent aspiration of patient material into water lines and thereby reduce
the risk of transmission of potentially infective fluids or patient material from one
patient to another.
166. What should be done with the water supply on a dental unit when
local health authorities issue a "boil water notice" after the quality of
the public water supply is compromised?
Use of the dental unit should be stopped if it is attached to the public water
supply or if tap water is used to fill the bottle of an isolated water supply to the
unit. Immediately contact the unit manufacturer for instructions on flushing and
disinfecting the water lines. Use of house water should not resume until the boil
water notice is lifted by the local authorities.
BIBLIOGRAPHY
1. Bednarsh HS, Ekiund KE: CDC Issues final TB guidelines. ACCESS 10:6—13, 1995.
2. Bednarsh HS, Ekiund KE: TB prevention through screening and therapy. ACCESS
10: 1995.
3. Bednarsh HS, Ekiund KE: CDC updates postexposure guidelines. ACCESS 10:38—
44, 1996.
4. Bednarsh HS, Ekiund KE, Mills 5: Check our dental unit water IQ. ACCESS 10:37—
43, 1996.
5. Bell DM, Shapiro CN, et al: Risk of hepatitis B and human immunodeficiency virus
transmission to a patient from an infected surgeon due to percutaneous injury
during an invasive procedure: Estimates based on a model. Infect Agents Dis
1:263-269, 1992.
6. Centers for Disease Control and PrevefltiOn Recommended infection control
practices for dentistry. MMWR 35:237—242, 19
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7. Centers for Disease Control and prevention: Recommended infection control
practices for dentistry. MMWR42:(RR-8), 1993.
8. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention Guidelines for preventing the
transmission of Mycobacterium tuberculosis in healthcare facilities, 1994.
MMWR43:(RR-123), 1994.
9. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention: Case-control study of HIV
seroconversion in health-care workers after precutaneous exposure to HI V-
infected blood— France, United Kingdom, and United States, Jan. 1988— August
1994. MMWR 44(50), 1995.
10. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention: HIV/AIDS Surveillance Report.
Year-end edition through December 1996. Atlanta, Centers for Disease Control
and Prevention, 1997. Centers for Disease Control and prevention: Update:
Provisional Public Health Service recommenda tions for chemoprophylaXiS after
occupational exposure to HIV. MMWR 45(22) :468— 472, 1996.
12. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention: Facts about Surveillance of Health
Care Workers with HIV/AIDS. Atlanta, Centers for Disease Control and
Prevention, 1997.
13. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention: Hepatitis Surveillance. Report No.
56. Atlanta, Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, 1996.
14. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention: Guidelines for prevention of
transmission of HIV and HBV to health-crc and public safety workers. MMWR
38(No. S-6), 1989.
15. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention: Recommendations for preventing
transmission of HIV and HBV to patients during exposure-prone invasive
procedures. MMWR 40(RR-8), 1991.
16. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention: Recommendations for follow-up of
health-care workers after occupational exposure to hepatitis C virus. MMWR
46(28), 1997.
17. Cleveland JL, et al: TB infection control recommendations from the CDC, 1994:
Considerations for dentistry. JAm Dent Assoc 126:593—600, 1995.
18. Cottone JA, TeerezhalmY GT, Molinari J: Practical Infection Control in Dentistry.
Philadelphia, Lea & Febiger, 1990, pp 98—104, 105—118.
19. Councils on Dental Materials, Instruments and Equipment, Dental Practice, Dental
Therapeutics: Infection control recommendations for the dental office and
dental laboratory. J Am Dent Assoc 116:241—248, 1988.
20. Food and Drug Administration (FDA): Heat sterilization on dental handpieces. FDA
Bulletin, March 1993.
21. Gooch BF, Cardo DM, et al: Percutaneous exposures to HIV-infected blood. JAm
Dent Assoc 126: 1237—1242, 1995.
22. Incident Investigation Teams et al: Transmission of hepatitis B to patients from
four infected surgeons without hepatitis B e antigen. N Engl J Med 336:178—
184, 1997.
23. Lo B, Steinbrook R: Health care workers infected with the human
immunodeficiency virus. JAMA 267:1992.
24. Martin MV: Infection Control in the Dental Environment. London, Martin Dunitz,
1991, pp 27-32.
25. Mayo JA, Oertling KIvI, Andrieu SC: Bacterial biofilm: A source of contamination in
dental air-water syringes. Clin Prevent Dent 12:13—20, 1990.
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26. Miller C: Cleaning, sterilization, and disinfection: Basics of microbial killing for
infection control. Jam Dent Assoc 124:48—56, 1993.
27. Miller C: Sterilization and disinfection: What every dentist needs to know. JAm
Dent Assoc 123:46—54, 1992.
28. Miller C: Update on heat sterilization and sterilization monitoring. Compendium
I4(2):304-3I6, 1993.
29. Miller C, Palenik Ci: Sterilization, disinfection and asepsis in dentistry. In Bloc SS
(ed): Sterilization, Disinfection and Preservation. Philadelphia, Lea & Febiger,
1991, pp 676-694.
30. Molinari JA, et al: Cleaning and disinfectant properties of dental surface
disinfectants. J Am Dent Assoc 117:179—182, 1988.
31. Molinari JA, etal: Comparison of dental surface disinfectafltS. Gen Dent 35:171—
175, 1987.
32. Molinari JA, et al: Waterbome microorganisms: Colonization, contamination, and
disease potential. Part I. Compendium 15(I0):1 192—1196, 1994.
33. Molinari JA, et al: Waterbome microorganisms: Questions about healthcare
problems and solutions. Part II. Compendium 16:130—132, 1995.
34. Molinari JA, et al: Tuberculosis in the 1990's: Current implications for dentistry.
Compendium 14(3): 276-292, 1993.
35. National Institutes for Health: Management of Hepatitis C. NIH Consensus
Statement. Rockville, MD, National Institutes of Health, 1997.
36. Occupational Safety and Health Administration: Regulations for protection
against occupational exposure to bloodborne pathogens. 29 CFR 1919.1030:
December 6, 1991.
37. Occupational Safety and Health Administration: Post-Exposure Evaluation and
Follow-up Requirement under OSHA's Standard for Occupational Exposure to
Bloodborne Pathogens: A Guide to Dental Employer Obligations. 1995.
38. Occupational Safety and Health Administration: Occupational Hazards
communication Standard. 29 CFR 1810, 1200 (b) (4), 1983.
39. Occupational Safety and Health Administration: Hazardous Waste Operations
and Emergency Response. Final Rule. 29 CFR Part III, 1989.
40. OSAP Position Paper: Dental Unit Waterlines. Dental Unit Waterline Working
Group, 1997.*
41. OSAP Position Paper: Instruments Processing. Instrument Processing Working
Group, 1997. *
42. OSAP Position Paper: Percutaneous Injury. Percutaneous Injury Working
Group, 1997.*
43. Rizdon R, Gallagher K, Ciesielski C, et al: Simultaneous transmission of human
immunodeficiency virus and hepatitis C virus from a needlestick injury. N Engl J
Med 336:919-922, 1997.
44. Shearer BG: Biofllm and the dental office. J Am Dent Assoc 127:181—189,
1996.
45. Young JM: Dental air-powered handpieces: Selection, use, and sterilization.
Compendium 14(3): 358—368, 1993.
* OSAP position papers are available from Office Safety and Asepsis Procedures
Research Foundation at 1-800-298-OSAP.
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13. COMPUTERS AND DENTI STRY
Elliot V. Feldbau, D.M.D., andHan/eyN. Waxnian, D.M.D.
Computers are becoming as much a part of the dental office as any earlier
technology. They are an essential part of office management and are becoming
more common in clinical dentistry as well. Dental office computer programs are
referred to as dental management information systems (DMIS)— a term that
reflects the true nature of their function. This chapter addresses the following
topics: fundamentals of computers, selection of computer systems, the computer
as a dental management information system, dentistry and the Internet, and
dental informatics.
FUNDAMENTALS OF COMPUTERS
1. What are the basic components of a computer system?
1. System board or motherboard 5. Peripheral devices
2. Monitor 6. Connectors and ports
3. Input devices 7. Communication devices
4. Storage devices
2. Describe the motherboard and its components.
The system board or motherboard is the large electronic circuit board
containing most of the computer's essential components, including:
1. Central processor unit (CPU) implements all basic system instructions,
performs calculations, and controls peripheral devices at the rate of billions of
instructions per second. Common CPUs are the Intel Pentium, Power PC from
Motorola used in the newest Macintosh OS computers, and the K.6 series from
AMD. CPUs are generally in quick change sockets for easy upgrading.
2. Random access memory (RAI^I) refers to computer memory chips
that hold programs and data only as long as the computer is powered. When the
power is turned off, all contents of RAM are lost unless previously saved to disk.
When programs are run, they are stored in RAM along with any associated
document; the more RAM, the more tasks that can be run simultaneously and the
larger a document can be. Typical requirements are in the range of 32—128
megabytes, which will run most current office software. RAM is usually available
on small circuit boards called a single inline memory module (SIMM) in units of 4,
8, 16, and 32 megabytes that plug into memory expansion slots on the system
board.
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3. Read-only memory (ROM) refers to computer memory chips that
contain the permanent operating instructions. This memory is a permanent feature
of the chip and can be only read— not written to.
4. Bus is a parallel pathway for the transmission of information between
parts of the computer, especially the CPU and support circuits, memory, and
expansion cards. Bus speed has a major impact on the overall speed of the
computer and is governeLI by both the system clock and the data path (number of
bits that can be carried at one time).
5. Expansion slots are connectors on the system board that can hold
expansion cards. These cards are printed circuits and add increased functionality
to the computer. Expansion slots are
often designated by their architecture as PCI or ISA.
6. The power supply converts line voltage to the DC voltages required by
the computer.
3. List and describe typical expansion cards.
1. Modem/ fax card— allows receiving and sending faxes directly from a
word processor or other programs. The modem allows dial-up connections to
other computers and networks.
2. Video accelerator card— converts computer signals into signals that a
computer monitor can display. Video RAM is the memory of an expansion card
that affects the speed of the display, the number of colors that can be seen (from
256 to millions), and the resolution (how fine the detail is on the screen measured
in pixels across and down). Typical cards have 4—8 megabytes of video RAM.
3. Sound card— allows sound input and output. Cards can record and play
back digital audio and usually have a musical instrument digital interface (MIDI)
synthesizer to play MIDI files.
4. Network cards— connect a computer to the cables of a network and
transmit the type of signal used throughout the network (e.g., Ethernet card).
5. Controller cards— let devices such as disk drives communicate with the
computer.
4. What are the major specifications of the computer monitor?
A computer monitor is the display screen connected to the video-out port of
the computer. Computer monitors receive digital signals from the computer,
whereas the television monitor receives analog composite video signals. The
digital signals provide more detail than possible in a TV receiver. These signals can
be modified for display on a TV monitor, although considerable detail is lost.
Sharpness and resolution rate are monitor quality. The sharpness or fine detail is
expressed as dot pitch (the space between pixels— the smallest element that a
computer can address on a screen) and has typical values of 0.26—0.28 for a
high-quality monitor. Resolution is measured as pixels across, pixels down, and
the number of colors. A standard resolution of 800 x 600 is acceptable quality.
Screen sizes range from 9—21 inches, depending on the use and location of the
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monitor. For viewing by several people at once, a 17— 21-inch monitor is
appropriate, whereas for data input in a treatment room a 12-inch monitor may be
adequate. It is best to get the largest monitor possible for the available space to
minimize eye fatigue and enhance resolution, particularly for graphics.
5. What are the common input devices?
The basic input device is a keyboard, but the mouse, light pen, and touch
pad are common additions. Special devices (see question 25) are digital x-rays,
microphones, video and digital cameras, scanners, and electronic periodontal
probes.
1. The Iceyboard is the most common input device. UNIX systems and DOS
systems depend primarily on the keyboard for input, whereas Mac and Windows
systems require a mouse.
2. The mouse allows a user to move an arrow around the screen and to
perform tasks by clicking the mouse button when the arrow is on the proper
portion of the screen. The mouse buttons can be used in several ways (e.g., single
clicks, double clicks, click and drag). Consult the software for the different actions
in each case. A traclcball is like an inverted mouse. The ball is rotated, whereas
the mouse is slid over a surface.
3. Light pens are becoming more popular input devices. These penlike
instruments allow the user to touch the screen instead of moving a mouse arrow
to the correct part of the screen. A light pen allows faster input than the mouse
arrow.
4. A touch pad is built in to some keyboards. It is a pressure sensitive pad
that records the arrow position by detecting changes in its capacitance as the
finger moves across the surface. It replaces the mouse.
6. What are the common storage devices?
Storage devices include any device that can store data. They are commonly
hard drives, floppy drives, CD-ROM drives, or tape drives. They may be internal or
externally connected through cables and used as sources of data or for backup.
1. Hard drives may be internal or external and have fixed or removable
media. They are much faster than floppy drives and have much higher storage
capacities, ranging from several hundred megabytes to over 12 gigabytes (1
gigabyte = 1000 megabytes). The storage medium is one or more aluminum disks
with magnetizable coatings sealed in a dust-proof housing. There are two common
types of hard disks: small computer system interface (SCSI) and expanded
integrated device interface (EIDI). The former is faster at accessing data. Hard
disks store all of the application software as well as all of the data files produced
by any program or downloaded from other computers.
2. Floppy drives make use of a small 3.5-inch disk protected by a hard
case. Their capacity is 1.4 megabytes of data, and they are useful for copying
individual files for quick backup or transfer between computers.
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3. CD-ROM (compact disk— read-only memory) drives are are much slower
than a conventional hard disk, but they can be randomly selected like any hard
disk. With a storage capacity of 650 megabytes, a CD-ROM disk can contain entire
reference books or libraries (such as the Physicians' Desk Reference) as on-line
data. The newest units can record once to CDs (CD-R) or rewrite multiple times to
CDs (CD-RW).
4. DVD-ROM (digital Versatile disk— read-only memory) is the newest disk
technology. Not yet widely available, it may replace conventional CD-ROM drives.
The major advantages are storage capacity (4—16 gigabytes), backward CD-ROM
compatibility, and unequaled fidelity. DVD-ROM promises to be better than
laserdisc video with multichannel sound far better than current audio CD.
5. Tape drives use media similar to audiocassette tape and can record
large amounts of data rapidly but are much slower in retrieval because tape can
be searched only sequentially from beginning to end.
7. What are the most common peripheral devices?
A peripheral device is any device connected to a computer via cables, such
as printers, modems, scanners, CD-ROM drives, cameras, audio speakers, and
microphones.
8. What are Serial , Parallel, USB, and PCMCIA Ports?
Serial ports are connections through which data passes one bit at a time.
Often used for modems, they are designated as COM 1, COM2, and so on, in IBM-
compatible computers. They are more reliable than parallel ports over long
distances.
Parallel ports transmit data several bits at a time. An 8-bit connection
passes packets of 8 bits of data simultaneously. Parallel ports, designated as LPTI,
LPT2, and so on, are faster than serial ports over shorter distances and are
typically used for printers in IBM-compatible systems. Mac systems do not use
parallel ports for Mac applications.
USB ports (Universal Serial Bus) are external ports that will allow a single
port to be used to connect up to 127 peripheral devices while supporting
automatic configuration and changing devices without turning off power. It is
anticipated that they will replace conventional serial and parallel ports.
PCMCIA ports and slots (Personal Computer Memory Card International
Association) are external connectors found on compact computer notebooks,
digital cameras, and hand-held computers that allow connection of peripheral
devices. Classified as Type I (for adding RAM or ROM), Type II (for modern/fax
devices), and Type III (for portable disk drives).
9. How are computers connected to each other?
Computers are connected either directly with cables or indirectly via
modems. Connecting appropriate cables between the expansion cards (e.g..
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Ethernet) of the computers makes direct connections. Computers connected in this
way must run a networl<ing software program such as NetWare by Novell.
Usually one computer is designated as the server and contains the data files
accessed by other computers, called clients or workstations. Any changes to data
are saved to the server so that all workstations have access to the same data at
all times. For a single facility this is a local area network (LAN). Facilities
connected over a large area, perhaps several buildings, form a wide area network
(WAN) and require more sophisticated cabling.
10. What is a modem?
A modem is a device for connecting a computer to the telephone system.
The modem modulates the computer's signals so that they can be transmitted in
the same way as analog telephone signals over conventional phone lines and
demodulates the incoming analog signals so that the computer can interpret them.
Modem speed is measured in bauds, or the number of voltage transitions per
second (currently limited by telephone lines to 2400), although the actual
transmission rate, bits per second (bps), can be much higher because of data
compression. Fiberoptic cables, when universally available, will allow an enormous
increase in transmission speeds. Typical transfer rates of current dial-up modems
are 33.6 K— 56 K bps.
11. How are data stored and protected?
Data are stored most commonly on a computer's hard disk. In a networked
system, the hard disk may be on the server. Protecting data implies copying files
or backing-up onto safe storage media and should be performed as often as data
are changed— usually daily in the dental office.
12. What are the common backup methods?
1. Tape drives. Tape systems are fast, reliable, and relatively inexpensive
and have high capacity. The tape cassette, similar in appearance to audiotape, is
inserted into a tape drive often mounted directly in the computer case. Using a
different tape for each day is the safest practice. Thus, for the average office that
backs up once per day, six tapes should be sufficient. The tape backup should be
kept off site overnight for additional safety.
2. Removable drives. Zip, Jazz, and Syquest drives are basically hard
drives that use removable media. Although not much larger than conventional
floppies, they have high capacities. The Zip Drive has 100 megabytes per cartridge
and the Jazz and Syquest have over 1 gigabyte per cartridge. They are fast and
often can be used as a temporary hard drive in the event that the system's
internal drive is faulty. They should be taken off site overnight for safekeeping.
3. Optical drive. Optical drives are similar to CD-ROM drives but can also
be written upon. They have enormous capacity but are too slow to be practical for
daily backups. The optical drive is suitable for true archiving, however. The other
storage media can degrade over time, especially tape. For that reason current
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backups must be done on a daily basis, rotating the tapes or cartridges so that
they are always current.
13. Describe the common devices that protect against power
fluctuations.
Slight voltage fluctuations occur frequently and may have a harmful effect
on data files.
1. Surge protectors are inexpensive devices that filter small-to-medium
voltage surges; however, they do not protect against voltage drops.
2. Baclcup power supplies protect against both major voltage surges and
drops and are an excellent investment, at least for the main server. These devices
instantly switch to alternative power if there is an electrical drop or complete
failure, allowing several minutes of backup power to turn the computer off safely.
Higher-capacity systems have enough reserve power to allow backing up of files
before shutdown.
3. Antistatic mats are available both for the floor and under the keyboard
to reduce the possibility of a static discharge to the keyboard. This problem is
particularly significant in the winter and may corrupt data, cause keyboard freezes,
or actually crash a system.
14. Describe the types of printers and their specifications.
Printer types are laser, Inkjet, and dot matrix. The right choice depends
on the job to be done; several different types may be necessary for the typical
dental facility. Printers are used among other things, for schedules, patient
statements, receipts, correspondence, reports, insurance forms, various lists,
newsletters, patient information notices, and photographs. Typical resolutions are
from 300 x 30 dots per inch (dpi) for noncritical printing to 12 x 1200 dpi for
photo-quality images. Networked printers are shared by several workstations,
whereas local printers are connected to each individual workstation and accept
print jobs only from that station. The capabilities of the different types of printers
vary significantly (see table below).
Laser printers generally produce the best-looking output. Although the
most expensive, they are cost-effective on a per-page basis. The ink cartridges
can process thousand,s of pages before needing a refill. They are capable of high-
speed output. They cannot be used o print multipart forms but can print data as
well as the forms themselves on plain paper. Color-laser printers are available at a
much higher cost.
Inkjet printers produce good-looking output at lower initial cost than
lasers. They are generally slower, and the replacement inks are more costly over
time. Nevertheless, for personal use as a local printer for occasional
correspondence, they may be the best choice. They cannot be used for multipart
forms. The relatively costly replacement cartridges make these printers less
suitable for high-volume use. Recently significant advances in color output from
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several Inkjet printer models have rivaled the color laser printers at a small
fraction of the cost. They can be used for color prints of captured video images in
the dental setting.
Dot matrix printers were once the standard computer printer but are
being replaced by Inkjet and laser printers. They are the least costly, vary in speed
from moderate to very fast, and may be fairly noisy. However, they are the only
devices that will print multipart forms. The output quality of the lower-priced units
is only fair for correspondence but quite adequate for reports and insurance
forms.
15. Wliat is an operating system?
An operating system, or platform, is the underlying software that the
computer uses to govern such elements as hard disk access, floppy drives, video
display, and interaction with peripheral devices such as keyboards, CD-ROMs, and
printers.
1. Windows 95 is perhaps the most commonly found platform for DMIS
software. Relying on a mouse, it can provide multiple workstations via networking
software. There is probably more software available for this platform than any
other.
2. Windows/ NT is a more robust platform for networked computers. It can
accommodate a greater variety of CPUs, such as PowerPC, MIPS, and DEC Alpha-
based RISC systems. It is most practical in installations with more than 10
workstations.
3. I^lac OS is the original mouse-based operating system. It allows easy and
predictable connection of peripheral devices. Printers and other peripherals need
Mac cables to operate with the Mac.
4. UNIX is the most widely used system in larger corporations with wide-
ranging networks. The UNIX system has been evolving over the past 25 years and
is the primary system used by major airlines, department stores, catalog houses,
and other companies needing a wide range of networked computers. The
operating system provides much more secure data protection and networking
without reliance on extra networking software. It also allows workstations to be
"dumb" terminals rather than independent computers, a much more economical
hardware requirement thaii systems.
5. DOS systems are IBM-compatible, menu-driven, and similar in
appearance to UNIX systems. The DOS systems, however, require networking
software to allow multiple workstations, each of which must be a computer.
Although some may find the screens less esthetic, the systems are stable and
have been around for many years.
The choice of DMIS often determines the hardware configuration that is
required because most operate under only one operating system. The quality and
reliability are equal, and remote access to most any office system can be
accomplished in most cases by either Mac-compatible or IBM-compatible
computers with appropriate communications software.
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Coffin S: Unix: The Complete Reference. New Yorl<, Osborne JVJcGraw-Hiii, c. 1988, pp 1—17.
16. What is the difference between a graphical and menu interface?
Graphical user interface (GUI). A GUI is a way for people to
communicate with a computer using grapliics and a mouse instead of a menu and
text commands. I^ost functions are performed by mal<ing selections with a mouse
from drop-down menus or icons representing different system functions. A well-
designed system is intuitive and rapidly learned. The screens are visually
attractive, and frequently one can figure out what to do without consulting a
manual. The downside is that one has to move the mouse and click, a process
that puts a physical limit on the speed of use. In addition, one often must switch
between the mouse and the keyboard during data entry. Most Windows 95,
Windows/NT, and Mac systems are mouse-based.
Menu-driven interface. Menu systems typically are found on DOS and
UNIX systems. They are much less intuitive, requiring the user to select choices
from menus and to learn shortcut key combinations (function, control, option, alt)
to accomplish various tasks. Their advantage is that once the commands are
learned, most users find that they are much faster to operate. There is no
switching back and forth from the keyboard, and the user can work just as fast as
he or she can type. The screens sometimes are not as esthetic, often having a
more functional appearance.
SELECTING A COMPUTER SYSTEM
17. What are the major considerations for a computer system
purchase?
Software is the first and most important choice. A careful analysis of the
facility must be made to help in choosing the correct system. Factors to consider:
• Practice size. Are there multiple office sites to be networked? How many
providers?
• Practice type. Hospital- or health center-based, group practice, specialty,
or solo practice?
• Practice model. Fee for service, HMO, PPO, capitation?
• Desired features. Clinical workstations that provide charting, imaging
capturing, and digital x-rays; electronic claims processing; dial-up network
connection?
Hardware. The software determines most of the hardware requirements,
but certain other factors may have an effect on hardware choices:
• How many workstations will be used?
• How many clinical operators will the system have to support?
• What is the annual volume of treatment performed?
• How far apart are the workstations?
• Will remote access be required?
• Will video storage be required?
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18. What are the elements of a good DMI S?
Although the following criteria are desirable features for any DMIS, this list
is not complete— nor will everything be available or implemented in exactly this
fashion in every system.
• Easy patient registration with capability for recording demographic, health,
clinical, and social information
• Comprehensive transaction and payment processing with integrated credit
card billing
• Appointment scheduling procedures and recall systems
• Development of comprehensive treatment planning, insurance and
copayments tracking, and tracking of case completion
• Comprehensive insurance claims processing with provision for electronic
claims submission
• Comprehensive report generation of practice data in user-definable
formats
• Tracking of referrals and merging of data with form letters
• Laboratory case tracking and inventory control
• Integration of video and digital x-ray information with patient records
• Easy merging of data with word-processing files
• Office payroll management
• Modular expansion and easy upgrading
19. What is a turnkey software application?
There are basically two types of software systems: turnkey systems, which
attempt to provide all of the necessary functions of a DMIS, and modular systems,
which allow the addition of functions as the needs demand. Dentrix, Softdent, and
PracticeWorks are examples of popular turnkey systems. Modular systems depend
on the interaction with commercially software to provide the desirable functions of
a DMIS. This approach saves initial software cost but requires learning several
different programs.
20. What are the major guidelines for choosing a software vendor?
• How long has the company been in business?
• How long has the software been in use?
• How many installations are there?
• Can it integrate with commercial software?
• Is technical support responsive? How long is the response time?
• Does the vendor offer installation, training, and data conversion?
• How often are updates provided, and will the vendor make changes on an
individual basis?
• Will the vendor supply a list of current users?
• Are service contracts available?
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THE COMPUTER AS A DENTAL MANAGEMENT INFORMATION SYSTEM
21. How can a DMI S benefit a dental practice?
• Daily office management • Quality assurance management
• Business planning resource • Risk management assessment
• Chairside clinical support system • Research tool for clinical studies
22. IHow can a computer lielp in daily office management?
1. Scheduling and appointment control. The appointment book is the
heart of any dental office. With a computer, it is always accurate, legible, and
easily modified. Appointments can be made at chairside, which means less
transfer of information to the front desk and much faster patient processing.
Appropriate appointments can be searched and offered, satisfying criteria such as
operator, length of appointment, time or day of the week, and treatment. The
computer can also display medical history data that help to ensure proper
treatment and scheduling. The daily schedule printout for each treatment area can
display the same data. Special circumstances can be flagged, such as overdue
balances, premedication needs, and allergies.
2. Recall. An effective recall is essential for the welfare of both the office
and the patient. By computerizing the recall data, one can tell when patients are
due and generate reports, lists, or mailing labels for preprinted reminder cards.
This process can be done automatically each month or at any chosen interval. It is
much less likely that patients will be lost to a computerized recall system.
3. Laboratory control. Laboratory cases can be tracked and coordinated
with the scheduling program to create alerts for the staff to be sure that reports
are back when needed. These alerts can appear on the schedule or screen,
depending on the software.
4. Inventory control and equipment maintenance. Inventory
databases offer many advantages. One has immediate and accurate information
about what materials are on hand, when to reorder, name of supplier, phone
number, and best price. Cost savings can be substantial when one orders on a
timely basis, eliminating unnecessary inventory. Reports of consumable usage and
equipment maintenance are readily available. Many supply houses even allow
electronic ordering and provide updated product information databases. Complete
repair logs can be maintained so that timely service intervals are performed and
cost analyses are available.
5. I nsurance processing. Computer systems, besides ensuring that data
are complete and legible, allow electronic submission of insurance claims. The
American Dental Association (ADA) has established the Electronics Commerce
Company (ECCO), which has contracts with NEIC as the clearinghouse and Trojan
Professional Services for software support. The ECCo does not interfere with any
state-sponsored clearinghouses. Submission is done via modem to the
clearinghouse, which inspects for completeness of data and forwards the claims to
the carrier. If the data are incomplete or incorrect, they are returned for correction
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before being forwarded. Turnaround time is said to be much faster than with
paper submission. The office also saves time because submission can be
scheduled after office hours when the computer is idle and no paper handling is
required. Postage savings can be substantial and should be considered in
evaluating the costs of electronic claims submission.
6. Accounts payable and receivable. Simplified bookkeeping applications
such as Quicken or Quickbooks provide efficient and organized records of all
expenses. They are customizable by the user and integrate into most popular
DMIS software. They also allow full electronic banking and detailed reports for
year-end accounting. Computerized patient billing allows aged reporting, addition
of installment billing, collated insurance and patient balances, inclusion of
messages for patient communication, and programmed cycle billing.
7. Payroll. Payroll can be processed swiftly with software that calculates all
federal, PICA, and state deductions and prints employee checks automatically.
This software may be a commercial product or, if integrated with the DMIS,
password-protected so that only certain personnel have access. These applications
typically can keep track of vacation times as well as create W-2 forms for
employees.
8. Marketing. Communication with patients and colleagues can provide an
effective means of internal marketing. Patients' birthdays can be acknowledged,
referring patients and doctors thanked, and newsletters produced with targeted
mail-merging from the system database. In-office patient education can be offered
using CD-ROM software in the waiting or consultation room. The interactivity
between computer and patient enhances the exposure process compared with
more passive videotapes.
23. How can a computer function as an analytical tool for practice
analysis and business planning?
As an analytical tool the computer is unsurpassed. The DMIS software builds
databases in a variety of categories:
1. Registration data (e.g., name, address, phone numbers, date of birth,
insurance plans. Social Security number)
2. Patient medical history data (e.g., all significant positive elements,
medications)
3. Production data by category (e.g., provider, ADA code, insurance plan)
4. Laboratory fee data by laboratory, patient, and provider
5. Inventory usage data
6. Equipment maintenance logs
By allowing rapid retrieval of data in a meaningful way, the computer helps
with management decisions, business planning, and quality assurance
assessments and analyzes treatment outcomes and morbidity. Often a report can
be generated by category or key word searching to allow solving a variety of
interesting problems. Consider answering the following questions:
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• How should a fee schedule be adjusted to account for a 5% increase in
laboratory costs and a 7.5% increase in consumables? How will this affect net
production?
• How many patients have insurance plan B? What is the income from this
group? What would be the impact on production figures if they left the practice?
• How does the productivity of each practice hygienist compare? How
should their fees be adjusted to allow a 7.5% salary increase?
• What is the cancellation (broken appointment) rate for each of the
operators? What time of day has the highest rates?
Such data are difficult and time-consuming to retrieve and calculate
manually. If the DMIS is properly designed, such data are retrievable at will, with
no extra effort, because the relevant data are entered routinely for every patient
and continually updated. Projections can be easily made by applying the data
received to a spreadsheet analysis.
24. What are the common chairside applications of a DtA\ S?
The clinical workstation concept places computer terminals in each
operatory area. Current applications allow a host of tasks to be processed
chairside:
1. Clinical charting. Several charting programs (SoftChart and Chart It)
are available for both Mac and PC platforms. Data relating to existing conditions,
both hard and soft tissue, and necessary treatments can be input. Some
applications (Voice Pilot, Kurzweil Voice Pad) allow voice recognition, thus
permitting hands-free recording. Periodontal probing also can be recorded
electronically with a special probe providing a graphic printout of all periodontal
measurements. Complete medical histories, clinical photographs, and digital x-rays
can be stored as part of the patient record and recalled any time the patient
record is accessed.
2. I mage capturing. Intraoral cameras and digital cameras can be used as
input devices to allow clinicians and patients to observe oral conditions. Still
images can be selected and modified on a monitor to illustrate possible treatment
outcomes and enhance case presentations. Images can be saved to the hard disk
or printed in color for a patient to take home or to accompany an insurance claim
form.
3. Digital x-rays. Several systems (Trojan, Schick) currently available use
up to 50% lower doses of x-radiation to provide an image. A special sensor is
used in place of film; it is computer-enhanced to produce a visible image on a
computer monitor. The advantages are speed, a modifiable image to emphasize
different conditions, easy storage, and environmental reduction of chemical waste.
The resolution of the image is not quite equal to conventional film, but it is still
highly useful for emergencies and endodontic verification films. The image can be
printed or transmitted electronically to insurance carriers as well as stored as part
of a patient record.
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25. What special input devices are of dental interest?
1. Periodontal probe. There are several manufacturers of electronic
periodontal probes. An electronic probe is inserted into a pocket and, when
activated, measures each pocket depth by applying a predetermined force to
ensure consistent readings. Data are transmitted automatically to the computer
program, and a record is made of all readings. Reports can be printed out
graphically or viewed on the screen as part of the patient chart.
2. Microphone headsets. Voice recognition software is becoming more
and more reliable so that commands can be executed and text recorded verbally
rather than by more traditional methods.
3. CAD-CAM software is available to produce indirect restorations in one
visit. Computer-driven milling machines can carve restorations from ceramic blocks
with marginal adaptation rivaling traditional casting methods. One such device
duplicates internal and external contours of a wax pattern to produce a chairside
restoration. Another system uses an optical impression to carve the tissue side of
a restoration. External contours are produced using more traditional means, either
in the mouth or on a die. The ceramic material has none of the stresses caused by
traditional heat firing and is therefore claimed to be more durable.
4. T-scan is a device for precisely measuring all of the occlusal contacts of
natural and artificial dentitions. It can record the exact order, velocity, and force of
each contact and display the data on a computer system running Windows. It uses
the parallel port of any computer, according to the manufacturer.
26. How can a computer help in clinical consulting?
This relatively new application for dentistry has been used in medicine for
several years. Through a modem connection to another clinical facility one can
transmit data and images that can be seen by a consultant. If a video camera is
connected to the computers as well, true realtime video conferencing is possible.
The benefits for the patient and doctor are obvious.
27. How can a computer be helpful in clinical diagnosis?
Expert systems are software applications that provide a logical process for
establishment of a differential and clinical diagnosis. Using data supplied by a
clinician in a carefully ordered sequence, the system analyzes the data, branching
to the appropriate next series of questions until a differential diagnosis can be
established and, eventually, a most likely diagnosis with an estimated percentage
of reliability. Once a diagnosis has been established, treatment recommendations
can be offered with consideration for the patient's medical history and clinical
status. In addition, the computer can provide access to the Internet, giving nearly
unlimited access to research material worldwide.
28. How can a DMI S improve quality assurance?
An analysis of key subject themes can be addressed by organized database
reports. Using category and key word searching, patients can be selected by
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topics of interest. For example, in a review of compliance with office protocol for
patients with a medical hi of heart murmur, one may find all patients in this group,
determine the percent that received follow-up letters to their physicians about the
need for prophylactic coverage, and evaluate the percent that received
premedication. Such timely evaluations can greatly enhance quality assurance
studies. Another example is the frequency of full-mouth and bitewing x-ray exams
based on clinical diagnosis, age group, or other clinical variables.
29. How can risk management analysis improve with a DIA\ S?
A computer database can provide easy reporting of adverse events and thus
help to collate types of events, methods of resolution, and analysis outcomes.
Such reports may help to identify opportunities to prevent future events and thus
improve the quality of care.
30. IHow can the DIA\ S benefit in clinical research studies?
As years of clinical procedures accumulate in a practice database,
interesting analysis can be performed to shed light on treatment outcomes and
product performance, incidence of disease, and other clinical inquiries. Consider
answering the following questions:
• What is the length of service in this practice of full-coverage crowns,
indirect porcelain onlays, posterior composite restorations vs. amalgams?
• How does postoperative sensitivity compare using zinc phosphate cement
vs. resin-modified glassionomer cement?
• What types of complications arise after implant placement? How does
Branemark compare with other manufacturers?
DENTISTRY AND THE INTERNET
31. What components are needed to create a network?
The basic components are cables, an adapter card for each computer, and
the networking software installed on both servers and clients. Networks can be
made up of more than one type of computer: Mac, PC, or UNIX.
32. What hardware is needed to connect to a network?
A network expansion card (built into most Macs) and appropriate cables.
The network software running on all computers allows the transmission of the
signals used on the network. Representative cards are Ethernet, Token Ring, or
NetWare.
33. What is the I nternet?
Any two networks connected together is technically an internet. The real
Internet, often called the Information Super Highway, is a worldwide network that
links thousands of other computer networks at universities, business corporations,
government agencies, and organizations, enabling the exchange of information in
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the form of text, sound files, video images, and application programs among
users. The "highway" metaphor is quite accurate in that the Internet is a two-way
path for digital signals to travel between countries, states, cities and towns, and
eventually to individual computers in all types of facilities. Anyone with the
appropriate hardware and software utilities may tap into the Internet and
participate in cyberspace.
34. How are I nternet networks connected?
The large regional and national networks are connected physically by
fiberoptic cables and microwave links called Ti and T3 digital carriers. These
connections are able to carry digital signals at 1.54 and 44.74 megabits per
second, respectively. This backbone is operated by American Network Services.
Everyone else is connected to the central core by various connections of different
speeds. The respective users typically lease the lines from local carriers such as
Bell Atlantic, AT&T, or MCI.
35. How did the I nternet start?
In the 1960s, under an initiative of the U.S: Defense Department, the
Advanced Research Projects Agency (ARPA) network was conceived to allow
military and scientific information transfers through universities. This first network
involved four sites, the University of California at Los Angeles, the University of
California at Santa Barbara, the University of Utah, and Stanford University, which
were able to unite their computers with special telephone lines at speeds of
56,000 bps. By 1980, over 200 computers were connected, and in 1986 the
National Science Foundation (NSF) assumed operation of this transmission
backbone at speeds 1.54 M bps. The NSF fostered rapid university connectivity. By
1988 this NSF network became known as the Internet. Eventually other users
were allowed to connect to the 1.54 M-bps transmission backbone, and by 1994
there were over 2.2 million available servers on the Internet. Today the Internet
backbone runs at nearly 45 M baud and is administered by the North American
Network Operators Group (NANOG). The National Research and Educational
Network (NREN) project is developing a transmission line capable of 622 M baud,
and technology exists for fiberoptic lines to operate at nearly 2.4 billion bps.
36. Define the following terms:
1. Bit— the smallest unit in computer functions; a binary digit, or 1.
Electrically this is a transition from +5 to —5 volts in a transistor circuit or a
change in the polarity of a point on a magnetic disk.
2. Byte— 8 bits; the basic unit of information storage in a computer. One
letter of the alphabet in program code (ASCII) takes one byte.
3. Band width— a measure of how much electric signal information a cable
can carry. Band width = data path x frequency. Thus a typical computer bus
connector (electric conduit or ISA bus) that sends 16 bits at a time and operates
at 9.33 MHz has a band width of 133.28 megabits per second.
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4. MB— megabyte; a million bytes and a unit of memory and data storage
size. Two issues of Scienafic American equal about 1 1MB.
5. Mb— megabit; one million bits.
6. Router— an electronic switching box that can connect two or more
networks. A router is like a railroad switching yard where information packets
come in from one network and are handed off to another. Packets range in size
from 100—1000 bytes each, and millions of packets can be shipped at any
moment. Routers can be either software or hardware implementations.
7. Gateway— software or hardware that enables networks of different
protocols to communicate with each other.
8. I SDN line— a fiberoptic telephone line capable of transmission speeds of
up to 128,000 bps. A special ISDN modem is needed to use this connection. It
refers actualty Integrated Services Digital Network, which enables multiple
services on the same line (i.e., telephone, television, and computers).
9. Internet service provider (ISP)— a commercial provider of Internet
access. It allows dial-up connection via modem or with direct router connections
for LANs. A national provider, such as NetCom, MCI, or AT&T, allows connection
with a laptop even when traveling because of the multiple local access numbers to
log onto your account.
10. Commercial on-line service— America Online, CompuServe, and
Prodigy offer a wealth of information and communication options with one
connection: e-mail, newspapers, chat groups, shopping, and complete Internet
access. They are probably the easiest way to access the information on the
Internet.
11. Modem connection— most single users or small offices connect via a
modem to a local telephone line to an ISP, or commercial on-line service. If
greater speed is required, an ISDN phone line may be leased from the phone
company. These are termed dial-up services.
12. Cable modem— although not available in all areas, television cable
companies now offer direct connection to the Internet via the same cable used for
their television service. Because the connection is always on, there is no need to
dial up.
13. Service provider connection— larger LANs connect via a router to the
ISP, which then connects to the Internet.
14. Direct connection— large companies, universities, and hospitals with
heavy usage lease Ti or T3 lines from the phone companies for direct connections.
15. PC satellite— newly introduced competitor to cable modems; small
satellite dishes that access the Internet through a satellite ISP. They offer speeds
up to 400 bps and may be suitable for some sites without cable access. All
downloads (Internet to computer) occur via the satellite, whereas uploads (from
computer to the Internet) are still by modem.
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Relative Transmission Speeds
Standard modem 56 K bps
PC satellite 400 K bps
ISDN line modem 128 K bps
Frame relay router 784 K bps
Tl router 1.5 M bps
Cable modem 3—10 M bps
T3 route 45 M bps
37. What types of information are found on computer servers
connected to the I nternet?
The Intertiet is the transmission line for information stored on computers
around the world. The major categories of these servers are as follows:
• Electronic mail— servers that send and receive e-mail.
• Telnet— servers that allow your computer to log onto another computer
and use it as though you were at that computer.
• File transfer protocol (FTP)— servers that allow your computer to
retrieve files from a remote computer and view or save them on your computer's
hard disk.
• Gopher— servers with a text-only method for gaining access to Internet
documents. Although largely supplanted by the Web, this was the vast storage
site for Internet informa tion for the past 20 years.
• World Wide Web— servers that have text, graphics, sound, and links to
other documents within their pages or to other websites. This is the fastest
growing Internet service, approximately doubling in size every 2 months.
Documents on the Web feature hypertext, which is the ability to link highlighted
text to other documents and sites worldwide. The Web also includes access to
much of the material on gopher, telnet, FTP, and e-mail.
• Listserv and Usenet— servers that deliver forum discussion groups on
over 20,000 topics via e-mail and the Web, respectively.
38. How do individual servers communicate on the I nternet?
The servers respond to a specific set of communication rules or protocols,
known as the Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP), that
determine how the data packets are sent. This protocol is built into all computer
software for Internet communication.
39. How are individual servers and locations found?
Two kinds of addresses locate all computers on the Internet: IP addresses
and domain names. Each computer on a network has a unique IP address in the
form of numbers separated by dots; for example, 140.147.2.12 is the IP address
for the Library of Congress. This number is read primarily by computers and is
composed of 4 octets totalling 32 bits. It functions like a telephone number to
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identify a region, networl<, and server computer. A more manageable address
scheme is the domain name system (DNS).
40. How does the DNS work?
A domain name is a unique address that parallels the IP address. Computers
called "name-servers" match or translate domain names into IP addresses and
establish connections. Domain names are organized into hierarchies describing the
country of the network, what kind of organization owns it, and other information.
A domain name has a number of geographical and nongeographical categories
and is usually read right to left and separated by dots. Thus, rubens.anu.edu.au is
the name of a computer in Australia (geographically based domain is .au) in the
educational category (.edu) at the Australian National University (anu) and on the
computer named "rubens." The domain name bics.bwh.harvard.edu is the server
at Harvard University (harvard.edu) for Brigham and Women's Hospital (bwh) and
the computer named "bics."
There are presently six top-level domain categories:
.com— a commercial user .gov— a government user
.org— an organization, often nonprofit .mil— military user
.edu— an educational institution .net— a network
In addition, two-letter geographical domain designations are appended to
the name. Because the system began in the United States, it is common to omit
the .us for U.S-based names. Other country designations include:
.uk— United Kingdom .fr— France .it— Italy
.ca— Canada .jp— Japan .su— Sweden
.ae— United Arab Emirates .de— Germany .ar— Argentina
All domain names worldwide are registered by InterNiC
(http://dsl.internic.net), run by Network Services of Henderson, Virginia. If a name
is not already in the database, a new domain name application may be registered
for 2 years for $100. The rate of new registrations is over 85,000 per month.
41. What is the enhanced domain name system?
As of April 1, 1997, seven new categories were created by the International
Ad Hoc Committee (lAHC) to meet the demand for more domain names.
Applications to register new names and their distribution will be made by eDNS
(http://www.edns.com). The new categories are as follows:
.firm— businesses or firms
.store— businesses offering goods to purchase
.web— entities emphasizing activities related to the WWW
.arts— entities emphasizing cultural and entertainment activities .info-
entities providing information services
.rec—recreationlentertainment activities
.nom— those wishing personal or individual nomenclature
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42. How can one create a domain name?
Any name not exceeding 24 characters of letters, numbers, and the
dash(— ) is valid as long as it is not already registered. Registration is made to one
of the preceding administrators. The owner of a domain name may make
subdomains separated by dots (.). Subdomains give greater flexibility to create
variations to any domain name base. Imagine the possibilities:
clean.perio.com
straight.ortho.com
file.endo.com
43. What is a URL?
Each server or computer document has a unique address called a uniform
resource locator (URL). Thus, to get to a specific site, one simply enters a URL
into the software program (Browser) to initiate the connection. The URL has
imbedded in it a domain name that will identify the computer, server, and network
designated in the address and also the Internet tool used to read that document.
Using a URL greatly simplifies locating documents via the Internet, because
complicated numbers and addresses are grouped into one path statement.
44. Define the elements in the following URL: http://www.ada.org
1. The first part of the URL (http://) defines the Internet protocol or tool
used to read the document. In this case, it is a document in Hypertext transfer
protocol, unique to the World Wide Web. Other server protocols appear as fttp:!/
(file transfer protocol), gopher:!! (Gopher transfer protocol), or news:!! (Network
News tran protocol used to browse through a newsgroup).
2. The information following the double forward slashes indicates the name
of the server on the Internet to which you are connecting— in this example, the
American Dental Association server on the World Wide Web (www). The server
computer is recognized with a domain name and identifying category; thus we
have ada.org.
3. The slash following the domain identifier indicates a specific file,
directory, or path on that computer server. In this example, we are looking in a
file or directory called lib. Many directory names may be listed, separated by
slashes.
4. The end of the URL (amalgam.html) is the name of the document
itself. The html extension identifies the type of document; in this example, it is in
hypertext. This particular URL finds a document at the American Dental
Association on the safety of amalgam.
45. What is the World Wide Web? What software is necessary to begin
using this I nternet service?
The World Wide Web (WWW) is the name of a body of information on the
Internet that incorporates Gopher, FTP, Telnet, and e-mail. It allows viewing of
images, text, sound, and video and functions using Hypertext Markup Language
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(HTML), a set of computer code and formatting instructions for viewing the
content of documents. These documents are often called web pages, HTML pages,
websites, or home pages. Because of Hypertext, words or phrases are highlighted,
allowing the user to move from one document or site to another intuitively; as
such, pages are termed "linked." Each of these pages and links is uniquely
identified by a URL. To view these pages on a computer screen, one uses a
software application called a browser. These programs allow WWW information
written in HTML to be properly displayed on a computer screen. Netscape and
Internet Explorer are the two most popular graphics browsers. Lynx is a WWW
browser that allows access to all of the text on the Web but not to sound or
images.
46. How is e-mail used?
Electronic mail (e-mail) is probably the most used tool of the Internet. With
the software integrated into all on-line service providers' proprietary software or
that embodied into operating systems (e.g., Microsoft Exchange, Outlook in
Windows 95), sending a text document from a word processor is but a click away.
Similarly, receiving mail from anywhere in the world is possible. Furthermore, one
may attach files to any e-mail text. Thus photo images, voice, and audio as well as
large information packages may be sent. The format for an e-mail address is
generally someone@somewhere Thus, to reach the authors of this chapter, you
may send mail to evfeldbau@bics.bwh.harvard.com or hwaxman@edgenet.net.
Similarly, one may send a batch file of insurance claims to an electronic processor
or a set of digital radiographs to a consultant for a second opinion. Privacy cannot
be assured because your electronic package is traveling on many networked
computers.
47. What is a mailing list? How does one subscribe?
One also may use e-mail to access mailing lists (reflectors), which are
special e-mail addresses that redistribute mail to people who have subscribed to a
specific discussion group or topic. When one sends mail to the list, it is
redistributed via e-mail to all of the list's subscribers. There are literally thousands
of free mailing lists on as many topics. One of the most popular e-mail reflectors is
Listserv. By subscribing to a list, one receives e-mail written by other subscribers
on the chosen topic. Often an individual administrator moderates the lists so that
inappropriate mail may be excluded. An excellent source of electronic discussion
groups in dentistry may be found at the website of the University of Iowa College
of Dentistry: http://vh.radiology.uiowa.edufBeyondlDentistrylleslie.html. Topics
include calcified tissue discussions, oral pathology, periodontology, cosmetic
dentistry, and many others.
To subscribe to a mailing list, send an e-mail to the Listserv address. Leave
the subject area blank, and in the body of the text type: subscribe { listname } {
your first name } { your last name } without the brackets. E-mail software
automatically includes your return address. For example, to subscribe to the
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Buffalo Board of Oral Pathology, send e-mail to Listserv@ubvm.cc.buffalo.edu. In
the body of the message, type subscribe bboplist elliot feldbau to begin receiving
the author's e-mail on topics of oral pathology. To terminate the subscription, type
the word "unsubscribe" without quotes in place of subscribe. Other mailing lists
may be addresses such as Listproc or Majordomo. A summary of common Listserv
commands follows:
• Subscribe <listname> <your first name> <your last name>
• Subscribe digest <listname> causes the program to send all of the day's
messages in one mailing per day rather than individual messages as they are
written throughout the day.
• Unsubscribe <listname>
• Set nomail <listname> discontinues all mail.
• Set mail <listname> resumes mail delivery.
• Set conceal <listname> hides your name on the subscription list.
• Info Refcard <listname> causes the Listserv program to send a list of
commands.
48. How does one send attached files with e-mail or a browser?
All browsers and on-line service software allow sending of any type of file,
text, image, sound, or video by pressing the "Attach" button. Some files may be
very large, and simply using compression software may reduce transmission time.
WinZip (PC) or Stuifit (Mac) are excellent software applications for working with
compressed files (commonly with a .zip or sit extension).
49. Discuss major differences between searching for information via
the I nternet and at a library.
Because of the immense size and rapid growth of offerings on the Internet,
there is no single complete guide to the material. Furthermore, because there is
no central control or standard of organization, it is hard to know if any search is
complete or even if material will be available in a particular field. A library, on the
other hand, is a statement of organization, collecting, and planning. National
standards exist for cataloging the contents of every library (e.g., Library of
Congress, Dewey system), and each university library usually has complete
collections for its specialty schools. The library also supports reference
professionals to guide you in a literature search.
However, as unorganized as the collections of information may be on the
WWW, there are important areas in which Internet research may provide an
advantage. The Internet is both a storage resource and a communication tool.
Subscribing to discussion groups on topics of interest provides a wealth of
opinions, comments, and suggestions for finding answer and professional
problems. Both Listservs and Usenet Newsgroups fulfill these inquiries.
As more and more libraries, museums, government agencies, and
commercial entities begin to digitize their archives and collections, the volume and
quality of offerings will grow, resulting in much greater accessibility. Health
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resource data from the National Institute of Dental Research, World Health
Organization, and National Institutes of Health are readily available online. Access
to medical journal databases, such as Medline on Paperchase, allows the
convenience of searching from one's office, and graphical collections are readily
downloadable. Electronic journals also have appeared. Many library catalogs are
available on-line, so that locating specific reference works is convenient. To use
the Internet for searching the World Wide Web, a working knowledge of search
tools is essential.
50. What makes a productive WWW search?
With millions of documents available and no standard of organization,
finding documents of specific interest requires knowing how to use what are
commonly termed searchable indexes. These tools (search engines) use some
standard but slightly different criteria to search key text words in web pages or
titles. The ability to create close matches between terms of interest and words or
phrases used in web pages determines how closely you get to your chosen
subject.
51. IHow do search engines woric?
Web search services find documents matching the user criteria by searching
their database of URLs, texts, and descriptions selected fro the whole WWW. Their
robot computers scan the Web 24 hours a day, updating databases where the
resource information is stored. Thus each search tool may be different, depending
on the organization of its database. Some search engine yields are first edited or
reviewed, whereas others are a mere gathering of the robotlike computers, which
transfer data directly onto the database. The search engine allows the user to
enter requests to the database for sites of interest. A search generates from the
engine's database a list of Hypertext links to documents that fulfill the user's
search criteria. Clicking on a link sends one to that document on the Web. Every
search tool's list will vary based on the features of its search mode, the size of the
database, and the selectivity of the organization of the database.
52. What are the two major search criteria?
There are two major categories of search engine organization: subject
indexes and keyword indexes. To ensure comprehensive searches, the keyword
search tools are advantageous because they search the full title and all text of a
document. To limit a search in volume and to ensure high-quality sites, a subject
search may prove more profitable initially.
53. List four strategies for successful Web searching.
1. Analyze your topic before you begin.
2. Learn search tool features to help refine your topic.
3. Choose databases with the size and features that you need.
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4. Learn about each of these tools: Infoseek, Yahoo, Excite, Magellan,
Lycos, and Open Text.
54. How does one begin to analyze the topic? What search tool
features are available?
Phrase searching. If one is looking for a proper name or distinct phrase,
using double quotation marks C ) or capitalizing initial letters will require an exact
match. Examples: "American Dental Association" with or without quotation marks,
"bullous lesions,™G. V. Black:"dental education."
Boolean operators. Using AND, OR, NOT will refine searching. Examples:
Common words with many meanings: law AND dentistry AND ethics. Searching for
computers AND dentistry AND "digital cameras" OR "intraoral cameras" allows
variations in name: Dentistry OR dental AND software. An alternative is use of +
and — for AND and NOT. For example, office management + software + dental —
Mac limits the search to non-Mac applications.
Limit search to title field. Searches may be limited to home pages about
a subject. For example, the title "American Association of Dental Schools" yields its
home page, whereas the title "dental malpractice" yields primarily pages about
dental malpractice. Other field limitors may be URL:, link:, or text:.
Case sensitivity. Usually lower case retrieves upper case. If one keys
capitals, only capitals may be retrieved.
Truncation. If there are many different endings to the term (e.g., dentist,
dentistry), dentist* retrieves both terms. The asterisk is called a "wild card."
55. What search engines are available?
• Alta Vista (www.altavista.digital.com) 30 million; general web database
of pages rather than sites. No subject categories or reviews. Has advance search
capability. Includes Usenet discussion group search.
• infoseek (www.infoseek.com): 50 million; general web databases.
Subject directory. Smart searching of pages and related categories. Includes
Usenet, e-mail, and news.
• Excite (www.excite.com): 50 million; reviews website and displays
reviews, subject directory.
• Yahoo (www.yahoo.com): I million; subject directory. Displays both
summary of site and related category. Defaults to Alta Vista if subject not in
database.
• Lycos (www.lycos.com): 66 million; general web database. Catalogs web
page rather than entire site; outline and abstract for each matching page.
• Magellan (www.magellan.com): 30 million; subject directory. Review and
ratings with links to full review for each site.
• Hotbot (www.hotbot.com): 54 million; general web databases. No
subject categodies or reviews.
As an example, when we searched the key word "compomer," we got the
following number of sites for each search engine:
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Hotbot: 114 Infoseek: 20
Yahoo (defaulted to Alta Vista): 222 Lycos: 19
Excite: 49
These results compare with 27 references from a journal search of Medline
on Paperchase. Remember that dental supply manufacturers often have web
pages for their products, allowing one to keep up to date on new products and
specifications. An excellent source for all web-related searching utilities and tools
can be found at the Internet Scout Project at the University of Wisconsin:
http:llscout.cs.wisc.edu/scoutltoolkit.
56. What is a meta-search engine?
A meta-searcher is able to take simple inquiries and search many indexes at
once. |V|eta Crawler (http://www.metacrawler.com) searches six search engines
at once and integrates the results. SavySearch (http://cs.colostate.edu: 2000)
searches over 20 search engines with one command in multiple languages and
can include the Web, software, e-mail addresses, and more. Searcli.com
(http://www.search.com) has access to hundreds of engines in over 25 subject
categories. Finally, Inforia's Quest98 (www.inforia.com) and NetMetrics' WebTurbo
(www.webturbo.com) search hundreds of search engines at once and allow
custom searching and organization of topics. The latter two functions actually
integrate into a browser's basic function buttons.
57. What is an FAQ?
"Frequently Asked Questions" (FAQ) is a document containing information
about a subject in the format of questions and answers. It is similar in style to this
text. Product manufacturers, newsgroups, and organizations list FAQs to answer
questions about a topic.
58. IHow does Gopher woric? Who are Veronica and J ughead?
Gopher is a set of servers on the Internet that allows searches of
information much like the Web. The information is presented in a point-and-click
text menu that is arranged in a hierarchy of subtopics. Access to a single Gopher
client allows a link to any worldwide Gopher server. Gopher was started at the
University of Minnesota, and their Mother Gopher site registers most of the
Gopher servers in the world. Gopher servers are often arranged geographically.
Gopher is commonly accessed via a browser. Typing gopher:// on Netscape allows
entry into "Gopherspace." On-line service providers (e.g., America Online) make
use of Gopher as easy as use of the Web.
Veronica (Very Easy Rodent-Oriented Net-wide Index to Computer Archives)
and Jughead are Gopher services that construct menus based on keyword
searches. The information retrieved may be any of the following:
• Another menu (folder icon)
• A document, graphic file, or text file (document icon)
• A search entry (magnifying glass icon)
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• A pointer to a text-based remote log-in (Telnet)
• A pointer to a software gateway to another service (Usenet or Fl'P)
59. What are Usenet newsgroups?
Newsgroups, also known as Usenet news or News, are a category of
information-sharing mechanisms on the Internet. Second only to e-mail in volume
usage, they are basically a discussion forum or electronic bulletin board on which
one can post messages and read responses. The Usenet network administers all
groups. Over 20,000 topics are arranged in hierarchies and subhierarchies by
subjects. Top levels include Comp (computer topics), news (news about the
Usenet network), rec (recreational subjects such as music, collecting art), sci
(science and engineering), soc (social groups and society talk— random
discussions), alt (new groups), and misc (miscellaneous topics). These subject
hierarchies are separated by periods to create a unique address. Many of the web
search engines allow Usenet topical searches. Entering the following examples into
your browser URL line will bring up the newsgroups:
• news:sci.med.dentistry (a newsgroup about dental issues)
• news:alt.support.jaw_disorders (a newsgroup support group for sufferers
of temporomandibular joint disorders)
60. What are the basics of FTP? How are files saved?
FTP allows the transfer of large files to (upload) and from (download) other
computers by TCP/IP on the Internet. Anonymous FTP allows public access to
many computer files. One just types "anonymous" at the user name prompt and
one's e-mail address for a password. An easy way to explore FTP is via the Web
using Yahoo's topic Internet, then FTP. This method shows many FTP sites on the
Web. File formats are important to understand, because most files are compressed
to minimize storage and transfer times. Compression programs must be used to
see these files. Common file extensions include the following:
• .hqx— compressed Macintosh files; retrieved in binary mode and
processed with a Mac decompression utility Stuffit expander
• .sit— Mac files compressed with the Stuffit program
• .sea— self-extracting Mac files
• zip— DOS file compressed with pkZip program; decompresses with pkZip
or Winzip
• .exe— compressed DOS files that are executable or self-extracting upon
clicking on them
• .gif— Graphics Interchange File format
• m peg— video files
• .jpg— compressed graphics files
• .txt— plain text files that need no special utility to view or print
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61. What is Telnet?
Telnet is a Unix program that allows one to connect to a remote computer
and search its database via the Internet. Netscape and Internet Explorer have
Telnet applications that launch when a Telnet address is entered in the URL line
(generally an IP address or text address). For example, if one types 160.19001 in
the "Go To" line of Netscape, the connection to the National Cancer Center in
Japan is retrieved. Using the address gopher.ncc.go.ip gives the same connection.
Once connected to the remote computer, there is a "log-in" and "password"
formality that may be satisfied by "new" or "guest" entries if one does not have an
account. To use a web browser for Telnet access, write telnet://internet.address in
the "Go To" box.
DENTAL INFORMATION MANAGEMENT
62. What is the definition of dental informatics?
The term is a subset of health care or medical informatics and is the
application of new information technologies to dental practice, education, and
research. It is allied to the field of artificial intelligence, which relates biomedical
information, data, and knowledge into computer-applied management. Dental
informatics includes all forms of practice management information systems as well
as applied clinical and research systems.
63. What are the differences among data, information, and knowledge?
Data are a collection of facts in the form of measurements or observations
without implication of organization or conclusions. Thus, a patient's vital signs or
symptoms or the descriptors of firm mass, pulsating pain, or periodontal pocket
depths represent a raw collection of data for a database.
Information implies some method of collection, organization, and
classification of a pool of data with some intended format of communication.
Descriptions of different disease entities, such as gingivitis, pulpitis, or cracked
tooth syndrome, represent elements of an information base.
Knowledge implies knowing or decision-making through experience,
reasoning, or association. It is a complete understanding of one's information.
Thus, correlation of the raw data of a patient's physical signs and symptoms with
an information base of possible diseases to form a differential diagnosis and reach
an ultimate diagnosis requires the application of knowledge.
64. What are the components of a decision support system?
1. The user interface, or collection module, at which the clinician enters the
physical signs and symptoms or other collected data descriptors required by the
program.
2. The database module that constitutes the computer's clinical knowledge
base.
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3. An inference module to operate on the knowledge base data in light of
the clinician's input information to arrive at a diagnosis or treatment plan.
65. What analytical mechanisms are used by the decision support
systems?
1. Decision trees or algorithms use a form of logical classifications to
lead the user to a desired end point.
2. Statistical systems compare information about a patient's signs and
symptoms with a database and calculate a diagnosis based on the probability of
occurrence. They are often referred to as Bayesian classification methods because
they use Bayes' theorem to calculate the probabilities associated with signs,
symptoms or laboratory value descriptors and arrive at a particular diagnosis.
3. Rule-based systems are based on "if... then" statements to arrive at a
diagnosis. The knowledge base is stored as production rules, heuristics, or rules of
thumb. By using these rules the program can create associations and correlation
between pieces of information. For example:
Ifdi tooth has a draining fistula
And\hQ tooth tests nonvital to an electric pulp tester
Andthere is a radiographic apical lucency,
Then the tooth is likely to have a necrotic pulp.
66. What dental decision support software is currently available?
DART is a decision support system for diagnosis of oral pathology based on
algorithmic design.
ORAD is a statistically designed program for support in diagnosis of
osseous lesions. URL: http://www-scf.usc.edu/
RaPiD is a rule-based partial denture framework design program.
Hammond P, et al: Knowledge based design of removable partial dentures using direct
manipulation and critiquing. J Oral Rehabil 20:115—123, 1993.
Rudin J: DART (Diagnostic Aid and Resource Tool): A computerized clinical decisions
support system for oral pathology. Compendium 15:1326—1328, 1994.
White SC: Computer-aided differential diagnosis of oral radiographic lesions.
Dentomaxillofac Radiol 18:53—59, 1989.
67. What future roles may decision support systems play in dentistry?
If standard formats of data reporting become established within dental
management information systems, one may envision national databases that can
assemble quality assurance information and morbidity statistics for different
treatments. An example may be the longevity of different restorative materials,
situations surrounding implant failures, or success of different periodontal
treatment protocols. These data may even be electronically transferred to
analytical review centers for standardized research reporting analogous to the
reporting of adverse complications of drugs.
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BIBLIOGRAPHY
Texts
1. Abbey LM, Zimmerman JL: Dental Informatics. New York, Springer-Verlag,
1996.
2. Cady GH: i^lastering the Internet, 2nd ed. San Francisco, SYBEX. 1996.
3. Sapienza FJ: Computers in the Dental Office: How to Evaluate, Select, and
Get the Most Out of Your System. Mare Publishing, 1992.
I nternet sites
Dental Informatics site at the University of Michigan:
http://informaticS.dent.Umlch.edu/denthhlfofl Multiple topics of interest
on computing and dentistry.
Dental ResourceNet: http://www.defltalCare.comI. A site for continuing
education sponsored by Proctor and Gamble.
Hogarth M: In Internet Guide for the Health Professional, Sacramento. 1995:
ftp://ftp.med.auth.gr/pUb/med icallinfo/medguide.ZiP. An online book to
be downloaded as a .zip file.
Internet Dental Forum: http://idf.stat.com A listserv discussion group for
general dental issues.
Internet Dentistry Resources, The University of Iowa College of Dentistry,
1998: http://vh. radiology, j Monthly-updated complete listing of dental
sites on the web.
Internet Tutorial, Barker J: Library, University of California, Berkeley, 1996:
http://www.lib.berkeley.edu/ TeachingLib/GUideSflfltem A well-written
tutorial on all aspects of the Internet.
Paper Chase: http://www.paperchase.com. The most comprehensive searching
tool for Medline, by subscrip tion.
PC Webopaedia: http://www.pcwebopaedia.com/. An online encyclopedia and
search engine for computer technology.
Scout Toolkit, 1998: http://scout.cS.Wi5c.edu/Sc0Udt00ll Everything needed to
search the Web. Search guidelines, search engines, and multiple links.
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14. DENTAL PUBLI C HEALTH
Edwards. Peters, D.M.D., M.S.
If you do not have oral health, you're simply not healthy.
— C. Everett Koop, former U.S. Surgeon General
PUBLIC HEALTH PROMOTION
1. What is the definition of public health in its broadest sense?
In 1988 the Institute of Medicine defined public fieaitli as "what we, as a
society, do collectively to assure the conditions for people to be healthy."
2. What are the three tenets of public health?
1. A problem exists.
2. Solutions to the problem exist.
3. The solutions to the problem are applied.
3. Public health efforts are usually directed toward acute problems
such as infectious disease or chronic diseases such as cancer. What
public health strategies are similar for these and most other diseases?
(1) Surveillance, (2) intervention, and (3) evaluation.
4. What constitutes a public health problem?
A public health problem usually fulfills two criteria of the public,
government, or public health authorities:
1. A condition or situation that is a widespread actual or potential cause of
morbidity or mortality, and
2. A perception exists that the condition is a public health problem.
5. Describe the current infection control recommendations.
Recommendations for infection control undergo frequent revision, and the
reader is urged to refer to the most up-to-date source. For current
recommendations, please check the Oral Health Program at the Centers for
Disease Control and Prevention website: http://www.cdc.gov/nccdphp/
oh/ichome.htm. The principles behind infection control involve exposure control,
which refers to personal protective barriers such as gloves, masks, and eye
protection. In addition, heat sterilization of all dental equipment, including
handpieces, is required. Finally, the handling and disposal of all potentially
infectious material must be properly performed. (See chapter 12.)
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6. What are primary, secondary, and tertiary prevention?
Primary prevention involves health services that provide health
promotion and protection with the goal of preventing the development of disease.
Examples are community-based fluoridation for caries prevention and smoking
cessation programs.
Secondary prevention includes services that are provided once the
disease ispr to prevent further progression. Such services include dental
restorations and oral cancer screening.
Tertiary prevention services are provided when disease has advanced to
the point where loss of function or life may occur. Definitive surgery or radiation
therapy to treat oral cancer and extractions of diseased teeth to eliminate
infection are examples.
7. What is health promotion?
Health promotion is a set of educational, economic, and environmental
incentives to support behavioral changes that lead to better health.
8. How has health promotion been achieved
Examples of health-promoting activities include community fluoridation and
sealant programs. On the individual level, health promotion is encouraged through
oral hygiene procedures.
9. Give examples of community.based dental public health programs
geared toward school children.
School-based fluoride delivery, dental screening, hygiene instruction, and
sealant placement.
10. Before the implementation of any community- based program, the
process of plannin and evaluation is necessary. What are the basic steps
involved in planning for a program?
Planning involves making choices to achieve specific objectives. Thus, a
planner should review a list of alternative programs, assess the effectiveness of
the program under consideration, examine the community to determine if the
program is needed, and initiate the process to implement the program.
11. What skills must a person possess before managing dental public
health programs?
The implementation of a public health program requires such skills as
planning, marketing, communications, human resources management, financial
management, and quality assurance.
12. Differentiate among need, demand, and utilization of oral health
services.
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Need can be defined as the quantity of dental treatment that expert
opinion deems necessary for people to achieve the status of being dentally
healthy. Demand for dental care is an expression by patients to receive dental
treatment. Utilization is expressed as the proportion of the population that visits
a dentist.
13. What factors influence the need and demand for oral health
services in the U.S.?
Demographic and other variables influence the use of dental services. Such
variables most notably include gender, age, socioeconomic status, race, ethnicity,
geographic location, medical health, and presence of insurance. Women utilize
more dental services than men, although the reasons are unclear. Dental visits are
most frequent for patients in their late teenage years and early adulthood, with a
gradual tapering of visits with increasing age. Socioeconomic status is directly
related to the use of dental services. There are fewer dental visits in patients of
lower socioeconomic status and in nonwhite or Hispanic populations.
14. The utilization of health care has been explained through
behavioral models. One model demonstrates how variables influence the
utilization of health care from the individual's perspective. What factors
play a role in explaining a person's health care utilization?
1. Predisposing factors, such as (1) demographic variables (e.g., sex,
age); (2) societal variables (e.g., education, job); and (3) health beliefs (e.g., how
susceptible to disease the person believes that he or she is, how serious he or she
believes the consequences of the disease to be).
2. Enabling factors, which allow the services to be used, such as personal
income, community resources, and accessibility to health care.
3. Need factors, which determine how the services should be used (i.e.,
presence of disease).
15. What is the prevalence of smokeless tobacco use among adolescent
males and females?
Surveys indicate that 40—60% of adolescent males have tried smokeless tobacco
and that by Uth grade 5—35% report regular use. In contrast, less than 5% of
adolescent females report using smokeless tobacco. It is important to note the
wide geographic variability in the rates. The Northeast experiences the lowest
usage, and the highest reported use is in the South.
16. What risks are associated with smokeless tobacco?
Smokeless tobacco increases the risk of developing oral cancer. It contains
nicotine and is as strongly addictive as cigarettes. The use of smokeless tobacco
leads to the development of leukoplakia in mucosal areas where the tobacco is
placed. There is about a 5% chance of leukoplakia becoming cancerous.
Leukoplakia may resolve with early cessation of smokeless tobacco use.
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17. What is meant by the term "acidogenic'7
Particular foods have the ability to reduce the pH of plaque when consumed
and are considered to be acidogenic. The reduction in pH is considered a
necessary condition for the development of caries. Such foods contain a high
proportion of refined sugars (e.g., candy, soda).
18. Describe how the benefits of fluoride were first discovered.
In the early 1 Dr. Frederick McKay, having recently graduated from dental
school, moved to Colorado, where he observed an unusual blotching of tooth
enamel in many of his patients. This pattern was localized to communities that got
their drinking water from artesian wells. 1-fe also observed that this blotching was
associated with decreased caries activity. Eventually fluoride was identified as the
responsible agent. This finding led to fluoridation trials demonstrating that artificial
fluoride prevents dental caries.
19. Water fluoridation is one of the few public health measures that
saves more money than it costs. Why is water fluoridation so cost-
effective?
Fluoridation is a low-cost and low-technology procedure that benefits an
entire community. It requires no patient compliance and is therefore easy to
administer. The major costs are associated with the initial equipment purchase;
later costs are for maintenance and fluoride supplies. It has been calculated that
the direct annual costs for fluoridating American public water systems range
$0.12—1.31 per person, with an average of $0.54 per person. For each dollar
invested in fluoridation, $80 in costs for dental treatment are avoided.
20. What are the major mechanisms of action for fluoride in caries
inhibition?
1. The topical effect of constant infusion of a low concentration of fluoride
into the oral cavity is thought to increase remineralization of enamel.
2. Fluoride inhibits glycolysis in which sugar is converted to acid by bacteria.
3. During tooth development, fluoride is incorporated into the developing
enamel hydroxyapatite crystal, which reduces enamel solubility.
21. What percentage of the U.S. population is served by community
systems providing op. timal levels of fluoridated water?
About 62—54% of the total U.S. population has an optimally fluoridated
water supply.
22. What is the recommended level of fluoride in the water supply?
The U.S. Public Health Service sets the optimal fluoride level at 0.7 ppm.
23. At what policy level is the decision to fluoridate the water supply
made?
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Local governments make the decision. However, seven states have laws
requiring water fluoridation.
24. A parent of a 6-year.old child asks about fluoride supplementation.
The child weighs 20 kg and lives in a fluoride-deficient area with less
than 0.3 ppm of fluoride ion in drinking water. What do you
recommend?
You should prescribe sodium fluoride, I-mg tablets, to be chewed and
swallowed at bedtime.
25. What are the recommended fluoride supplementation dosages for
children?
Tablets are available in doses of 1.0 mg and 0.5 mg for children and
toddlers. For infants, supplemental fluoride is available as 0.125-mg drops.
Supplemental Fluoride Dosage Schedule
CONCENTRATION OF FLUORIDE ION IN DRIN KING WATER
AGE
<0.3
0.3 - 0.6
>0.6 PPM
6 mo to 3 yr
3-6 yr
6-16 yr
0.25 mg
0.50 mg
1 mg
0.25 mg
0.50 mg
26. What are alternatives to systemic fluoride supplementation (i.e.,
tablets)?
• Topically applied gels of 2.0% NaF, 0.4% SnF, 1.23% acidulated
phosphate fluoride (APF)
• Mouth rinses of 0.2% NaF weekly, 0.05% NaF daily, 0.1% SnF daily
• Daily dentifrice
27. In prescribing fluoride supplementation, what tradeoffs must be
considered?
The benefit of caries reduction must be considered against the risk of
fluorosis. Fluorosis occurs with the presence of excessive fluoride during tooth
development and causes discoloration of tooth enamel. Affected teeth appear
chalky white on eruption and later turn brown. This risk is especially important
during the development of the incisors in the second to third years. To avoid this
problem, you must assess the fluoride content of the drinking water before
dispensing fluoride supplementation. The fluoride in water along with any
supplemental fluoride must not exceed 1 ppm. If 1 ppm is exceeded, the
probability that fluorosis may develop increases as the fluoride concentration
increases.
28. Where is ingested fluoride absorbed?
Eighty percent of absorption occurs in the upper gastrointestinal tract.
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29. What are the manifestations of fluoride toxicity?
The ingestion of 5 gm of fluoride or greater in an adult results in death
within 2 hours if the person does not receive medical attention. In a child,
ingestion of a single dose greater than 400 mg results in death due to poisoning in
about 3 hours. Doses of 100—300 mg in children result in nausea and diarrhea.
30. How much fluoride is contained in an average 4.6-ounce tube of
toothpaste?
Either sodium monoflurophosphate or sodium fluoride toothpaste contains
approximately 1.0 mg of fluoride per gram of paste. Therefore, a 4.6-oz tube of
toothpaste contains 130 mg of fluoride. A level of 435 mg of fluoride consumed in
a 3-hour period is considered fatal for a 3-year-old child. Therefore, only a little
over 3 tubes of toothpaste need to be consumed to reach a fatal level.
31. What is the rationale behind the use of pit and fissure sealants in
caries prevention?
Occlusal surfaces, particularly fissures, have not experienced as rapid a
decline in incidence of caries as proximal surfaces because fluoride's protective
effect is confined to smooth surfaces only. It has been observed that sealing the
fissures from the oral environment prevents the development of occlusal caries.
Sealants should be part of an early preventive program for protecting permanent
molars.
32. What proportion of U.S. children have received dental sealants?
Less than 30% of U.S. children have received dental sealants. In addition,
only half the states have school-based programs to extend this service to the
neediest children.
33. Do dentists have an obligation to report child abuse?
Yes. Dentists are morally, ethically, and legally obligated to report a
suspected case of child abuse. Reports should be made to the local department of
social services, although this may vary from state to state.
34. Where is the dentist's code of ethics found?
The American Dental Association (ADA) established a code of ethics that
describes dentistry's responsibility to society. The code is published in the Journal
of the American Dental Association. The code deals with issues of patient care,
fees, practice guidelines, advertising, and referrals. The ADA Principles of Ethics
and Code of Professional Conduct can be found at the ADA's website:
http://www.ada.org/prat/code/ethic.html
35. What does the ADA code of ethics state about the removal of dental
amalgam to prevent mercury toxicity?
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"The removal of amalgam restorations from the non-allergic patient for the
alleged purpose of removing toxic substances from the body, when such
treatment is perform solely at the recommendation or suggestion of the dentist, is
improper and unethical."
36. How does the Americans with Disabilities Act affect dentists?
• Dentists cannot deny anyone care because of a disability.
• Offices must undergo architectural changes to allow access for the
disabled.
• Employees are protected against dismissal due to a disability.
• Offices must accommodate disabled workers to perform jobs.
EPIDEMIOLOGY AND BIOSTATISTICS
37. Define epidemiology.
It is the study of the distribution and frequency of disease or injury in
human populations and the factors that make groups susceptible to disease or
injury.
38. Differentiate between incidence and prevalence.
Incidence is the number of new cases of disease occurring within a
population during a given period. It is expressed as a rate:
(cases)/(population)/(time)
Prevalence is the proportion of a population affected with a disease at a
given point in time, i.e., (cases)/(population).
Example: A dentist counts the number of patients presenting to the office
with newly diagnosed periodontal disease in a 6-month period. Ten of the 100
people who came to the office had periodontal disease. The incidence rate is
calculated as 10/100 in 6 months, or 0.2 per year. The range for incidence rates is
from zero to infinity. The prevalence of periodontal disease may be obtained by
counting all patients with periodontal disease in the same period— that is, if 50 of
the 100 patients have periodontal disease, the prevalence is 50%. Remember,
incidence is a rate and requires a unit of time, whereas prevalence is a proportion
and is expressed as a percentage of the population.
39. What is meant by test sensitivity and specificity? How are they
calculated?
Frequently dentists wish to know if disease is present and may use some
diagnostic test to arrive at an answer. In dentistry, the most frequent test is the
radiograph. Dentaii are imperfect in that they do not distinguish all diseased from
disease-free surfaces. Sensitivity and specificity are measures that describe how
good the radiograph is in such differentiation. Sensitivity measures the
proportion of persons with the disease who are correctly identified by a positive
test (true-positive rate). Specificity measures the proportion of persons without
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disease who are correctly identified by a negative test (true-negative rate).
Sensitivity and specificity are inversely proportional; as the specificity of a test
increases, the sensitivity decreases. An ideal test would have both high specificity
and sensitivity, yet tradeoffs can be made depending on the condition being
tested. Sensitivity and specificity can be calculated from a 2 x 2 table as illustrated
below. Sensitivity = TP/TP + FN; specificity = TN/FP + TN.
With Disease Witliout Disease
Test positive True positive (TP) False positive (FP)
Test negative False negative (FN) True negative (TN)
40. What is meant by positive predictive value (PPV)?
The PPV reflects the proportion of persons who have the disease, given that
they test positive. It measures how well the test predicts the presence of a given
disease. The PPV is calculated from a 2 x 2 table as follows:
PPV = TP/TP + FP
This calculation takes into account the prevalence of disease.
41. What does the p value represent?
The probability that the observed result or something more extreme
occurred by chance alone. Therefore, a p value of 0.05 indicates that there is only
a 5% likelihood that the result observed was due to chance alone. Traditionally, a
p value of 0.05 is considered statistically significant. If the p value is > 0.05,
chance cannot be ruled out as an explanation for the observed effect. It is
important to remember that chance can never be ruled out absolutely as an
explanation for the observed results. A statistically significant result indicates that
chance is not likely.
42. What is relative risk? Odds ratio?
The relative risk measures the association between exposure and disease.
It is expressed as a ratio of the rate of disease among exposed persons to the rate
among unexposed persons. Relative risk estimates the strength or magnitude of
an association. The calculation of relative risk requires incidence rates, provided by
cohort studies.
The odds ratio provides an estimate of the relative risk in case-control
studies; because disease has already occurred, the incidence of disease cannot be
determined.
43. How do the mean, median, and mode differ?
The three terms are measures of central tendency and are used to provide a
summary measure to characterize a group of people. The mean represents the
average. It is calculated by adding together all of the observations and then
dividing by the total number of measurements. The mean takes into account the
magnitude of each observation and, as a result, is easily affected by extreme
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values. The median is defined as the middle-most measurement (50th
percentile)— i.e., half the observations are below it and half are above. Therefore,
the median is unaffected by ex treme measures. The mode is the most frequently
used observation.
Two distributions with identical means, medians, and modes. (From
Pagano 1^, Gauvreau K: Principles of Biostatistics. Boston, Harvard
School of Public Health, 1991, with permission.)
44. Which of the following is most appropriate to test for differences
between the means of two groups: ANOVA, f-test, or chi-square?
A t-test is used to compare the means between two groups. The ANOVA, or
analysis of variance, compares the means in greater than two groups. The chi-
square test is used to show differences in proportions.
45. Confidence intervals are often provided when data are reported.
What do they indicate?
Confidence intervals (CI) represent the range within which the true
magnitude of the effect lies with a certain degree of certainty. For example, a
relative risk of 2. 1 may be reported with a 95% CI (1.5, 2.9). This indicates that
the study determined the relative risk to be 2.1 and that we are 95% certain that
the true relative risk is not < 1.5 or> 2.9. If the 95% CI includes the null value
(1.0), the result is not statistically significant.
46. Compare cross- sectional, case-control, and cohort studies.
Cross-sectional studies are a type of descriptive epidemiologic study in
which the exposure and disease status of the population are determined at a
given point. For example, the caries status of U.S. adults aged 45—65 in the year
1992 may be determined by a natiot dental survey and examination.
Case control and cohort studies are analytical epidemiologic studies. In
case-control studies participants are selected on the basis of disease status.
The "cases" are persons who have the disease of interest, and the control group
consists of persons similar to the case group except that they do not have the
disease of interest. Information about exposure status is then obtained from each
group to assess whether an association exists between exposure and disease.
In cohort studies participants are selected on the basis of exposure status.
Study participants must be free of the disease of interest at the time the study
begins. Exposed and nonexposed participants are then followed over time to
assess the association between exposure and specific diseases.
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47. Which type of study— cohort, case-control, retrospective, or clinical
trial— most closely resembles a true experiment?
In a clinical trial, the investigator allocates the participants to the exposure
groups of interest and then follows the groups over time to observe how they
differ in outcome. This method most closely resembles an experiment.
48. Discuss the importance of blinding and randomization in
experimental studies.
Randomization and blinding are two methods of reducing bias in research
studies. In a randomized study all participants have an equal likelihood of
receiving the treatment of interest. For example, patients are randomly assigned
to two groups, one of which receives a particular treatment and the other,
placebo. Several techniques are available to ensure randomization of study
participants. In a double-blind study, both the investigator observing the results
and the participants are unaware of which individuals are assigned to which
group. One means of achieving a blinded study is use of placebos.
49. Distinguish between split-mouth and crossover designs.
In split-mouth studies, different treatments are applied to different
sections of the mouth. The effects of treatment must be localized to the region
receiving the treatment. In crossover studies, patients serve as their own
control and receive treatments in sequence— treatment A and then treatment B—
and the disease course is compared between the two periods. The disease under
investigation must be assumed to be stable during the period of treatment.
50. What is the difference between interexaminer and intraexaminer
reliability?
The validity of an examination depends on the reliability of the examiner.
Intraexaminer reliability refers to the ability of a single examiner to record the
same findings in the same way over time. Interexaminer reliability refers to the
ability of different examiners to record the same finding in the same way.
51. List and describe the most commonly used dental indices.
Measurements of dental caries are made with the DMF index. The DMF is
an irreversible index and is used only with permanent teeth. £> represents decayed
teeth; M, missing teeth; and F,filled teeth. The DMF index can be applied to teeth
(DMFT) or surfaces (DMFS). The DMFI score may range from to 32, whereas the
DMFS score may range from to 160. The primary dentition uses the def index,
where d represents decayed teeth; e, extracted teeth; andf, filled teeth.
Gingivitis is most commonly scored with the gingival index of LOE and
Siliness. It grades the gingiva on the four surfaces of each tooth. Each area
receives a score from to 3, where = normal gingiva; 1 = mild inflammation, no
bleeding on probing; 2 = moderate inflammation; 3 = severe inflammation,
ulceration, and spontaneous bleeding.
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52. What is happening with the prevalence of caries in the United
States?
The prevalence of caries has been declining in children during the 20th
century. Results of the National Health and Nutrition Examination Surveys
(NHANES) during the 1970s and 1980s show that the prevalence of caries has
decreased significantly in the U.S. Elsewhere, the caries rate is also declining. A
decline in adult caries is not as evident, because most adults grew up before the
decline started. Fluoridation has received the most credit for the decline.
Mean DMFS
1979-80
1986-87
10 n 12 13
Age
!5 16 17
DMFS values for United States school children, aged 5—17 years, in 1979—1980 and
1986—1987. (From Burt BA, Ekiund SA: Dentistry, Dental Practice and the Community.
Philadelphia. W.B. Saunders, 1992, with permission).
53. In 1994 a New York Times article stated, "Half of today's
schoolchildren have never had a cavity." I s this statement accurate?
The 50% estimate is overly optimistic because it ignores caries in the
primary dentition. In fact, 50% of children have had caries by the time they are 8
years old. In addition, most of the research methods used to assess caries
prevalence rely entirely on visual means and omit radiographs. As a result, most
caries studies underestimate the true burden of disease. Eighty-five percent of
American children experience decay by the time they are 17 years old. Low-
income people exhibit more dental disease and more delay in treatment than
those with higher incomes. (See figure, top of next page.)
54. What factors make a person susceptible to dental caries?
1. Host with susceptible tooth (mineral)
2. Agent_acid bacteria (S. , nutans)
3. Environment— dental plaque (sucrose)
55. What did the Vipeholm study reveal about the effect of diet on
dental decay?
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381
This study, conducted in a mental institution in Vipeholm, Sweden, is
considered unethical and will not be repeated. The study divided patients into
groups who received different doses of sugars. The sugar differed in amount,
form, frequency, and whether it was consumed between meals. The most
significant finding of the study was that the form and frequency of sugar
consumption were most related to the occurrence of dental caries— that is,
frequent consumption of st
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56. What can you tell the parents of a toddler to aid in the prevention
of caries?
Sugars are the most cariogenic foods, and the consumption of sugars
between meals is associated with a marked increase in caries, whereas
consumption of sugars with meals is associated with a much smaller increase. To
prevent caries, avoid free sugars in bottle feeds, ensure optimal fluoride levels in
water, and restrict intake of sugars.
57. Root caries is seen predominantly in what patient population?
The elderly. The rising incidence of root caries can be attributed to the
aging of populations in industrialized societies and the fact that most adults are
retaining more teeth. Increased gingival recession with exposure of root surfaces
leads to the development of root caries.
58. What is the prevalence of periodontal disease?
Gingivitis and periodontitis are universally prevalent; in most countries more
than 70% of all adults are afflicted. Some data suggest that there is no difference
in the prevalenceofperiodontitis between developing and developed countries.
More recent data obtained during the 1980s show that the prevalence of severe
periodontitis ranges from 7—15%, regardless of a country's economic state, oral
hygiene, or availability of dental care.
59. What is a common factor in both caries and periodontal disease?
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382
The presence of dental plaque is a causative agent in both diseases.
60. How common are oral cancers?
Oral cancer accounted for 4—5% of all cancers diagnosed in the U.S. in
1997. Approxinnately one million new cancers are diagnosed in each year, and of
these, about 40,000 are cancers of the lips, tongue, floor of the mouth, palate,
gingiva, alveolar mucosa, buccal mucosa, and oropharynx. Oral cancer is twice as
prevalent in males as in females. The age-adjusted annual incidence of oral cancer
in white patients aged 65 or older was 20/100,000 in 1980.
61. What are the risk factors?
Studies of oral cancer have identified smoking and other forms of tobacco
as the primary risk factors. In addition, alcohol consumption is a risk factor that
may act as a promoter with tobacco. The combination of heavy smoking and
alcohol consumption increases the risk of oral cancer 30-fold.
HEALTH POLICY
62. Differentiate between licensure and registration.
Licensure is granted through a government agency to those who meet
specified qualifica tions to perform given activities or to claim a particular title.
Registration is a listing of qualified individuals by a governmental or
nongovernmental organization.
63. What are the types of supervision for allied dental personnel as
defined by the ADA?
1. indirect: The dentist diagnoses a condition, then authorizes the allied
dental personnel to carry out treatment while the dentist remains in the office.
2. Direct: The dentist diagnoses a condition, authorizes treatment, and
evaluates the outcome.
3. General: General supervision is defined by practice acts within each
state and may require that the dentist be available but not necessarily on the
premise or site where care is delivered.
64. What are the basic components of the dental care delivery system?
A delivery system is a means by which health care is provided to a patient
and consists of four main components: (1) the organizational structure in which
doctors and patients come together; (2) how health care is financed and paid for;
(3) the supply of health care personnel; and (4) the physical structures involved in
the delivery of care.
65. To what does quality assurance refer?
Quality assurance is the process of examining the physical structures,
procedures, and outcome as they affect the delivery of health care. It consists of
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assessment to identify inadequacies, followed by implementation of improvements
to correct the inadequacies and reassessment to determine if the improvements
are effective.
66. Define structure, process, and Outcome as they relate to quality
assurance.
Structure refers to the layout and equipment of a facility. Included are
items such as the building, equipment, and record forms. Process involves the
services that the dentist and auxiliary personnel perform for patients and how
skillfully they do so. Outcome is the change in health status that occurs as a
result of the care delivered.
67. How do cost- benefit and cost- effectiveness analyses differ?
Cost-effectiveness and cost-benefit analyses are similar yet distinct
techniques to help allocate resources to maximize objectives. Cost-benefit
analysis requires that all costs and benefits be expressed in dollar terms to
provide a measure of net benefit. Cost- effectiveness analysis allows
alternative measures to value effectiveness. Objections to valuing life in terms of
dollars led to the use of cases of disease prevented, life-years gained, or of
quality-adjusted life-years. The result is a cost-effectiveness ratio that expresses
the cost per unit of effectiveness.
68. What is adverse selection?
Adverse selection occurs when people at high risk for an illness are the
predominant purchasers of insurance, especially when the risk for illness and the
premium are based on a low-risk population. Thus, high-risk people are attracted
to the insurance by its low rates, which allow them to avoid payments for a likely
illness.
69. What is moral hazard?
Patients with insurance demand more medical care than patients who have
to pay the cost themselves.
70. What is a community rating?
The premiums charged to all insurance subscribers are the same, regardless
of individual risk. Regardless of who pays for medical care, the cost ultimately falls
on the general public.
71. What are the different financing mechanisms for dental care?
Dentistry is financed mainly through fee-for-service self-pay; 56% of all
dental expenses are paid out of pocket by the patient. Payment to the dentist by
an organization other than the patient is called third-party payment. Third-party
payers represented by private insurance pay about 33% of total dental expenses.
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followed by government-financed or public programs (i.e., Medicaid, Veterans
Affairs).
72. What is capitation payment?
HMO premiums are usually made on a capitation basis— that is, HMO
providers receive a given fee per enrollee, regardless of how much or little care is
delivered.
73. Explain the differences among I PA, PPO, and HlviO.
All three represent managed-care practices. Managed care refers to forms of
insurance coverage in which utilization and service patterns are monitored by the
insurer with the aim of containing costs. An HMO (health maintenance
organization) is usually a self-contained staff-model practice in which no
distinction is made between the providers of insurance and the providers of health
care. HMO premiums are paid on a capitation basis. In contrast, IPA (independent
practice association) and PPO (preferred provider organization) represent groups
of doctors who practice in the community and are distinct from the insurance
provider. However, the insurance agency contracts with the providers for
discounted rates and may refer patients to these providers exclusively. If a patient
elects to go to a different provider from the one recommended by the insurance
company, the patient may face a financial penalty such as an additional charge.
74. IHow do managed-care arrangements differ from the traditional
model of dental care?
Traditional medical and dental care has been paid on a fee-for-service basis.
The patient chooses any provider in the community, and the insurance company
usually pays a certain percentage of the charge. In the current era of cost-
consciousness, many insurance companies are modifying or eliminating this model
altogether. Fee-for-service usually provides no incentive for either the patient or
provider to contain costs.
75. How do Medicaid and Medicare differ?
Medicare, an entitlement fund, was created to provide health insurance to
ojle 65 years old and over, certain disabled groups, and people with certain kidney
diseases. Medicare has two parts, an institutional or hospital portion (Part A) and a
noninstitutional portion or physician-services (Part B). Part A has no premium, but
Part B is supplemental and voluntarily purchased. Medicare does not provide
dental care.
Medicaid is a means-tested program to provide health insurance to poor
people eligible for welfare assistance programs. Medicaid covers both hospital and
physician costs without a premium or copayment. Medicaid is required by federal
law to provide dental services to children. However, adult dental services are
optional, and the decision whether to provide dental care is determined at a state
level.
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76. Which agency administers l^ledicare funds?
The Health Care Financing Administration (HCFA), a federal agency, is
responsible for funding Medicare. It determines how much providers will be paid
and what services are covered.
77. IHow are the funds for INIedicaid provided?
Medicaid is a joint federal and state program with federal guidelines that
allow states some flexibility in what services are provided and who is eligible. The
federal government provides states with matching dollars.
78. What percentage of th gross national product (GNP) is spent on
health care?
In 1995, 13.1% of the GNP was spent on health care. The GNP represents
the total production in the United States.
79. What percentage of all U.S. heath care expenditures is for dental
care?
In 1990, the HCFA estimated that 4% ($46 of $988 billion) of all U.S. health
care expenditures was for dental services. Approximately $44 billion came from
private funds and $2 billion came from public funds, principally Medicaid.
BIBLIOGRAPHY
1. American Dental Association: Principles of Ethics and Code of Professional
Conduct. Chicago, American Dental Association, 1992.
2. American Dental Association: Fluoridation Facts. Chicago, American Dental
Association, 1993, 30 pp.
3. Antczak-Bouckoms A, Tulloch JFC, Bouckoms AJ, et al: Diagnostic Decision
Making. Anesth Prog 37:161-165, 1990.
4. A quality assurance primer for dentistry. JAm Dent Assoc 117:239-242,
1988.
5. Burt BA, Ekiund SA: Dentistry, Dental Practice and the Community.
Philadelphia, W.B. Saunders, 1992.
6. Detels R, Holland WW, McEwen J, Omen GS: Textbook of Public Health, 3rd
ed, vols 1,2,3. New York, Oxford University Press, 1997.
7. Dunning JM: Principles of Dental Public Health, 4th ed. Cambridge, MA,
Harvard University Press, 1986.
8. Edelstein BL, Douglass CW: Dispelling the myth that 50 percent of U.S.
schoolchildren have never had a cavity. Public Health Rep 110:522—530,
1995.
9. Feldstein PJ: Health Care Economics. Albany, Delmar, 1988.
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10. Gift HC, Drury TF, Nowjack-Raymer RE, Selwitz RH: The state of the
nation's oral health: Mid-decade assessment of Healthy People 2000. 1
Public Health Dent 56:84—91, 1996.
10. Hennekens CH, Buring JE: Epidemiology in Medicine. In Mayrent SL (ed).
Boston, Little, Brown, 1987.
11. Jacobs P: The Economics of Health and Medical Care. Gaithersburg, MD,
Aspen, 1991.
12. Jong A: Dental Public Health and Community Dentistry. St. Louis, Mosby,
1981.
13. Newburn E: Effectiveness of water fluoridation. 1 Public Health Dent
49:279-289, 1989.
14. Pagano M, Gauvreau K: Principles of Biostatistics. Boston, Harvard School
of Public Health, 1991.
15. Public Health Focus: Fluoridation of community water systems. MMWR
1992; pp 372-375, 381.
16. Riordan PJ: Fluoride supplements in caries prevention: A literature review
and proposal for a new dosage schedule. J Public Health Dent 53:174-
189, 1993.
17. Ripa LW: A half century of community water fluoridation in the United
States: Review and commentary. J Public Health Dent 53:17-44, 1993.
18. Rozier RG, Beck JD: Epidemiology of oral disease. Curr Opin Dent 1:308-
315, 1991.
19. Silverman S: Oral Cancer. Atlanta, American Cancer Society, 1990.
20. Weinstein MC, Fineberg HV: Clinical Decision Analysis. Philadelphia, W.B.
Saunders. 1980.
21. Weintraub JA, Douglass CW, Gillings DB: Biostatistics: Data Analysis for
Dental Health Professionals. Chapel Hill, Cavco, 1985.
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15. LEGAL I SSUES AND ETHI CS
Elliot V. Feldbau, D.M.D. and Bernard Friedland, B.Ch.D. M.Sc.,J.D.
LEGAL ISSUES
1. What general principles of law apply to dental practice?
United States law is outlined under principles of criminal and civil law; the
latter is divided into contract and tort law. Most legal issues related to dental
practice involve civil wrongs or torts; that is, wrongful acts or injuries, not
involving breach of contract, for which an individual can bring a civil action for
damages.
Malpractice is part of the law of negligence, which constitutes one kind
of tort. A malpractice suit based on the law of negligence alleges that the dentist
failed to employ the care and skill of the average qualified practitioner. It further
alleges that the failure to employ the required care and skill was the "proximate
cause" of the patient's injury. Malpractice is considered an unintentional tort. It is
normally covered by dental malpractice insurance.
Informed consent cases used to be based on the theory of assault and
battery, but today they are considered no differently from other malpractice
cases.
Invasion of privacy, another intentional tort, results when a patient's
image or name is used by a dentist for personal gain, such as in advertising.
Discussing a patient by name without permission, with persons other than the
clinical staff, also may be construed as a violation of the privacy implied by the
doctor-patient relationship.
2. Under the law, how is the relationship between doctor and patient
interpreted?
The law defines the doctor-patient relationship under the principles of
contract law. The terms are usually implied but may be expressed. Upon accepting
a patient for care, the dentist is obliged (1) to maintain confidentiality, (2) to
complete care in a timely and professional manner, (3) to ensure that care is
available in emergency situations or in the absence of the dentist, and (4) to be
compensated for treatment by the patient. Of interest, the contract is termed
binding at the earliest point of contact; that is, the moment of a telephone call to
the dentist may be interpreted as the point of consummation of the contract,
unless the dentist refuses to consider the caller for care or does not realize that
the caller is a patient.
3. May a dentist dismiss a patient after beginning a treatment?
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There are four ways to terminate the dentist-patient relationship: (1) the
patient may inform the dentist that he or she no longer wishes to be cared for by
the dentist; (2) the treatment has run its course; (3) the dentist and patient
mutually agree that the patient will no longer be treated by the dentist; and (4)
the dentist terminates the relationship. Perhaps an example best clarifies the
second way. Suppose a patient is referred to an endodontist for treatment of tooth
#9. Once the endodontist has completed treatment and any necessary follow-up,
the dentist-patient relationship is terminated. In this case, the dentist is under no
obligation to treat the patient at any time in the future. A possible exception may
be if future treatment is needed for tooth #9. In cases involving ways (3) and (4),
the dentist should avoid the risk of being liable for abandonment by notifying the
patient of his or her decision in writing, by providing the telephone number of the
local dental society that the patient may call for a referral, and by offering to
provide emergency treatment for a reasonable (depending on the circumstances)
period of time.
4. What is considered adequate informed consent?
A dentist must disclose to a patient the risks and benefits of a procedure,
alternative treatments, and the risks and benefits of no treatment. Informed
consent is not required in writing but may be helpful.
U.S. courts use one of two measures to determine whether the dentist
satisfied the informed consent requirement. States are split approximately 50-50
on which standard to apply. One standard states that disclosure is adequate if the
dentist has given the patient information that the "average qualified practitioner"
would ordinarily provide under similar circumstances. The other standard requires
a dentist to disclose to a patient in a reasonable manner all significant medical and
dental information that the dentist possesses or reasonably should possess; the
patient uses such information to decide to undergo or refuse a proposed
procedure. The national trend is leaning towards this patient-centered approach.
5. When may the issue of infonned consent be bypassed?
In an emergency consent is implied. Such an emergency exists when
treatment cannot be postponed without jeopardizing the life or well-being of the
patient and the patient is unable to grant consent because of physical impairment.
6. Who is responsible if a dental hygienist performs prophylactic
treatment without proper premedication on a patient who develops
subacute bacterial endocarditis after relating a history of rheumatic
fever and heart valve replacement on his or her medical form?
Under the legal principle of "respondeat superior" ("let the master answer"),
the employees of a dentist as well as the dentist may be sued for negligence
(deviating from the standard of care) or other issues of malpractice or battery
during the course of their employment.
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7. Does a missed diagnosis or failure of treatment constitute
negligence?
An incorrect diagnosis does not necessarily constitute negligence. Because
of the many judgments involved in dental practice it is considered unrealistic to
expect that a dentist be 100% correct. The plaintiff must demonstrate serious
injury because of the dentist's failure to diagnose properly before there are
grounds for negligence. Furthermore, it must be shown that the dentist failed to
exercise the applicable standard of care. But injury alone is grounds to file a suit
for negligence.
If the outcome of treatment is bad (e.g., a failed endodontic treatment due
to a separated instrument), negligence is not necessarily supported if the
appropriate standard of treatment is employed. However, if a dentist promises to
effect a specific cure, to bring about a particular result, or to complete a
procedure with no residual problems and fails to fulfill the promise, a lawsuit may
be filed on the basis of breach of contract rather than negligence.
8. When should a patient be referred?
A patient should be referred under the following circumstances:
1. When there is a question of appropriate treatment;
2. When periodontal treatment not routinely performed by the general
dentist is indicated.
3. When periodontal disease is advanced with severe bone loss;
4. When shared responsibility is desirable for complex multidisciplinary
cases.
5. When complex care is required for medically compromised patients; and
6. When the patient is refractory to treatment or unstable with a well-
documented history of previous treatment failures.
9. What are common reasons for patients to sue?
1 Lack of informed consent: a patient does not know the specific nature
and/or complications of treatment.
2. Failure to refer: for example, treating advanced periodontal disease with
only scalings.
3. Failure to treat or diagnose adequately.
4. Abandonment: if the patient was dismissed for nonpayment of services,
the dentist must show that other avenues were tried, such as small claims court or
collection agencies. The dentist should document the reason for the dismissal and
make available a referral source and any necessary emergency care for a period of
60 days. Communications to the patient should be through a registered letter.
5. Guarantees by doctor or staff.
6. Poor patient rapport.
7. Lack of communication.
8. Poor recordkeeping.
9. Issues related to fee collection.
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10. What is necessary to prove negligence?
Four elements are necessary to prove negligence and win a malpractice suit.
The patient must establish that (1) a dentist-patient relationship existed (i.e., that
the dentist owed the patient the care and skill of the average qualified
practitioner), (2) the dentist breached his or her duty by failing to exercise the
level of care and skill of the average qualified practitioner, (3) the patient suffered
injury, and (4) a connection exists between the dentist's breach of duty and the
patient's injury (causation).
11. Wliat are grounds for revocation of a dental license?
Criminal convictions involving fraud and deception in prescribing drugs,
gross immorality, or conviction of a felony under state law are grounds for
revocation, usually by decision of the state licensing board.
12. What issues may constitute a defense against malpractice?
In a claim of malpractice or negligence, the patient must show that his or
her injuries are directly associated with the dentist's wrongful acts or that
standards of care were not followed. Failure to achieve successful treatment or to
satisfy a patient with esthetic results does not necessairly constitute negligence.
"Contributory negligence" is a special phrase used in the law to describe
what the plaintiff may have done to contribute to his or her own injury.
Contributory negligence may occur if the patient does not comply with specific
instructions regarding medications or home care and summarily dismisses any
claims of negligence.
13. What elements are contained in a complete dental record?
• Identification data
• Medical history, including updated antibiotic regimens for prophylaxis of
subacute bacterial endocarditis, effects of medication on birth control pills, and
medical consultations as needed
• Dental history
• Clinical examination
• Diagnosis and interpretation of radiographs
• Treatment plans
• Progress notes
• Consent forms for surgical procedures
• Completion notes
14. How should records be written and corrections be made?
All entries require ink or typed notes, not pencil, and errors must be lined
out with a single line and initialed, with the substitute entry correcting the error.
This procedure guards against any challenge to the reliability of record entries.
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ETHICS
15. How is the practice of dentistry broadly governed?
The ethical rules and principles ol professional conduct for the practice of
dentistry are set forth in the American Dental Association's publication, Principles
of Etiiics and Code of Professional Conduct, which describes the role of the
professional in the practice of dentistry.
16. What three ethical principles are outlined in the code?
1. Beneficence: being kind and/or doing good
2. Autonomy: respect of the patient's right of self-decision
3. Justice: the quality of being impartial and fair
17. How does the code define beneficence in the practice of dentistry?
The dentist is obliged:
1. To give the highest quality of service of which he or she is capable. This
implies that professionals will maintain their level of knowledge by continued skill
development.
2. To preserve healthy dentition unless it compromises the well-being of
other teeth.
3. To participate in legal and public health-related matters.
18. Who is expected to be responsible for practices of preventive
health maintenance?
The patient is expected to be responsible for his or her own preventive
practices. The dentist is responsible for providing information and supportive care
(e.g., recall and prophylaxis), but the patient has the ultimate responsibility to
maintain oral health.
19. Outline the essential elements implied in the principle of autonomy.
The principle of autonomy requires respect for the patient's rights in the
areas of confidentiality, informed consent for diagnostic and therapeutic services,
and truthfulness to the patient. The dentist should work with patients to allow
them to make autonomous decisions about their care. The dentist is obliged to
provide services for which the patient contracts.
20. How does the dental profession serve justice, according to the
code?
The individual dentist and the profession as a whole are obligated to be just
and fair in the delivery of dental services. Self-regulation is a basic tenet of this
obligation as well as calling attention to any social injustices in the allocation of
societal resources to the delivery of dental health services.
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21. A 29-year-old patient with poor oral hygiene and multiple caries
requests full-mouth extractions and dentures. A complete examination
reveals a basically sound periodontium and carious lesions that can be
restored conservatively. What ethical principles apply to this basic case
of neglect without advanced disease?
Respect for the patient's autonomy and requests is evaluated and judged
against the duty of the dentist to provide the highest type of service of which he
or she is capable. After full disclosure about long-term effects of edentulism, as
well as the costs and benefits of saving teeth, the assessment of the patient's
motivation is most important. Saving teeth that will only fall into disrepair through
neglect and the patient's lack of commitment to maintain oral health must be
considered carefully before a final treatment is elected or rejected.
22. A patient rejects the use of radiographs for examination of his
teeth. How should this situation be handled, according to the code?
The dentist's only recourse is to use informed consent about the risks and
benefits of an in complete examination and the possible consequences of such a
decision. The respect of the pa tient's right to choose (autonomy) prevails, even if
it generates a negative obligation not to interfere with a patient's choice.
23. An adolescent presents with a suspected lesion of a sexually
transmitted disease (STD) and asks that no one, especially his parents,
be told. What are the ethical considerations?
The right of autonomy and respect for privacy are overturned by the public
health law that requires the reporting of STDs to the health department. Public
law is often the determinant in such situations.
24. A patient requests that all her amalgam restorations be replaced. I s
this an ethical issue?
It is not unethical to replace amalgams on request. It is considered
untruthful, and hence unethical, to make any claim that a patient's general health
will be improved or that the patient will rid her body of toxins by replacing
amalgam restorations. It is unethical to ascribe any disease to the use of dental
amalgam, because no causal relationship has been proved, or to attempt to treat
any systemic disease by the removal of dental amalgams.
25. What disciplinary penalties may be imposed on a dentist found
guilty of unethical conduct?
1. Censure: a disciplinary sentence written to express severe criticism or
disapproval for a particular type of conduct or act.
2. Suspension: a loss of membership privileges for a certain period with
automatic reinstatement.
3. Probation: a specified period without the loss of rights in lieu of a
suspended disciplinary penalty. A dentist on probation may be required to practice
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under the supervision of a dentist or other individual approved by the dental
board.
4. Revocation of license: absolute severance from the profession.
26. For wliat acts may a dentist be charged witli unetliical conduct?
1. A guilty verdict for a criminal felony.
2. A guilty verdict for violating the bylaws or principles of the Code of Ethics.
27. To what guiding principle does the ADA'S Principles of Conduct and
Code of Pmfessionai EttiicsdkScriYieil
Service to the public and quality of care are the two aspects of the dental
profession's obligation to society elaborated in the code.
28. May a dentist refuse to care for certain patients?
It is unethical for a dentist to refuse to accept patients because of race,
color, or national origin or because the patient has acquired immunodeficiency
syndrome (AIDS) or is infected with the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV).
Treatment decisions and referrals should be made on the same basis as they are
made for any patient that the dentist treats. Such decisions should be based only
on the need of a dentist for another dentist's skills, knowledge, equipment, or
experience to serve best the patient's health needs.
29. May a dentist relate information about a patient's seropositivity for
Hi V to another dentist to whom he or she is referring the patient?
The laws that safeguard the confidentiality of a patient's record are not
uniform throughout the United States with regard to HIV status. It may be
prohibited to transfer this information without the written permission of the
patient. As a rule, the treating dentist is advised to seek written permission from
the patient before releasing any information to the consulting practitioner.
30. What is overbilling?
Overbilling is the misrepresentation of a fee as higher than in fact it is; for
example, when a patient is charged one fee and an insurance company is billed a
higher fee to benefit the patient's copayment.
31. May a dentist accept a copayment from a dental insurance company
as payment in full for services and not request the patient's portion?
It is considered "overbilling" and hence unethical to collect only the third-
party payment without full disclosure to the insurance company.
32. May a dentist charge different fees to different patients for the
same services?
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It is considered unethical to increase a fee to a patient because the patient
has insurance. However, different treatment scenarios and conditions may prevail
and dictate different fees, regardless of the form of payment.
33. I s it appropriate to advance treatment dates on insurance claims
for a patient who otiierwise would not be eligible for dental benefits?
It is considered false and misleading representation to the third-party payer
to advance treatment dates for services not undertaken within the benefit period.
34. What are the standards for advertising by dentists?
Advertising is permitted as long as it is not false or misleading in any
manner. Infringements of the standards involve statements that include inferences
of specialty by a general dentist, use of unearned degrees as titles or nonhealth
degrees to enhance prestige, or use of "HIV-negative health results" to attract
patients without conveying information that clarifies the scientific significance of
the statement.
35. How may specialization be expressed? What are the standard
guidelines?
To allow the public to make an informed selection between the dentist who
has completed accredit training beyond the dental degree and the dentist who has
not, an announcement of specialization is permitted. The areas of ethical specialty
recognized by the American Dental Association are dental public health,
endodontics, oral pathology, oral surgery, orthodontics, pediatric dentistry,
periodontics, and prosthodontics. Any announcement should read "specialist in" or
practice "limited to" the respective field. Dentists making such announcements
must have met the educational requirements of the ADA for the specialty.
36. What are the stated guidelines for the name of a dental practice?
Because the name of a practice may be a selection factor on the patient's
part, it must not be misleading in any manner. The name of a dentist no longer
associated with the practice may be continued for a period of 1 year.
37. What does the code state about chemical dependency of dentists?
It is unethical for a dentist to practice while abusing alcohol or other
chemical substances that impair ability. All dentists are obligated to urge impaired
colleagues to seek treatment and to report firsthand evidence of abuse by a
colleague to the professional assistance committee of a dental society. The
professional assistance committee is obligated to report noncompliers to the
appropriate regulatory boards for licensing review.
38. How are problems of interpretation of the Principles of Ettiics and
Code of Pmfessionai Conductto be resolved?
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Problems involving questions of ethics should be resolved by the local dental
society. If resolutions cannot be achieved, an appeal to the ADA's Council on
Ethics, Bylaws and Judicial Affairs is the next step.
BIBLIOGRAPHY
Law and Dental Practice
1. Barsley RE, Herschaft EE: Dental malpractice. In Hardin JF (ed): Clark's
Clinical Dentistry, vol. 5. Philadelphia, J.B. Lippincott, 1992, pp 1—26.
2. Brackett RC, Poulsom RC: The law and the dental health practitioner. In
Hardin JF (ed): Clark's Clinical Dentistry, vol. 5. Philadelphia, J.B.
Lippincott, 1992, pp 1—42.
3. Pollack B: Risk management in dental office practice. In Hardin JF (ed):
Clark's Clinical Dentistry, vol. 5. Philadelphia, J.B. Lippincott, 1992, pp
1-26.
4. Pollack B: Legal risks associated with implant dentistry. In Hardin JF (ed):
Clark's Clinical Dentistry, vol. 5. Philadelphia, J.B. Lippincott, 1992, pp
1-8.
5. Pollack B: Legal risks associated with management of the
temporomandibular joint. In Hardin IF (ed): Clark's Clinical Dentistry.
vol.5. Philadelphia, J.B. Lippincott, 1992, pp 1—11.
6. Risk Management Foundation of the Harvard Medical Institutions: Claims
Management and the Legal Process. Cambridge, MA, 1994.
Ethics and Dentistry
7. American Dental Association: Principles of Ethics and Code of Professional
Conduct, with official advi sory opinions revised to May 1992. Chicago,
American Dental Association, 1992.
8. Massachusetts Dental Society: Code of Ethics. Natick, MA, 1986.
9. McCullough LB: Ethical issues in dentistry. In Hardin JF (ed): Clark's Clinical
Dentistry, vol. 1. Philadelphia, J.B. Lippincott. 1992, pp 1—17.
10. Ozar DT: AIDS, ethics, and dental care. In Hardin JF (ed): Clark's Clinical
Dentistry, vol. 1. Philadelphia, J. B. Lippincott, 1992, pp 1—2 1.
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